Q1. The distance between Trivandrum and Gandhidham is 2268 kilometers. If a train covers this distance in 42 hours, the average speed of the train in between the railway stations of these two cities in meter per second is
(a) 54 (b) 30
(c) 27 (d) 15
Q2. A student is at A and wants to reach at B. For this he first goes to O which is 120 m due north of A and then he goes 50 m from O to B by covering a distance of A from B and the direction of A with respect to B are respectively
(a) 130 m; South-west (b) 130 m; South-east
(c) 170 m; South-east (d) 170 m; South-west
Q3. Select true statement about sloths from the following
(a) Sloths look like bear and spend almost 22 hour a day sleeping while hanging upside down on a tree branch
(b) Sloths look like chimpanzee and spend almost 17 hours a day sleeping while hanging on a tree branch
(c) Sloths look like chimpanzee and spend almost 22 hours a day sleeping while hanging upside down on a tree branch
(d) Sloths look like bear and spend almost 17 hours a day sleeping while hanging upside down on a tree branch
Q4. When you pour milk through a piece of cloth, cream remains on it. The method of separation here is –
(a) Filtration (b) Sieving
(c) Sedimentation (d) Decantation
Q5. On the map of Galconda Fort given in the class V textbook, 1cm distance is equal to a distance of 110 metres on the ground. On this map the distance between Fateh Darwaja and Jamali Darwaja is 10.7 cm. On the ground, the minimum distance between the two would be
(a) 1.070 km (b) 1.177 km
(c) 10.70 km (d) 11.77 km
Q6. A group of three states having Bay of Bengal on one side is –
(a) Andhra Pradesh, Maharashtra, Tamil Nadu
(b) Odisha, Kerala, Tamil Nadu
(c) Odisha, Andhra Pradesh, Tamil Nadu
(d) Kerala, Karnataka, Tamil Nadu
Q7. Suppose you are in Madhya Pradesh. With respect to this state the direction of our country’s thickest forest is
(a) Due North (b) North-East
(c) North-West (d) South-West
Q8. The height of the peak of Mount Everest is
(a) 8600 m (b) 8850 m
(c) 8950 m (d) 8990 m
Q9. A shooting star is a
(a) Star (b) Comet
(c) Meteor (d) Asteroid
Q10. Consider the following statements about the ‘Khejadi’ tree.
(A) This tree is mainly found in desert areas
(B) This tree can grow without much water.
(C) This tree stores water in its trunk which can be used for drinking when needed.
(D) The bark of this tree is used for making medicine and its wood is not affected by insects
(E) This tree has very few leaves. The correct statements are
(a) A, B and D (b) A, B and C
(c) B, C and D (d) A, C and E
Q11. Consider the following statement given by a student “I have come from an area where rainfall is very scarce. It is very hot too. Our houses are made of mud. The walls of the houses are very thick and also plastered with mud. The roofs are made of thorny bushes.” This student must be from a village of
(a) Laddakh (b) Assam
(c) Rajasthan (d) Uttar Pradesh
Q12. Consider the following statement made by a student while giving her introduction in a meeting; “I am from a place where most of the people prefer to eat fish cooked in mustard oil.” The student must be from
(a) Goa (b) Kerala
(c) Kashmir (d) Mizoram
Q13. Select correct statement from the following
(a) An adult elephant can eat more than 2 quintals (220kg) of green leaves and twigs in one day.
(b) Because of their heavy weights most elephants like to take too much rest after eating.
(c) Even a three-month-old baby elephant generally weighs about 200 kg.
(d) On an average most elephants sleep for 9-10 hours in a day.
Q14. Select the group which can be recycled after use.
(a) Polythene Bag, Paper, Batteries, Mobile phones
(b) Bedsheets, Newspaper, Plastic Bottle, Batteries
(c) Iron nails, Glass Bottle, Steel Mug, Cardboard Box
(d) Leather bag, Wooden table, Plastic Vase, Bedsheets
Q15. Match the following : Column I Column II
A. Goa (ii) Boiled tapioca with curry made using coconut
B. Kerala (iii) Fish cooked in mustard oil
C. Uttarakhand (iv) Sea fish cooked in coconut oil
E. Punjab Codes :
(a) (i)-E, (ii)-D, (iii)-B, (iv)-A
(b) (i)-C, (ii)-B, (iii)-D, (iv)-A
(c) (i)-E, (ii)-A, (iii)-B, (iv)-D
(d) (i)-E, (ii)-B, (iii)-D, (iv)-A
Q16. Select a suitable assessment task for class IV students of EVS.
(a) Writing question answers of the chapter on floating and sinking
(b) Performing the activity to observe sinking and floating
(c) Explaining definition of floating and sinking
(d) Learning the list of objects which sank or floated.
Q17. Art and craft should be integrated in EVS teaching, because it promotes
(A) creativity (B) peer learning
(C) discipline in the class (D) inclusion Option:
(a) A and D (b) A and B
(c) A, B and C (d) A, B and D
Q18. Which of the following strategy promotes inquiry while teaching the theme ‘Shelter’ to class IV students?
(a) Asking students to collect pictures of different types of houses
(b) Sharing pictures of different types of shelters
(c) Asking students to narrate their experiences of visiting different house construction sites
(d) Showing a power point presentation of different shelters across the country
Q19. EVS the primary classes is a subject area which integrates
(a) the concepts and issues of Science and Environmental Education
(b) the concepts and issues of Social Science
(c) the concepts and issues of Science and Social Science
(d) the concepts and issues of Science, Social Studies and Environmental Education
Q20. Which of the following is an objective of EVS at the primary level
(a) To sensitise learners to issues related to gender discrimination
(b) To develop simple models from locally available materials
(c) To gradually prepare students for upper primary science concepts
(d) To orient students towards occupational choices available in their locality
Q21. A teacher asks her students to consult their family members to find out the names of different plant parts like roots, stem and flowers eaten as food. This activity is designed to –
(a) promote experiential learning
(b) promote learning of concepts related to food
(c) make the lesson more enjoyable and interesting
(d) allow the students to discover about food freely
Q22. Which of the following strategy of teaching EVS to the visually impaired student is most appropriate?
(a) Make a mixed peer group in class
(b) Allow more time to finish a task
(c) Break the tasks into parts and teach the parts separately
(d) Use more of tactile teaching – learning materials
Q23. The most appropriate stage of the lesson plan where students should be assessed while teaching EVS is –
(a) At the end of the lesson
(b) At the introduction of the assessed
(c) When students wish to assessed
(d) Over the course of teaching – learning
Q24. You have to assess your students’ EVS projects and give them quick feedback. Which assessment tool will you choose?
(a) Observation (b) Rating scale
(c) Check-list (d) Peer assessment
Q25. The objective of assessment of EVS learning is that
(a) teacher gathers information about the students’ achievement
(b) it is a way of teaching rather than evaluation
(c) it provides feedback about students’ progress in mastering new knowledge
(d) it informs about students’ learning to provide support for the next step
Q26. Primary classes (Classes I to V) will consist of which of the following stages according to NEP, 2020?
(A) Preparatory Stage
(B) Middle Stage
(C) Foundational Stage Option :
(a) A Only (b) B Only
(c) A & C (d) B & C
Q27. Which of the following is NOT a process skill at primary level?
(b) Defining variables operationally
(c) Testing Hypothesis
(d) Recalling facts
Q28. Which is a sub-theme under the theme ‘Family and Friends’?
(a) Things We Make and Do
(b) Work and Play
(c) Food and Water
(d) Our Shelter
Q29. Which of these is a divergent question a teacher of EVS will ask her students to promote creativity?
(a) What are the steps of harvesting onions starting from sowing onion seeds in the soil?
(b) What step will you take to reduce air pollution in metro cities like Delhi?
(c) How will you separate salt from salt solution?
(d) Why leaves have green colour?
Q30. The dynamic, holistic and experiential nature of EVS learning by students is best assessed by
(a) Rating scale
(b) Pen-paper Tests
(c) Authentic Assessment strategies
(d) Oral tests