Chapter Indian Polity Part 1 2

Part 1 Features of Constitution
Type 1. Constitutional Development
1. Match List I with List II and select the correct answer by using the codes given below the lists
List I List II
A. Bicameral system 1. Government of India Act,1935
B. Legislative devolution 2. Indian Councils Act, 1861
C. Separate electorate 3. Montague- Chelmsford Reforms
D. Provincial autonomy 4. Minto-Morley Reforms
Codes A B C D
(a) 1 2 3 4
(b) 2 1 4 3
(c) 3 2 4 1
(d) 3 4 1 2
Ans: (c)

---

2. Which one among the following statements regarding the Government of India Act, 1935 is not correct?
(a) Provincial autonomy came into existence
(b) Bicameral legislatures were provided in six provinces
(c) The principles of communal electorates and weightages were further extended
(d) The states were compelled to enter the federation
Ans: (c)

---

3. Consider the following statements A Constitutional government is one which
1. Places effective restrictions on individual liberty in the interest of state authority
2. Places effective restrictions on the authority of the state in the interest of individual liberty
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a) Only 1
(b) Only 2
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
Ans: (a)

---

4. Which of the following is/are the principal feature(s) of the Government of India Act, 1919?
1. Introduction of Dyarchy in the executive government of the provinces.
2. Introduction of separate communal electorates for Muslims.
3. Devolution of legislative authority by the Centre to the provinces.
Select the correct answer using the codes given below
(a) Only 1 (b) 2 and 3
(c) 1 and 3 (d) 1, 2 and 3
Ans: (a)

---

5. Match List I with List II and select the correct answer by using the codes given below the lists
List I List II
A. Indian Councils Act of 1861 1. Introduced Dyarchy
B. Government of India Act of 1919 2. Placed Indian affairs under the direct control of the British Government
C. Indian Council Act of 1892 3. Introduced representative institutions
D. Pitts India Act of 1784 4. Introduced the principle of election
Codes A B C D A B C D
(a) 1 2 3 4 (b) 2 1 4 3
(c) 3 2 4 1 (d) 3 1 4 2
Ans: (d)

---

6. Freedom under Constitution of India is subject to
1. Public order, morality and health.
2. A law providing for social welfare and reform
3. Opening Hindu religious institutions of a public character to all Hindus.
4. Defamation or incitement to an offence.
Which of the above statements are correct?
(a) 1 and 2
(b) 1, 2 and 3
(c) 3 and 4
(d) 1 and 2
Ans: (b)

---

7. Which one among the following was not a feature of the provincial executive according to the Government of India Act, 1935?
(a) The executive authority of the province was vested in the Governor
(b) There was a Council of Ministers to advise the Governor
(c) Dyarchy established by the Government of India Act, 1919 was abolished at the provincial level
(d) The Governor could be removed by a vote of no-confidence of the provincial legislature
Ans: (d)

---

8. Which of the following are among the provisions of the Act of 1858?
1. The administration of India and the Indian Territories was transferred to the Crown.
2. The rule of East India Company was abolished.
3. The Governor-General of India was to be known as the Viceroy of India and a Secretary of State for India was also appointed.
4. The administrative power of India was to be shared between the East India Company and the Crown of England.
Codes
(a) 1, 3 and 4
(b) 1, 2 and 3
(c) 2, 3 and 4
(d) All of the above
Ans: (b)

---

9. Which of the following Acts introduced communal electorate in India?
(a) Indian Council Act, 1861
(b) Indian Council Act, 1892
(c) Indian Council Act, 1909
(d) Government of India Act, 1935
Ans: (c)

---

10. The first attempt to introduce a representative and popular element in the Governance of India was made through
(a) Indian Council Act, 1861
(b) Indian Council Act, 1892
(c) Indian Council Act, 1909
(d) Government of India Act, 1919
Ans: (a)

---

11. The Indian Legislature was made bi-cameral for the first time by
(a) Indian Council Act, 1892
(b) Indian Council Act, 1909
(c) The Government of India Act, 1919
(d) The Government of India Act, 1935
Ans: (c)

---

12. Consider the following statements The objective of the Montague- Chelmsford Reforms of 1919 was
1. To give power to the local government.
2. To establish dyarchy in the provinces.
3. The extension of provincial government.
Which of these statements are correct?
(a) 1 and 2 (b) 1 and 3
(c) 2 and 3 (d) 1, 2 and 3
Ans: (c)

---

13. The Government of India Act, 1935 was based on
(a) the principle of federation and parliamentary system
(b) the principle of succession of the British Indian provinces
(c) acceptance of the idea of a Constituent Assembly to draft a Constitution
(d) None of the above
Ans: (a)

---

14. Which of the following was/were the main feature(s) of the Government of India act, 1919
1. The act provided for the establishment, for the first time, in India of a Public Service Commission.
2. The act provided for the appointment of an India to the viceroy’s executive council, as well as the provincial executive councils.
3. A provision was made for classification of central and provincial subjects.
Codes
(a) 1 and 2 (b) 2 and 3
(c) 1 and 3 (d) 1, 2 and 3
Ans: (c)

---

15. Through which one of the following were commercial activities of the East India Company finally put to an end?
(a) The Charter Act of 1793
(b) The Charter Act of 1813
(c) The Charter Act of 1833
(d) The Charter Act of 1853
Ans: (c)

---

16. The first definite step to provide parliamentary control over East India Company was taken by
(a) the Regulating Act, 1773
(b) the Pitt’s India Act, 1784
(c) the Charter Act, 1793
(d) the Charter Act, 1813
Ans: (a)

---

17. Dyarchy was first introduced under
(a) Morley-Minto Reforms
(b) Mont-Ford Reforms
(c) Simon Commission Plan
(d) Government of India Act, 1935
Ans: (b)

---

18. Which of the following vested the Secretary of State for India with supreme control over the Government of India?
(a) Pitt’s India Act, 1784
(b) Government of India Act, 1858
(c) Indian Council Act, 1861
(d) Morley-Minto Reforms, 1909
Ans: (b)

---

19. Match List I (Act) with List II (Largely based on) and select the correct answer by using the codes given below the lists
List I List II
A. Indian Council Act, 1909 1. Mountbatten Plan
B. Government o f India Act, 1919 2. Simon Commission Report and Joint Select Committee Recommendation
C. Government of India Act, 1935 3. Montague- Chelmsford Reforms
D. Indian Independence Act, 1947 4. Morley-Minto Reforms
Codes A B C D
(a) 1 2 3 4
(b) 4 3 2 1
(c) 3 4 1 2
(d) 4 1 2 3
Ans: (b)

---

20. Which of the following was/were the main feature(s) of the Government of India Act, 1919?
1. Introduction of separate electorates for Muslims.
2. Devolution of legislative authority by the centre.
3. Expansion and reconstitution of Central and Provincial Legislatures.
Select the correct answer using the codes given below
(a) Only 2 (b) 1 and 3
(c) Only 3 (d) 2 and 3
Ans: (d)

---

21. The distribution of powers between the Centre and States in the Indian Constitution is based on the scheme provided in the
(a) Morley-Minto Reforms, 1909
(b) Montague-Chelmsford Act, 1919
(c) Government of India Act, 1935
(d) Indian Independence Act, 1947
Ans: (c)

---

22. Which of the following Acts was described by Jawaharlal Nehru as ‘Charter of Slavery’?
(a) Regulating Act, 1773
(b) Pitt’s India Act, 1784
(c) Government of India Act, 1919
(d) Government of India Act, 1935
Ans: (d)

---

23. Consider the following with reference to the provisions of ‘Government of India Act, 1935’
1. Establishment of an All-India Federation.
2. Provincial autonomy, with a Government responsible to an elected legislature.
3. Redistribution of provinces and the creation of two new provinces.
Which of these were embodied in the Government of India Act, 1935?
(a) 1, 2 and 3 (b) 1 and 2
(c) 2 and 3 (d) 1 and 3
Ans: (a)

---

24. Article 40 of the Constitution of India advices the state of work for
(a) Uniform civil code
(b) Organisation of Village Panchayats
(c) Constitution of muncipalties
(d) Living wages for workers
Ans: (b)

---

25. Consider the following acts
1. The Regulating Act
2. Pitt’s India Act 3. The Charter Act
4. Indian Council Act What is the correct chronological sequence of these acts?
(a) 1, 2, 3, 4 (b) 2, 1, 3, 4
(c) 4, 3, 2, 1 (d) 3, 4, 2,1
Ans: (a)

---

26. Consider the following statements with reference to the provisions of Morley-Minto Reforms Act in the Colonial India
1. The Morley-Minto Reform Act raised the number of additional members of the Central Legislature.
2. It introduced the principle of communal representation in the Legislature.
3. It empowered the Legislature to discuss the budget and to move resolutions on it.
Which of the statements given above are correct?
(a) 1 and 2 (b) 2 and 3
(c) 1, 2 and 3 (d) 1 and 3
Ans: (c)

---

27. Which of the following Act provided for the establishment of Reserve Bank of India?
(a) Government of India Act, 1919
(b) Government of India Act, 1935
(c) Indian Independence Act, 1947
(d) RBI Act, 1935
Ans: (b)

---

28. Assertion (A) The Constitution of India has become the longest one.
Reason (R) The chapter on fundamental rights has been borrowed from the model of American Constitution. Choose the correct answer using the following codes
(a) Both A and R are correct and R is the correct explanation of A
(b) Both A and R are correct but R is not the correct explanation of A
(c) A is true, but R is false
(d) A is false, but R is true
Ans: (b)

---

29. With reference to the Cabinet Mission, which of the following statements is/are correct ?
1. It recommended a Federal Government
2. It enlarged the powers of the Indian Courts.
3. It provides formore Indians in the ICS.
Select the correct answer using the codes given below
(a) Only 1 (b) 2 and 3
(c) 1 and 3 (d) None of these
Ans: (a)

---

30. Consider the following statements The Regulating Act of 1773 was passed by British Parliament in order to
1. establish Parliamentary control over the administration of the East India Company’s territory in India.
2. make the Governor of Bengal as the Governor-General of Bengal.
3. end of dual system of administration in India.
Which of the statements given above are correct?
(a) 1, 2 and 3 (b) 1 and 2
(c) 2 and 3 (d) 1 and 3
Ans: (a)

---

31. Consider the following statements regarding a No-confidence Motion in India.
1. There is no mention of a no-confidence motion in the Constitution of India.
2. A motion of no-confidence can be introduced in the Lok sabha only.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a) Only 1 (b) Only 2
(c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2
Ans: (a)

---

32. By which of the following Act, the first step taken by the British Government to control and regulate the affairs of East India Company in India.
(a) Regulating Act, 1773
(b) Pitt’s India Act, 1784
(c) Charter Act, 1833
(d) Government of India Act, 1861
Ans: (a)

---

33. Assertion (A) The Government of India Act, 1935 and the Constitution of India are both lengthy documents.
Reason (R) The Government of India Act, 1935 was taken as a model and substantially incorporated in the Constitution of India.
Codes
(a) Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A
(b) Both A and R are true, but R is not the correct explanation of A
(c) A is true, but R is false
(d) A is false, but R is true
Ans: (a)

---

34. The Cabinet Mission Plan for India envisaged
(a) Federation (b) Confederation
(c) Unitary form of Government
(d) Union of States
Ans: (b)

---

35. Which among the following acts for first time allowed Indians, at theoretically, entry to higher posts in British Indian administration?
(a) Charter Act 1813
(b) Charter Act 1833
(c) Charles Wood’s Education Desp 1854
(d) Indian Councils Act 1861
Ans: (d)

---

36. The Constitution of India divided the states of India in categories A, B, C and D in the year 1950. In this context which of the following statements is correct?
(a) The Chief Commissioner was the executive head of category A states. The Rajpramukh was the executive head of category B states. The Governor was the executive head of categories C and D states
(b) The Rajpramukh was the executive head of category A states. The Chief Commissioner was the executive head of categories B and C states. The Governor was the executive head of the category D states
(c) The Governor was the executive head of category A states. The Rajpramukh was the executive head of category B states. The Chief Commissioner was the executive head of categories C and D states
(d) The Governor was the executive head of category A states. The Chief Commissioner was the executive head of category B states. The Rajpramuhk was the executive head of categories C and D states
Ans: (c)

---

37. Assertion (A) The Government of India Act, 1919 was passed by the British Parliament to introduce Diarchy in the provincial government.
Reason (R) The Montague-Chelmsford Reforms Committee has recommended the introduction of Dyarchy in the provincial government.
Codes
(a) Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A
(b) Both A and R are true, but R is not the correct explanation of A
(c) A is true, but R is false
(d) A is false, but R is true
Ans: (a)

---

Type 2. Constituent Assembly
38. Assertion (A) The Government of India Act of 1858 transferred the Governance of India from the East India Company to the Crown.
Reason (R) The East India Company was unwilling to administer India any more.
Codes
(a) Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A
(b) Both A and R are true, but R is not the correct explanation of A
(c) A is true, but R is false
(d) A is false, but R is true
Ans: (c)

---

39. Consider the following statements regarding Constituent Assembly functions
1. It retified the India’s membership of the CommonWealth in May 1949.
2. It adopted the National Flag on 22nd July, 1947.
3. It adopted the National Anthem on 24th January, 1950.
4. It adopted the National Song on 24th January, 1950.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a) 1 and 2 (b) 1, 2 and 3
(c) 2, 3 and 4 (d) 1, 2, 3 and 4
Ans: (d)

---

40. Match List I with List II and select the correct answer using the codes given below the lists
List I (Act) List II (Feature)
A. The Indian Councils Act, 1892 1. Introduction of provincial autonomy
B. The Indian Councils Act 1909 2. Introduction of the principle of election
C. The Government of India Act, 1919 3. Introduction of diarchy in provinces
D. The Government of India Act, 1935 4. Introduction of separate electorate for the Muslims
Codes A B C D A B C D
(a) 2 4 3 1 (b) 1 3 4 2
(c) 2 3 4 1 (d) 1 4 3 2
Ans: (a)

---

41. Match the following
List I List II
A. Chairman of the Drafting Committee 1. Lord Mountbatten
B. First Prime Minister of India 2. Dr Rajendra Prasad
C. Member of the Constituent Assembly 3. Dr BR Ambedkar
D. Last British Governor- General 4. Pandit JL Nehru
E. President of the Constituent Assembly 5. Dr KM Munshi
F. Legal Advisor of the Constituent Assembly
Codes
(a) 1-D, 2-A, 3-E, 4-B, 5-F
(b) 1-D, 2-E, 3-F, 4-B, 5-A
(c) 1-D, 2-E, 3-A, 4-B, 5-C
(d) 1-D, 2-C, 3-F, 4-B, 5-A
Ans: (c)

---

42. Who among the following were the members of the Drafting Committee of the Constitution?
1. KM Munshi 2. Jawaharlal Nehru
3. Alladi Krishnaswami Ayyar
4. Sardar Patel
Codes
(a) 1, 3 and 4 (b) 1 and 4
(c) 1 and 3 (d) 2, 3 and 4
Ans: (c)

---

43. The Constituent Assembly that finally framed India’s Constitution was set up
(a) under the Indian Independence Act
(b) under the Government of India Act, 1935
(c) under the CabinetMission Plan, 1946
(d) by the Queen’s Proclamation
Ans: (c)

---

44. The nationalist demand for a Constituent Assembly was for the first time conceded by the British Government, though indirectly and with reservations in the
(a) Cripps Proposals (b) August Offer
(c) Cabinet Mission Plan
(d) Act of 1935
Ans: (b)

---

45. Which of the following statements about the formation of the Constitution Assembly is/are correct?
1. The members of the constituent assembly were chosen on the basis of the Provincial election of 1946.
2. The constituent assembly did not include representatives of the princely state.
3. The discussion within the constituent assembly were not influenced by opinions expressed by the public.
4. In order to create a sense of collective participation, submissions were solicited from the public.
Select the correct answer using the codes given below.
(a) Only 1 (b) 2 and 3
(c) 3 and 4 (d) 1 and 4
Ans: (d)

---

46. The members of the Constituent Assembly were
(a) directly elected by the people
(b) all nominated by the Indian National Congress and the Muslim League
(c) indirectly elected by the Provincial Assemblies
(d) all nominated by the British Government
Ans: (c)

---

47. Who was the head of the Drafting Committee of the Constitution?
(a) Sachidanand Sinha
(b) BN Rao
(c) Jawaharlal Nehru
(d) BR Ambedkar
Ans: (d)

---

48. Who among the following was the Chairman of the Union Constitution Committee of the Constituent Assembly?
(a) BR Ambedkar (b) JB Kripalani
(c) Jawaharlal Nehru
(d) Alladi Krishnaswami Ayyar
Ans: (c)

---

49. Which of the following items is wrongly matched?
(a) 9th December, 1947 : Constituent Assembly’s first meeting
(b) 26th November, 1949 : The people of India adopted, enacted and gave to themselves the Constitution
(c) 24th January, 1950 : The Constitution was finally signed by the members of the Constituent Assembly
(d) 26th January, 1950 : The date of commencement of the Constitution
Ans: (a)

---

50. Who among the following was /were not part of the Constituent Assembly
1. Gopinath Bordoloi 2.Mahatma Gandhi
3. MN Roy 4. MA Jinnah
5. KM Munshi Choose the correct option
(a) 1 and 2 (b) Only 2
(c) 2, 3 and 4 (d) All of these
Ans: (c)

---

51. What was the basis for Constituting the Constituent Assembly of India?
(a) The resolution of Indian National Congress
(b) The Cabinet Mission Plan, 1946
(c) The Indian Independence Act, 1947
(d) The resolution of the Provincial/State legislature of the Dominion of India
Ans: (b)

---

52. The preamble is useful in constitutional interpretation because it
(a) uses value-loaded words
(b) contains the real objective and philosophy of the Constitution makers
(c) is a source of power and limitation
(d) gives and exhaustive list of basic features of the Constitution
Ans: (b)

---

53. The Constituent Assembly of India started functioning from
(a) 9th December, 1946
(b) 1st January, 1947
(c) 26th January, 1947
(d) 15th August, 1947
Ans: (a)

---

54. Who presided over the first meeting of the Indian Constituent Assembly?
(a) Dr Rajendra Prasad
(b) Sachchidananda Sinha
(c) BR Ambedkar
(d) HV Kamath
Ans: (b)

---

55. Who among the following was not a member of the Constituent Assembly?
(a) Sardar Vallabhbhai Patel
(b) Acharya JB Kripalani
(c) Jay Prakash Narayan
(d) KM Munshi
Ans: (c)

---

56. Who among the following had moved the Objective Resolution which formed the basis of the Preamble of the Constitution of India in the Constituent Assembly 13th December, 1946?
(a) BR Ambedkar (b) Rajendra Prasad
(c) Sardar Vallabhbhai Patel
(d) Jawaharlal Nehru
Ans: (d)

---

57. How many Sessions of the Indian Constituent Assembly were conducted for the formulation of Indian Constitution?
(a) 7 (b) 11 (c) 12 (d) 15
Ans: (b)

---

58. The Constitution of India was completed on
(a) 11th February, 1948
(b) 26th November, 1949
(c) 26th January, 1950
(d) None of the above
Ans: (b)

---

59. To produce the Constitution, the Constituent Assembly took
(a) 2 years 11 months and 18 days
(b) 3 years 10 months and 10 days
(c) 4 years 11 months and 11 days
(d) 5 years 5 months and 5 days
Ans: (a)

---

60. The Constitutional Advisor to the Constituent Assembly was
(a) Sachidananda Sinha
(b) BN Rao
(c) Gopalaswamy Ayyangar
(d) HN Kunzru
Ans: (b)

---

61. Who was the Chairman of the Provincial Constitution Committee of the Constituent Assembly?
(a) Dr BR Ambedkar
(b) Pt Jawaharlal Nehru
(c) Dr Rajendra Prasad
(d) Sardar Patel
Ans: (d)

---

62. The Constituent Assembly set up a Drafting Committee under the Chairmanship of Dr BR Ambedkar on
(a) 13th December, 1946
(b) 22nd January, 1947
(c) 3rd June, 1947
(d) 29th August, 1947
Ans: (d)

---

63. Who proposed the Preamble before the Drafting Committee of the Constitution?
(a) Jawaharlal Nehru
(b) BR Ambedkar
(c) BN Rau
(d) Mahatma Gandhi
Ans: (a)

---

64. The number of members included in the Constitution Drafting Committee were
(a) seven (b) nine
(c) eleven (d) thirteen
Ans: (a)

---

65. Which of the following statements regarding the Constituent Assembly are true?
1. It was not based on adult franchise.
2. It resulted from direct elections.
3. It was a multi-member body.
4. It worked through several committees.
(a) 1 and 2 (b) 1, 3 and 4
(c) 2 and 3 (d) All of these
Ans: (a)

---

66. Deferment of adult franchise for fifteen years was advocated in Constituent Assembly by
(a) Dr Rajendra Prasad
(b) Jawaharlal Nehru
(c) Maulana Azad
(d) Dr Bhim Rao Ambedkar
Ans: (c)

---

67. Which of the following is correct?
(a) The Nehru Report (1928) had advocated the inclusion of Fundamental Rights in the Constitution of India
(b) The Government of India Act, 1935 referred to Fundamental Rights
(c) The August offer, 1940 included the Fundamental Rights
(d) The Cripps Mission, 1942 referred to Fundamental Rights
Ans: (c)

---

68. In which year did the Parliament adopt Indian Constitution?
(a) 1947 (b) 1948 (c) 1950 (d) 1952
Ans: (b)

---

69. Match the following
List I (Chairman) List II (Committee)
A. KM Munshi 1. Union Powers Committee
B. Rajendra Prasad 2. Drafting Committee
C. Jawaharlal Nehru 3. Business Committee
D. BR Ambedkar 4. Steering Committee
Codes A B C D A B C D
(a) 3 4 1 2 (b) 3 4 2 1
(c) 3 1 2 4 (d) 3 2 1 4
Ans: (a)

---

70. Which one of the following statements is correct?
(a) The Constituent Assembly of India was etected by the provincial assemblies in the year 1946
(b) Jawahar Lal Nehru, MA Jinnah and Sardar Vallabhbhai Patel were members of the Constituent Assembly of India
(c) The first session of the Constituent Assembly of India was held in January, 1947
(d) The Constitution of India was adopted on 26th January, 1950
Ans: (a)

---

Type 3. Main Features of the Constitution
71. Match List I with List II and select the correct answer from the codes given below the lists
List I (Forms of Government) List II (Principles)
A. Presidential System 1. Separation of powers
B. Parliamentary System 2. Close relationship between executive and legislature
C. Federal System 3. Division of power
D. Unitary System 4. Concentration of power
Codes A B C D A B C D
(a) 1 2 3 4 (b) 2 1 3 4
(c) 2 1 4 3 (d) 1 2 4 3
Ans: (a)

---

72. Which of the following is/are not central tenet(s) of the Constitution of India?
1. Prohibits discrimination on grounds of religion.
2. Gives official status to certain religions.
3. Provides freedom to protess any religions
4. Ensure equality of all citizens within religions communities.
Select the correct answer using the codes given below
(a) 1, 2 and 3 (b) 3 and 4
(c) 2, 3 and 4 (d) Only 2
Ans: (d)

---

73. Assertion (A) Indian Constitution is quasi-federal.
Reason (R) Indian Constitution is neither federal nor unitary.
Codes
(a) Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A
(b) Both A and R are true, but R is not the correct explanation of A
(c) A is true, but R is false
(d) A is false, but R is true
Ans: (a)

---

74. The Constitution is declared to have been adopted and enacted by the
(a) Constituent Assembly
(b) People of India
(c) Indian Parliament
(d) British Parliament
Ans: (b)

---

75. In the SR Bommai Vs Union of India case, which one among the following features of the Constitution of India was upheld by the Supreme Court as a basic structure?
(a) Liberalism (b) Secularism
(c) Dignity of the human person
(d) Freedom of religion
Ans: (a)

---

76. The Presidential Government operates on the principle of
(a) division of powers between Centre and States
(b) centralisation of powers
(c) balance of powers
(d) separation of powers
Ans: (d)

---

77. The Unitary System of Government possesses which of the following advantages?
(a) Greater adaptability
(b) Strong state
(c) Greater participation by the people
(d) Lesser chances of authoritarianism
Ans: (b)

---

78. The basic features of the Indian Constitution which are not amendable under Article 368 are
(a) Sovereignty, territorial integrity, federal system and Judicial review
(b) Sovereignty, territorial integrity and parliamentary system of government
(c) Judicial review and the federal system
(d) Sovereignty, territorial integrity, federal system, judicial review and parliamentary system of government
Ans: (d)

---

79. Where was the first parliamentary form of Government formed?
(a) Britain (b) Belgium
(c) France (d) Switzerland
Ans: (a)

---

80. The cardinal features of political system in India are
1. It is a democratic republic.
2. It has a parliamentary form of Government.
3. The supreme power vests in the people of India.
4. It provides for a unified authority.
Codes
(a) 1 and 2 (b) 1, 2 and 3
(c) 2, 3 and 4 (d) All of these
Ans: (d)

---

81. According to the Constitution of India, which of the following are fundamental for the governance of the country?
(a) Fundamental Rights
(b) Fundamental Duties
(c) Directive Principles of State Policy
(d) Fundamental Rights and Fundamental Duties
Ans: (c)

---

82. Which of the following countries enjoys a federal form of government?
(a) China (b) USA
(c) Cuba (d) Belgium
Ans: (b)

---

83. What is Gandhi’s definition of ‘Ram Raj’?
(a) Sovereignty of the people based on pure moral authority
(b) The rule as it was during the time of Rama
(c) The greatest good of all
(d) The absolute power concentrated in the hands of a king
Ans: (a)

---

84. ‘Economic Justice’ as one of the objectives of the Indian Constitution has been provided in
(a) the Preamble and the Fundamental Rights
(b) the Preamble and the Directive Principles of State Policy
(c) the Fundamental Rights and the Directive Principles of State Policy
(d) None of the above
Ans: (b)

---

85. At which of its session, did the Congress officially accept the ‘Socialistic Pattern of Society’?
(a) Bombay Session of 1953
(b) Avadi Session of 1955
(c) Calcutta Session of 1957
(d) Nagpur Session of 1959
Ans: (b)

---

86. The most essential feature of the Parliamentary formofGovernment is the
(a) sovereignty of the Parliament
(b) written Constitution
(c) accountability of the executive to the legislature
(d) independent judiciary
Ans: (a)

---

87. Match the following.
List I List II
A. Part IX – A 1. Tribunals
B. Part IX – B 2. Fundamental Duties
C. Part XIV A 3. Cooperative Societies
D. Part IV A 4. Municipalities Choose the correct option A B C D A B C D
(a) 4 3 1 2 (b) 4 3 2 1
(c) 3 1 2 4 (d) 2 4 1 3
Ans: (a)

---

88. Which of the following freedoms is not specifically mentioned in the Constitution of India as a Fundamental Right but has been subsequently upheld by the Supreme Court as such?
(a) Freedom of trade, occupation and business
(b) Freedom to reside and settle in any part of the country.
(c) Freedom of association and union.
(d) Freedom of the press.
Ans: (b)

---

89. The ‘Instrument of Instructions’ contained in the Government of India Act, 1935 has been incorporated in the Constitution of India in the year 1950 as
(a) Fundamental Rights
(b) Directive Principles of State Policy
(c) Extent of Executive Power of State
(d) Conduct of business of the Government of India
Ans: (b)

---

90. Which among the following is not a basic feature of the Constitution of India?
(a) Fundamental Rights
(b) Independence of Judiciary
(c) Federalism
(d) The unquestioned right of the Parliament to amend any part of the Constitution
Ans: (b)

---

91. Which one of the following is a basic feature of the Presidential Government?
(a) Rigid Constitution
(b) Single Executive
(c) Supremacy of the Legislature
(d) Residual Powers of the States
Ans: (b)

---

92. What is/are the major difference/differences between a written and an unwritten constitution?
1. A written constitution is the formal source of all constitutional laws in the country and the unwritten constitution is not the formal source.
2. A written constitution is entirely codified whereas an unwritten constitution is not.
Select the correct answer using the codes given below
(a) Only 1 (b) Only 2
(c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2
Ans: (c)

---

93. The Indian parliamentary system is different from the British parliamentary system, in that India has
(a) both a real and nominal executive
(b) a system of collective responsibility
(c) bicameral legislature
(d) the system of judicial review
Ans: (d)

---

94. The Constitution of India is republican because it
(a) provides for an elected Parliament
(b) provides for adult franchise
(c) contains a bill of rights
(d) has no hereditary elements
Ans: (d)

---

95. Statement I The Constitution of India is a liberal Constitution.
Statement II It provides Fundamental Rights to individuals.
Codes
(a) Both the statements are true and Statement II is the correct explanation of Statement I.
(b) Both the statements are true but Statement II is not the correct explanation of Statement I.
(c) Statement I is true, but Statement II is false.
(d) Statement I is false, but Statement II is true.
Ans: (a)

---

96. Consider the following statements
1. NDC is an organ of the planning commission .
2. The economic and social planning is kept in the concurrent list of the Constitution of India.
3. The Constitution of India prescribes the Panchayats should be assigned the task of preparation of plans for economic development and social justice.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a) Only 1 (b) 2 and 3
(c) 1 and 3 (d) All of these
Ans: (c)

---

97. Assertion (A) The Constitution of India is bulky.
Reason (R) Constitution is common for both the centre and the states and seeks to protect the interests of diverse population of the country.
Codes
(a) Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A
(b) Both A and R are true, but R is not the correct explanation of A
(c) A is true, but R is false
(d) A is false, but R is true
Ans: (a)

---

98. Which of the following are the basic features of Constitution (73rd Amendment) Act?
1. Provides for a 3-tier structure of Panchayats in the village, intermediary and district levels.
2. Reservation of seats for scheduled castes and scheduled tribes and women in all the tiers of Panchayats.
3. Election of Panchayats under the supervision of state election commissions.
4. Introduction of the 11th schedule of the constitution.
Select the correct answer using the codes given below
(a) 1, 2 and 3 (b) 3 and 4
(c) All of these (d) 2 and 4
Ans: (d)

---

99. Which of the following is/are not central feature of Article 343 of the Constitution of India?
1. Hindi in Devanagiri script shall be the national language of the union.
2. The official language of the union shall be Hindi in Devanagiri script.
3. English language shall continue to be used for official purpose within states,
4. If two or more states agree, Hindi language should be the official language of communication between the states.
Select the correct answer using the codes given below.
(a) 1, 3 and 4 (b) 2 and 4
(c) 2, 3 and 4 (d) Only 2
Ans: (c)

---

100. The word ‘secular’ was inserted into Constitution of India by
(a) 44th Amendment Act
(b) 52nd Amendment Act
(c) 42nd Amendment Act
(d) 34th Amendment Act
Ans: (b)

---

101. Point out the common features of a Federal Constitution with the help of the codes given below
1. A written and rigid Constitution.
2. Division of power between the centre and the units.
3. Separation of powers between the legislature and the executive.
4. Bicameral national legislature.
Codes
(a) 2, 3 and 4
(b) 1, 3 and 4
(c) 1, 2 and 4
(d) All of these
Ans: (c)

---

102. Which article of the Indian Constitution did Dr. BR Ambedkar term as the ‘Heart and Soul of the Indian Constitution’?
(a) Article 19
(b) Article 356
(c) Article 32
(d) Article 14
Ans: (d)

---

103. Which of the following is not correctly matched?
Parts Deals With
(a) I : Union an Territory
(b) XX : Amendment
(c) XVII : Emergency
(d) IX : Municipalities, Panchayats
Ans: (d)

---

104. Article 368 of the Constitution of India deals with
(a) the powers of the Parliament of India to amend the constitution.
(b) financial emergency.
(c) reservation of seats for scheduled castes and scheduled tribes in the Lok Sabha.
(d) official language of the union of India.
Ans: (b)

---

105. Which one among the following features of the Constitution of India is indicative of the fact that real executive power is vested in the Council of Ministers headed by the Prime Minister?
(a) Federalism
(b) Representative legislature
(c) Universal adult franchise
(d) Parliamentary democracy
Ans: (d)

---

106. Which of the following statements with regard to the federal system is/are correct?
1. In a federation, two sets of governments co-exist and there is distribution of power.
2. There is a written Constitution.
Select the correct answer using the codes given below
(a) Only 1
(b) Only 2
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
Ans: (c)

---

107. There are different arguments given in a favour of power sharing in a democratic political system. Which one of the following is not one of them?
(a) It reduces conflict among different communities
(b) Major community does not impose its will on others
(c) Since all are affected by the policies of the government, they should be consulted in the governance of the country
(d) It speeds up the decision making process and improves the chances of unity of the country
Ans: (d)

---

108. Which of the following statements about democracy are correct?
1. Democracy is a government of the people, for the people and by the people.
2. Democracy is a rule of majority.
3. Democracy provides an opportunity to the people to voice their grievances in a peaceful manner.
4. Democracy always leads to disintegration of the society.

Select the correct answer using the codes given below
(a) 1, 2, 3 and 4 (b) 2, 3 and 4
(c) 1 and 4 (d) 1, 2 and 3
Ans: (d)

---

Type 4. Sources of the Constitution
109. Which of the following features does the Indian Constitution borrow from the Weimar Constitution of Germany?
(a) The idea of a federation with a strong centre
(b) The method of presidential elections
(c) The Emergency Powers
(d) Provisions concerning the suspension of Fundamental Rights during National Emergency
Ans: (d)

---

110. ‘‘The Draft Constitution as framed only provides a machinery for the government of the country. It is not a contrivance to install any particular party in power as has been done in some countries. Who should be in power is left to be determined by the people, as it must be, if the system is to satisfy the test of democracy’’? The above passage from Constituent Assembly debates is attributed to
(a) Pandit Jawaharlal Nehru
(b) Dr. BR Ambedkar
(c) Maulana Abul Kalam Azad
(d) Acharya JB Kriplani
Ans: (b)

---

111. The concept of Judicial Review in our Constitution has been taken from the Constitution of
(a) England (b) USA
(c) Canada (d) Australia
Ans: (b)

---

112. Match List I (Item in the Indian Constitution) with List II (Country from which it was derived and select the correct answer
List I List II
A. India as a Union of States with greater powers to the Union 1. Canada
B. Fundamental Rights 2. USA
C. Directive Principles of State Policy 3. Ireland
D. Concurrent List in Union-State Relations 4. Australia
Codes A B C D A B C D
(a) 1 2 3 4 (b) 2 1 3 4
(c) 5 4 3 2 (d) 2 3 4 5
Ans: (a)

---

113. ‘The Federal System with strong centre’ has been borrowed by the Indian Constitution from
(a) USA (b) Canada
(c) UK (d) France
Ans: (b)

---

114. The Constitution of India borrowed the scheme of Federation from the Constitution of
(a) USA (b) Canada
(c) United Kingdom
(d) Ireland
Ans: (a)

---

115. The office of Lokpal and Lokayukta in India is based on which one of the following?
(a) Parliamentary Commissioner of UK
(b) Ombudsman in Scandinavia
(c) Procurator General of Russia
(d) Council of State in France
Ans: (b)

---

116. The idea of including the Emergency provisions in the Constitution of India has been borrowed from the
(a) Constitution of Canada
(b) Weimar Constitution of Germany
(c) Constitution of Ireland
(d) Constitution of USA
Ans: (b)

---

117. Consider the following statements
1. The Constitution as originally adopted had 22 Parts, 395 Articles and 12 Schedules.
2. A chapter on Fundamental Duties did not find a place in the original Constitution.
Codes
(a) Only 1 (b) Only 2
(c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2
Ans: (b)

---

118. Match List I (Provision of the Constitution of India with List II (Source) and select the correct answer using the codes given below the lists
List I List II
A. Directive Principles 1. Constitution of Ireland
B. Emergency Power of the President 2. Constitution of Germany
C. The Union- State Relations 3. Constitution of Canada
D. Amendments of the Constitution 4. Constitution of South Africa
Codes A B C D A B C D
(a) 1 2 3 4 (b) 2 1 3 4
(c) 2 1 4 3 (d) 1 2 4 3
Ans: (a)

---

119. Which Constitution has inspired the Indian concepts of Rule of law, Parliamentary system and law- making procedure?
(a) US Constitution
(b) British Constitution
(c) Canadian Constitution
(d) All of the above
Ans: (b)

---

120. Which of the following was the biggest source for the Constitution of India?
(a) The Government of India Act, 1919
(b) The Government of India Act, 1935
(c) The Indian Independence Act, 1947
(d) None of the above
Ans: (b)

---

121. Which of the following laws have been repealed by the Constitution of India ?
1. The Government of India Act, 1935.
2. The Indian Independence Act, 1947.
3. The Abolition of Privy Council Jurisdiction Act, 1949.
4. The Preventive Detention Act, 1950.
Select the correct answer using the codes given below
(a) 1 and 2 (b) 2 and 4
(c) 1 and 3 (d) 1, 2 and 4
Ans: (d)

---

122. Which of the following features and their source is wrongly matched?
(a) Judicial Review : British practice
(b) Concurrent List : Australian Constitution
(c) Directive Principles : Irish Constitution
(d) Fundamental Rights: US Constitution
Ans: (a)

---

123. Which of the following is correct under the Indian Constitution?
(a) No territorial changes can be made in the boundaries of states
(b) Territorial changes in the boundaries of states can be made with the consent of the majority of the states
(c) Territorial changes can be made by the Parliament after the approval of the majority of the State Legislatures had been obtained
(d) The territorial changes in the boundaries of states can be made by the Parliament
Ans: (d)

---

124. Which one of the following determines that the Indian Constitution is federal?
(a) A written and rigid Constitution
(b) An independent Judiciary
(c) Vesting of Residuary Powers with the Centre
(d) Distribution of powers between the Centre and the States
Ans: (d)

---

125. Consider the following statements AConstitutionalGovernment is onewhich
1. Places effective restrictions on individual liberty in the interest of State Authority.
2. Places effective restrictions on the authority of the state in the interest of individual liberty.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct ?
(a) Only 1 (b) Only 2
(c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2
Ans: (b)

---

126. Which of the following statements is/are correct?
1. In June, 1948 the government of India appointed the Linguistic Provinces Commission under the Chairmanship of Fazl Ali.
2. In December 1953 a three member states Reorganisation Commission was appointed under the Chairmanship of SK Dhar.
3. The Fundamental Duties were incorporated on the recommendation of Swarn Singh Committee.
4. At present, there are ten Fundamental Duties.
Codes
(a) 1 and 2 (b) 3 and 4
(c) Only 3 (d) 1, 2 and 3
Ans: (c)

---

127. Which of the following sets of countries has only federations ?
(a) New Zealand, India, Zimbabwe and Argentina
(b) Malaysia, Australia, Nigeria and Brazil
(c) India, Nepal, Sri Lanka and South Africa
(d) France, Germany, Sweden and Switzerland
Ans: (b)

---

128. Assertion (A) The term federation has nowhere been used in the Indian Constitution.
Reason (R) Article 1 of the Constitution describes India as a Union of States.
Codes
(a) Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A
(b) Both A and R are true, but R is not the correct explanation of A
(c) A is true, but R is false
(d) A is false, but R is true
Ans: (a)

---

129. Where was, the concept of written Constitution, first born?
(a) France (b) USA
(c) Britain (d) Switzerland
Ans: (b)

---

130. Which of the following statements is/are not correct?
1. The Constitutent Assembly was directly elected by the people of India.
2. The Muslim League boycotted the first meeting of the Constituent Assembly which was held on 9th Dec, 1946.
3. BN Rau was appointed as the constitutional advisor to the Assembly.
4. On December 13, 1946. Pandit Nehru Moved the historic ‘Objectives Resolution’.
Codes
(a) 1 and 2 (b) 3 and 4
(c) 2, 3 and 4 (d) Only 1
Ans: (d)

---

131. Single citizenship is the gift of
(a) Irish Constitution
(b) US Constitution
(c) British Constitution
(d) Canadian Constitution
Ans: (c)

---

132. The idea of Preamble has been borrowed in Indian Constitution from the Constitution of
(a) Italy (b) Canada
(c) France (d) USA
Ans: (d)

---

133. Consider the following statements.
1. Procedure for the election of the members of Rajya Sabha is adopted from the South African Constitution.
2. The ideal of justice (social, economic and political) in the preamble is adopted from Japanese Constitution. Choose the right answer from the following codes.
(a) Only 1 (b) Only 2
(c) Both 1 and 2 (d) None of these
Ans: (a)

---

Type 5. The Preamble
134. Which of the following are adopted from Australian Constitution?
1. Concurrent list
2. Freedom of trade.
3. Freedom of commerce.
4. Procedure for amendment. Choose the right answer from the following codes
(a) 2 and 3 (b) 1 and 4
(c) 1, 2 and 4 (d) 1, 2 and 3
Ans: (d)

---

135. The Indian Constitution establishes a Secular State. It means
1. the state treats all religions equally.
2. freedomof faith and worship is allowed to all the people.
3. educational institutions, without exception, are free to impart religious instruction.
4. the state makes no discrimination on the basis of the religion in matters of employment.
Codes
(a) 1 and 2 (b) 1, 2, 3 and 4
(c) 2, 3 and 4 (d) 1, 2 and 4
Ans: (d)

---

136. Which of the following is an incorrect statement.
(a) Federation with a strong centre is adopted from Irish Constitution
(b) Advisory jurisdiction of the Supreme Court is adopted from the Canadian Constitution
(c) Fundamental duties are adopted from Soviet constitution
(d) Law on which the Supreme Court function is adopted from the Japanese Constitution.
Ans: (a)

---

137. Consider the following statements about the Preamble of the Constitution
1. The objective resolution proposed by Pt. Nehru ultimately became the preamble.
2. It is not justiciable in nature.
3. It cannot be amended.
4. It cannot override the specific provisions of the Constitution.
Which of the above statements is/are correct?
(a) 1 and 2 (b) 1, 2 and 4
(c) 1, 2 and 3
(d) 2, 3 and 4
Ans: (b)

---

138. Which one of the following statements regarding the Preamble is correct?
(a) It is not enforceable in a Court of Law
(b) The Supreme Court has recently ruled that it is not a part of the Constitution
(c) It has been amended twice
(d) All of the above
Ans: (a)

---

139. The Preamble of the Indian Constitution adopted on 26th November, 1949 did not include the terms
1. Socialist 2. Secular
3. Integrity 4. Republic
Codes
(a) 1, 2 and 3 (b) 2, 3 and 4
(c) 1, 2 and 4 (d) 3 and 4
Ans: (a)

---

140. Which part of the Constitution reflects the mind and ideals of the framers?
(a) Preamble
(b) Fundamental Rights
(c) Directive Principles
(d) Emergency Provisions
Ans: (a)

---

141. Which Amendment Act introduced changes in the Preamble to the Indian Constitution?
(a) The 38th Amendment Act, 1975
(b) The 40th Amendment Act, 1976
(c) The 42nd Amendment Act, 1976
(d) The 44th Amendment Act, 1979
Ans: (c)

---

142. At the time of enactment of the Constitution, which one of the following ideals was not included in the preamble?
(a) Liberty (b) Equality
(c) Socialis (d) Justice
Ans: (c)

---

143. Consider the following words
1. Socialist 2. Democratic
3. Sovereign 4. Secular Choose the response that gives the correct order in which these words occur in the Preamble.
(a) 3,1,4,2 (b) 3,4,1,2
(c) 3,4,2,1 (d) 4,1,3,2
Ans: (a)

---

144. The Preamble of our Constitution reads India as
(a) Sovereign, Socialist, Secular, Democratic Republic
(b) Sovereign, Democratic, Socialist, Secular Republic
(c) Socialist, Sovereign, Democratic, Secular Republic
(d) Democratic, Sovereign, Secular, Socialist Republic
Ans: (a)

---

145. Who said Preamble is the keynote to the Constitution?
(a) Ernest Barker (b) KM Munshi
(c) BR Ambedkar (d) DD Basu
Ans: (a)

---

146. Which one of the following correctly explains the meaning of ‘Socialist’ in the Preamble?
(a) Nationalisation of all means of production
(b) Abolition of private property
(c) Socialistic pattern of society
(d) Eradication of exploitation and vested interest
Ans: (c)

---

147. The ideals and objectives outlined in the Preamble of the Indian Constitution have been further elaborated in
(a) the chapter on Fundamental Rights
(b) the chapter on Directive Principles of State Policy
(c) the chapter on Directive Principles of State Policy, Fundamental Rights and Fundamental Duties
(d) nowhere else in the text of the Constitution
Ans: (c)

---

148. For which one of the following judgements of Supreme Court of India, the Kesavananda Bharti vs State of India case is considered a landmark?
(a) The religion cannot be mobilised for political ends
(b) Abolishing untouchability from the country
(c) Right to Life and Liberty cannot be suspended under any circumstance
(d) The basic structure of the Constitution, as defined in the Preamble, cannot be changed
Ans: (c)

---

149. Which one of the following describes India a Secular State?
(a) Fundamental Rights
(b) Preamble to the Constitution
(c) 9th Schedule
(d) Directive Principles
Ans: (b)

---

150. Which among the following is the correct expression of the term ‘Secular’ in India?
(a) India has many religion
(b) Indians have religious freedom
(c) To follow the religion depends upon the will of an individual
(d) There is no religion of the State in India
Ans: (d)

---

151. Which of the following emerges clearly from the preamble?
1. When the Constitution was enacted.
2. The ideals that were to be achieved.
3. The system of government.
4. The source of authority.
Codes
(a) 2, 3 and 4 (b) 1, and 2
(c) 1, 2 and 3 (d) 1, 2, 3 and 4
Ans: (d)

---

152. The Preamble enshrines certain ideals that were first spelt out in
(a) the speech by Jawahar Lal Nehru on the banks of Ravi when he called for Purna Swaraj
(b) the Nehru Report
(c) a resolution adopted at Karachi session of the Indian National Congress
(d) the objective resolution adopted by the Constituent Assembly
Ans: (d)

---

153. Which one of the following liberty is not embodied in the Preamble to the Constitution of India?
(a) Liberty of Thought
(b) Liberty of Expression
(c) Liberty of Belief
(d) Economic Liberty
Ans: (d)

---

154. In which one of the following cases, the Supreme Court initially had held that Preamble is not a part of the Constitution?
(a) Berubari Case
(b) Sajjan Singh Case
(c) Golaknath Case
(d) Kesavananda Bharati Case
Ans: (a)

---

155. In which one of the cases, the basic structure doctrine was not affirmed?
(a) MC Mehta vs Union of India : 2001
(b) Minerva Mills Case : 1984
(c) Golaknath Case : 1967
(d) Waman Rao Case : 1981
Ans: (c)

---

156. Which of the following is correct?
(a) Social equality is not guaranteed in our Constitution
(b) Social equality already existed in our country
(c) Social equality is guaranteed in our Constitution
(d) None of the above
Ans: (c)

---

157. In which one of these cases, the Supreme Court held that ‘‘the concept of secularism is that state will have no religion’’?
(a) Bal Patil vs Union of India (2005)
(b) Kesavananda Barathi Case (1973)
(c) Minerva Mills Case (1984)
(d) Sajjan Singh Case (1967)
Ans: (c)

---

158. Which one of the following words was not included in the Preamble of the Indian Constitution in 1947?
(a) Fraternity (b) Sovereign
(c) Equality (d) Integrity
Ans: (d)

---

159. In which of the following cases Supreme Court has held that the Preamble forms part of the Constitution?
(a) Union of India vs Dr Kholi
(b) Banarasidas vs State of UP
(c) Bommai vs Union of India
(d) Malak Singh vs State of Punjab
Ans: (c)

---

160. Socialism refers to
(a) state-controlled economy
(b) liquidation of the burgeosie
(c) removal of peasantry from administration
(d) establishment of military dictatorship
Ans: (a)

---

161. In which of the following case Supreme Court urged that the preamble can’t be amended as it is not the Part of constitution?
(a) Sajjan sing case
(b) Kesavananda Bharti case
(c) Minerva mill case
(d) Berubani union case
Ans: (b)

---

162. The preamble is useful in constitutional interpretation because it
(a) uses value loaded words
(b) contains the real objective and philosophy of the Constitutionmakers
(c) is a source of power and limitation
(d) gives and exhaustive list of basic features of the Constitution
163. Among the following ideals and philosophy, identity those enshrined in the preamble to the Constitution of India.
1. Sovereign democratic republic.
2. Socialism and secularism
3. Capitalism and free trade.
Select the correct answer using the codes given below.
(a) 1 and 2
(b) 1 and 3
(c) 1, 2 and 3
(d) 2 and 3
Ans: (b)

---

Part 2 Union and Its Territory
164. The Union of India consists of
1. States 2. Union Territories 3.Acquired Territories
Codes
(a) Only 1 (b) Only 2
(c) 1 and 2 (d) 1, 2 and 3
Ans: (d)

---

165. Which of the following does not give correctly the name of the original state out of whose territory the new state was created?
(a) Andhra Pradesh from the State of Madras
(b) Arunachal Pradesh from Assam
(c) Meghalaya from Assam
(d) Goa from Maharashtra
Ans: (d)

---

166. Which of the following statements is/are correct?
1. The territory of the units of the Indian Federation may be altered by the Parliament by a simple majority.
2. The consent of a State Legislature is necessary before the Parliament on redistributes its territory.
3. The President’s recommendation is necessary for introducing the Bill in the Parliament on redistributing territory of any State.
4. The President must receive the State’s opinion before recommending a Bill on altering the name of the State.
Codes
(a) Only 1 (b) 1 and 2
(c) 1, 3 and 4 (d) 1 and 3
Ans: (d)

---

167. Andhra Pradesh was created as a linguistic state in
(a) 1950 (b) 1953 (c) 1956 (d) 1961
Ans: (b)

---

168. Which of the following was ceded by the French to India?
(a) Dadra and Nagar Haveli
(b) Daman and Diu
(c) Karaikal, Mahe
(d) None of the above
Ans: (c)

---

169. Which Commission made the recommendations which formed the basis for the Punjab Reorganisation Act, which created the states Punjab and Haryana?
(a) Dhar Commission
(b) Dass Commission
(c) Shah Commission
(d) Mahajan Commission
Ans: (b)

---

170. The Constitution of India describe India as
(a) a federation of States and Union Territories
(b) a Union of States
(c) Bharatvarsh
(d) a federated nation
Ans: (b)

---

171. Haryana State was formed on November 1st, 1966 on the recommendation of
(a) LB Shastri
(b) Indira Gandhi
(c) Sardar Hukum Singh
(d) Sir Chhotu Ram
Ans: (c)

---

172. Consider the following statements
1. In India only two Union Territories have Legislative Assemblies.
2. Mizoram, Nagaland and Meghalaya, the three North-Eastern States of India, have only one seat each in the Lok Sabha.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a) Only 1 (b) Only 2
(c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2
Ans: (a)

---

173. Consider the following statements The creation of a new State in India from an existing State involves the consent of the
1. Supreme Court.
2. Legislature of the State concerned.
3. President. 4. Parliament.
Codes
(a) 1, 2 and 3 (b) 2, 3 and 4
(c) 1 and 4 (d) 1, 2, 3 and 4
Ans: (b)

---

174. The old name of which State/Union Territory is wrongly given?
(a) Karnataka : Mysore
(b) Tamil Nadu : Madras
(c) Lakshadweep : Laccadive, Minicoy and Amindivi Islands
(d) Meghalaya : Eastern Hill Province
Ans: (d)

---

175. Among the following States, which one was formed last?
(a) Andhra Pradesh (b) Gujarat
(c) Karnataka (d) Punjab
Ans: (d)

---

176. The States of the Indian Union can be re-organised or their boundaries altered by
(a) an executive order of the Union Government with the consent of the concerned State Government
(b) the Union Parliament by a simple majority in the ordinary process of legislation
(c) two-thirds majority of both the Houses of Parliament
(d) two-thirds majority of both the Houses of Parliament and the consent of the concerned State Legislature
Ans: (b)

---

177. By which one of the following Constitutional Amendments Delhi has become National Capital Region (NCR)?
(a) 61st Amendment
(b) 69th Amendment
(c) 71st Amendment
(d) 79th Amendment
Ans: (b)

---

178. What is the correct chronological order in which the following States of the Indian Union were created or granted full statehood?
1. Andhra Pradesh 2. Maharashtra
3. Nagaland 4. Haryana
Select the correct answer using the codes given below
(a) 1, 2, 3, 4 (b) 2, 1, 3, 4
(c) 1, 2, 4, 3 (d) 2, 1, 4, 3
Ans: (a)

---

179. Uttarakhand state came into existence on
(a) 1st November, 2000
(b) 9th November, 2000
(c) 10th November, 2001
(d) 1th January, 2008
Ans: (b)

---

180. The following states were created after 1960. Arrange them in ascending chronological order of their formation and choose your answer from the given codes
1. Haryana 2. Sikkim
3. Nagaland 4. Meghalaya
Codes
(a) 1, 2, 3, 4 (b) 2, 3, 4, 1
(c) 3, 1, 4, 2 (d) 2, 4, 1, 3
Ans: (c)

---

181. Consider the following statements and state which of them is / are correct with the help of given codes
1. The term ‘Union of States’ has been used in the Constitution because Indian States have no right to recede.
2. The SK Dhar Commission preferred reorganisation of States on administrative convenience rather than on linguistic basis.
3. The Congress Committee under
Pt. Nehru, Sardar Patel and Pattabhi Sitaramayya did not favour linguistic basis for reorganisation of states.
Codes
(a) Only 1 (b) 1 and 2
(c) 1 and 3 (d) All of these
Ans: (d)

---

182. The power to curve out a new State is vested in
(a) the Parliament (b) the President
(c) the Council of Ministers
(d) State’s Reorganisation Commission
Ans: (a)

---

183. Under Article 3, which power does the Parliament have in relation to the formation of a new state?
1. It can increase the area of any state.
2. It cannot diminish the area of any state.
3. It can alter the name of any state.
Select the correct answer using the codes given below
(a) 1 and 2 (b) 2 and 3
(c) 1 and 3 (d) 1, 2 and 3
Ans: (c)

---

184. Which Article of the Constitution allows the centre to form new states?
(a) Article 3 (b) Article 4
(c) Article 5 (d) Article 6
Ans: (a)

---

185. Which one of the following is not correctly matched?
State Year of Creation
(a) Puducherry : 1968
(b) Sikkim : 1975
(c) Mizoram : 1987
(d) Tripura : 1972
Ans: (a)

---

186. Sikkim was made an integral part of India under the
(a) 36th Amendment
(b) 39th Amendment
(c) 40th Amendment
(d) 42nd Amendment
Ans: (a)

---

187. Which of the following is not correctly matched?
UT Executive
(a) Andaman and Nicobar : Governor
(b) Chandigarh : Chief Commissioner
(c) Lakshadweep : Administrator
(d) Daman and Diu : Lt Governor
Ans: (a)

---

188. According to Article 1, the territory of India consists of
(a) Territories of the states
(b) Union Territories
(c) Territories that may be acquired by the government
(d) All of the above
Ans: (d)

---

189. The Parliament can establish a new State in the Union by
(a) an amendment
(b) an executive order
(c) a simple law (d) None of these
Ans: (c)

---

190. Which of the following is correctly matched?
UT Jurisdiction of
High Court
(a) Andaman and Nicobar : Chennai High Court
(b) Daman and Diu : Mumbai High Court
(c) Lakshadweep : Chennai High Court
(d) Puducherry : Kerala High Court
Ans: (b)

---

191. Which one of the following statements is incorrect?
(a) Goa attained full statehood in 1987
(b) Die is an island in the Gulf of Khambhat
(c) Danan and Diu were separated from Goa by the 56th Amendment of the Constitution of India
(d) Dadra and Nagar Havelli were under French Colonial Rule till 1954
Ans: (d)

---

192. Which of the following statements is correct?
(a) Every Union Territory is administrated by the President through an Administrator
(b) Every Union Territory is administrated by theAdministrator
(c) Every Union Territory is administrated by theHomeMinister
(d) None of the above
Ans: (a)

---

193. Find the incorrect matchs
(a) Telangana – Recommendation of Shri Krishna Committee
(b) Jharkhand – 28th state
(c) Sikkim – Protectorate of India
(d) Nagaland – State of Nagaland Act, 963
Ans: (d)

---

194. Which of the following is in correctly matched?
(a) Part A-state — Bombay
(b) Part B state — Rajasthan
(c) Part C state — Mysore
(d) Part D state — Andaman and Nicobar Island
Ans: (c)

---

195. Abolition of distinction between Part A, B, C state is done after
(a) 1st Amendment Act
(b) 5th Amendment Act
(c) 7th Amendment Act
(d) 9th Amendment Act
Ans: (c)

---

196. Match the following
List I List II A Article 3 1. Establishment of New State B Article 4 2. Formation of Newstate C 1948 3. Dhar Commission D 1953 4. Fazal Ali commission
Codes A B C D A B C D
(a) 1 2 3 4 (b) 2 1 4 3
(c) 3 2 1 4 (d) 2 3 4 1
Ans: (a)

---

197. In 1956, by 7th Constitutional Amendment Act, the state of which part were made as ‘Union Territory’?
1. Part A 2. Part B 3. Part C 4. Part D Choose the correct option
(a) 1 and 3 (b) 2 and 3
(c) 3 and 4 (d) Only 3
Ans: (c)

---

198. In which of the following countries are the judges of the federal court elected by the two houses of the Federal legislature?
(a) Switzerland (b) Germany
(c) Canada (d) Both a and b
Ans: (d)

---

199. Which of the following Union Territories has Separate High Courts.
1. Chandigarh 2. Delhi
3. Puducherry Choose the correct option
(a) 1 and 2 (b) Only 2
(c) 2 and 3 (d) All of these
Ans: (b)

---

200. At present there are ……… Union Territories.
(a) 6 (b) 7 (c) 5 (d) 8
Ans: (b)

---

201. Choose the incorrect match
Union Territory Judiciary
(a) Dadra and Nagar Haveli Bombay High Court
(b) Daman andDiu Bombay High Court
(c) Puducherry Madars High Court
(d) Lakshadweep Karnataka High Court
Ans: (d)

---

202. The National Capital Territory of Delhi is created by which Amendment Act.
(a) 67th (b) 69th
(c) 71st (d) 79th
Ans: (b)

---

203. Consider the following statements
1. Jammu and Kashmir is the only state in the Indian union which has its own separate Constitution.
2. It declared Persian as the official language of the state.
Codes
(a) Only 1 (b) Only 2
(c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2
Ans: (a)

---

204. Which of the following statements is/are incorrect?
1. The Constitution doesn’t contain any separate provision for the administration of acquired territory.
2. The executive head of Chandigarh is called as ‘Administrator’ whereas in Puducherry, he is ‘ lt Governor’. Choose the correct option
(a) Only 1 (b) Only 2
(c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2
Ans: (c)

---

205. Which of the following Union Territories send their members to Rajya Sabha?
1. Chandigarh 2. Delhi
3. Lakshadweep 4. Puducherry
Select the correct answer using the codes given below
(a) 1 and 2 (b) 3 and 4
(c) 2 and 3 (d) 2 and 4
Ans: (d)

---

206. Which of the following are special provisions given to Sikkim?
1. The president can extend any law, which is in force in any state to Sikkim.
2. Under their special provision Legislative Assembly of Sikkim consist of 30 members.
(a) Only 1 (b) Only 2
(c) 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2
Ans: (c)

---

207. The tribes advisory council consist of how many members
(a) 10 (b) 15 (c) 20 (d) 30
Ans: (c)

---

208. The ChiefMinister of the National Capital Territory of Delhi is appointed by the
(a) Lt Governor of Delhi
(b) Speaker of Vidhan Sabha
(c) President of India
(d) Chief Justice of High Court
Ans: (c)

---

209. Which among the following are PESA (Panchayat Extension to Schedule Area) states?
1. Odisha 2. Uttar Pradesh
3. Tamil Nadu 4. Rajasthan
Codes
(a) 1, 2, 3 and 4 (b) Only 1
(c) Only 2 (d) 1 and 4
Ans: (d)

---

210. The Parliament of India passed the Panchayats (Extension to Scheduled Areas) Law popularly known as PESA
Law. Which one among the following statements regarding PESA Law is not correct?
(a) PESA was meant to provide self-governance in the scheduled areas.
(b) PESA disempowers Gram Sabhas.
(c) PESA protects the interests of the tribals.
(d) PESA conducts public hearings to protect inheritance rights of the tribals.
Ans: (b)

---

211. Which of the following Union Territories was divided into two parts?
(a) Andaman and Nicobar
(b) Daman and Diu
(c) Lakshadweep and Minicoy
(d) Dadra and Nagar Haveli
Ans: (b)

---

212. Part VI of our Constitution is applicable to all states except.
(a) Arunachal Pradesh
(b) Jammu and Kashmir
(c) Sikkim (d) Mizoram
Ans: (d)

---

213. The 6th Schedule of Constitution deals with the administration of the tribal areas of
1. Assam 2. Nagaland
3. Manipur 4. Meghalaya
5. Tripura 6. Mizoram Choose the correct option
(a) 1, 2, 3 (b) 1, 3, 5, 6
(c) 1, 4, 5, 6 (d) All of these
Ans: (c)

---

214. Which article envisages a special system of administration for ‘Schedule areas’ and ‘Tribal areas’
(a) 241 (b) 243 (c) 244 (d) 247
Ans: (c)

---

215. The state list is not applicable in
(a) Nagaland (b) Mizoram
(c) Sikkim
(d) Jammu and Kashmir
Ans: (d)

---

216. Who among the following is empowered to declare an area as ‘Schedule areas’
(a) President (b) Parliament
(c) Governor (d) State Legislature
Ans: (a)

---

217. Match the following
List I (State) List II (Special Provision)
A. Jammu and Kashmir 1. 371 A
B. Sikkim 2. 371 H
C. Arunachal Pradesh 3. 371 F
D. Nagaland 4. 370 The correct pair is A B C D A B C D
(a) 1 2 3 4 (b) 2 3 4 1
(c) 4 3 2 1 (d) 3 2 1 4
Ans: (c)

---

218. The Tribal areas of Mizoram doesn’t include
(a) Karbi Anglong district
(b) Chakma district
(c) Mara district (d) Lai district
Ans: (a)

---

219. Match the following
List I (Union Territory) List II (Year of creation) A Dadra and Nagar Haveli
1. 1966 B Chandigarh 2. 1961 C Puducherry 3. 1956 D Andaman and Nicobar 4 1962 A B C D A B C D
(a) 3 2 4 1 (b) 2 1 4 3
(c) 1 2 3 4 (d) 4 3 2 1
Ans: (b)

---

220. Who among the following is empowered to direct that any particular act of Parliament or State Legislature doesn’t apply to a Schedule area or apply with specified modification and exception
(a) President (b) Parliament
(c) Governor (d) State Legislature
Ans: (c)

---

221. Who among the following has been authorised to appoint a commission to examine and report on anymatter relating to administration of autonomous districts
(a) Parliament (b) President
(c) State Legislature (d) Governor
Ans: (d)

---

222. Find the incorrect one
(a) High Courts for Union Territories – Article 241
(b) Administration of Union Territories – Article 240
(c) Special provision with regard to Delhi – Article 239 AA
(d) Creation of Local Legislatures or Council of Ministers or both for certain Union – Article 239 A
Ans: (b)

---

223. Which part of the constitution is concerned with the administration of union territories?
(a) Part VI (b) Part VIII
(c) Part VII (d) Part V
Ans: (b)

---

Part 3 Citizenship
224. Citizenship cannot be terminated
(a) when there is emergency
(b) when there is war
(c) when there are elections
(d) when it can be terminated regardless of conditions
Ans: (b)

---

225. ‘AADHAR’ is a programme
(a) to help senior citizens
(b) to provide nutritional support to adolescent woman
(c) to train people for social defence
(d) to provide identity to Indian residents
Ans: (d)

---

226. Indian citizenship is lost when
(a) a person acquires a foreign citizenship
(b) the person renounces the citizenship
(c) the government deprives a person of citizenship for some cause
(d) All of the above
Ans: (d)

---

227. Which country accepted the policy of Dual Citizenship?
(a) India (b) Canada
(c) Australia (d) USA
Ans: (d)

---

228. Which of the following status relating to the Overseas Citizenship of India (OCI) and theNon-Resident Indian (NRI) is true?
(a) An OCI is a citizen of India and a NRI is not a citizen of India
(b) An OCI can vote but cannot contest in the election in India but a NRI can neither vote nor contest in election in India
(c) Neither of these can vote nor contest election in India
(d) An OCI can neither vote nor contest election in India but a NRI can vote and contest in elections.
Ans: (d)

---

229. The detailed provisions regarding acquisition and termination of Indian citizenship are contained in the Citizenship Act which was passed by
(a) the Indian Parliament in 1955
(b) the Indian Parliament in 1950
(c) the British Parliament in August 1948
(d) the Constituent Assembly in 1949
Ans: (a)

---

230. A citizen acquiring citizenship through naturalisation
(a) may belong to any country without qualification
(b) may keep the citizenship of any other country
(c) must either reside in India or serve the Government of India for at least one year immediately preceding the date of application
(d) may acquire it in special cases only
Ans: (c)

---

231. With what subject do the Articles 5 to 11 of the Constitution of India deal?
(a) Indian Union and its territory
(b) Citizenship
(c) Fundamental Duties
(d) Union Executive
Ans: (b)

---

232. Which one among the following has the power to regulate the right of citizenship in India?
(a) The Union Cabinet
(b) The Parliament
(c) The Supreme Court
(d) The Law Commission
Ans: (b)

---

233. In which of the following ways can Indian citizenship be acquired?
1. By Descent 2. By Naturalisation
3. By Registration 4. By Birth
Codes
(a) 1 and 4 (b) 1, 2 and 4
(c) 1, 3 and 4 (d) All are correct
Ans: (d)

---

234. Which of the following is not a condition for becoming a citizen of India?
(a) Birth (b) Descent
(c) Acquiring property
(d) Naturalisation
Ans: (c)

---

235. In which part of the constitution details of citizenship are mentioned?
(a) Part I (b) Part II (c) Part III (d) Part IV
Ans: (b)

---

236. Consider the following situation : S is the 14 year old son of A and B, the two American nationals who were conferred Indian citizenship recently on an application, For citizenship by naturalization. Let S wants to acquire the Indian citizenship after four years, which of the following steps in switch for him?
(a) S shall apply for citizenship by naturalization
(b) S shall apply for citizenship by registration
(c) By registering his name with the Indian quantities S can claim citizenship by descent
(d) S will automatically get India citizenship upon attaing majority
Ans: (b)

---

237. What is the meaning of Domicile according to Indian Constitution?
(a) Temporary home
(b) Permanent home
(c) Home in different country
(d) Home in Enemy country
Ans: (b)

---

238. Every person shall be a citizen of India who has migrated from Pakistan to India before ……… and since then have been originally residing in India.
(a) 19th July, 1948 (b) 19th July, 1949
(c) 19th July, 1950 (d) 19th July, 1951
Ans: (a)

---

239. If a person wants to acquire a citizensip of India through naturalisation, he must fulfill which of the following conditions?
(a) Renounces his citizenship of the other country
(b) He is of a good character
(c) After Naturalisation he wants to reside in India
(d) All of the above
Ans: (d)

---

240. Who can acquire the Indian citizensip by naturalisation?
(a) Foreigners (b) NRI
(c) Overseas Indians (d) All of these
Ans: (a)

---

241. Under which of the following conditions citizenship can be provided in India?
1. One should be born in India.
2. Either of whose parents was born in India.
3. Who has been ordinary resident of India for not less than five years.
Select the correct answer using the codes given below
(a) 1 and 2 (b) 2 and 3
(c) 1, 2 and 3 (d) Either 1 or 2
Ans: (d)

---

242. A person will lose his citizenship, if
(a) he voluntarily surrenders his citizenship
(b) the government withdraws his citizenship
(c) he voluntarily accepts citizenship of another country
(d) All of the above
Ans: (d)

---

243. Naturalisation may take place if a foreigner is
1. not a citizen of a country where Indian citizens cannot become naturalised citizens.
2. renounces his citizenship of other country.
3. of good character.
Codes
(a) 1 and 3 (b) 1 and 2
(c) 2 and 3 (d) All of these
Ans: (d)

---

244. Who among the following can become citizen of India under the Constitution?
(a) A person domiciled in India
(b) A person born in India
(c) A person whose parents were born in India
(d) All of the above
Ans: (d)

---

245. Consider the following statements regarding termination of citizenship of India
1. Renunciation is a voluntary process by which a person holding a citizenship of other also may relinquish.
2. When a person acquires the citizenship of another country he has to give up the Citizenship.
3. Deprivation is a compulsory termination when a Citizenship is required by fraud. Choose the correct option
(a) 1 and 2 (b) 2 and 3
(c) 1 and 3 (d) 1, 2 and 3
Ans: (d)

---

246. Which of the following condition/ conditions must be fulfilled by the NRIs to be eligible to vote in elections in India?
1. They must be physically present in their place of origin to exercise their franchise.
2. NRIs whether they have acquired citizenship of other countries are not eligible to vote.
3. Eligible NRIs have to register by filling up From6-A with electoral registration office.
Select the correct answer using the codes given below
(a) 1, 2 and 3 (b) 1 and 3
(c) Only 2 (d) Only 3
Ans: (a)

---

247. Consider the following statements receding citizens and aliens
1. Aliens do not enjoy all the Fundamental Rights
2. Citizens alone have the right to hold offices of Attorney General and the Advocate General.
3. Like citizenship, domicile is also one for the whole of India. Choose the correct option
(a) 1, 2 and 3 (b) 2 and 3
(c) 1 and 2 (d) 1 and 3
Ans: (a)

---

248. Persons of Indian origin who were citizens of 16-countries list, were eligible to apply for dual Citizenships. Which of the following countries are included in the 16 countries list?
1. Australia 2. Canada
3. Finland 4. Portugal
5. Russia Choose the correct option
(a) 1, 2, 3 and 4 (b) 2, 3, 4 and 5
(c) 1, 2, 3 and 4 (d) 1, 2, 4 and 5
Ans: (a)

---

249. Which of the following statements are correct regarding Dual Citizenship 2005 in India
1. Dual citizens are to be treated as citizens for the purpose of taxation.
2. They are not eligible to be elected to public office.
3. The Dual Citizenship does not provide voting rights to the NRIs. Choose the correct option
(a) 1 and 2 (b) 1 and 3
(c) 2 and 3 (d) Only 2
Ans: (c)

---

250. Which one of the following features of citizenship in India is correct?
(a) Dual citizenship of the state and the nation
(b) Single citizenship of the state
(c) Single citizenship of whole India
(d) Dual citizenship of India and another country
Ans: (d)

---

251. Which one of the following changes has not been made to the Citizenship Act of India by the Amendment in 2015?
(a) The Overseas Citizens of India will now be called the Overseas Citizens of India Cardholders.
(b) The Non-Resident Indians are entitled to vote in elections in India.
(c) The Persons of Indian origin have been placed at per with the Overseas Citizens of India
(d) The Persons of Indian Origin are now entitled to lifelong visa to visit India.
Ans: (a)

---

252. The citizenship means
1. Full civil and political rights of the citizens
2. the rights of suffrage for election to the house of the people (of the Union) and the Legislative Assembly of every state.
3. The right to become a member of the Parliament and member of legislative Assemblies.
Select the correct answer using the codes given below
(a) 1 and 2 (b) 1 and 3
(c) 2 and 3 (d) All of these
Ans: (d)

---

253. The theme of 2016 Pravasi Bharatiya Divas is
(a) Apna Bharat Apna Gaurav
(b) Bharat ko jano and Bharat to Mano
(c) Engaging Diaspora : Connecting Across Generation
(d) Engaging Diaspora : The Indian Growth Story
Ans: (c)

---

254. Which of the following statements with regard to citizenship provisions of the Constitution of India is/are correct?
1. No person shall be a citizen of India by virtue of Article-5, or be deemed to be a citizen of India by virtue of Article-6 or Article-8, if he/she has voluntarily acquired the citizenship of any foregin state.
2. The Parliament has power to make any provision with respect to the acquisition and termination of citizenship and all other matters relation to citizenship.
Select the correct answer using the code given below.
(a) Only 1
(b) Only 2
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
Ans: (c)

---

255. Consider the following statements.
1. Friendly Aliens are subjects of those countries that have cordial relationship with India and enemy aliens are subjects of that country which are at war with India.
2. Friendly Aliens enjoy lesser rights than the enemy aliens.
Which of the above statements are correct?
(a) Only 1
(b) Only 2
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) None of the above
Ans: (a)

---

Part 4 Fundamental Rights & Duties
Type 1. Fundamental Rights
256. The right which is available only to citizens are
1. Freedom of speech, assembly and association.
2. Freedom to acquire property or to carry on any occupation, trade or business
3. Freedom to move, reside and settle in any part of the territory of India
4. Right to Constitutional Remedies
Select the correct answer using the codes given below
(a) 1, 2, 3 and 4 (b) 1, 2 and 3
(c) 1 and 2 (d) 1 and 2
Ans: (b)

---

257. Which of the following have been wrongly listed as a special feature of Fundamental Rights in India?
1. Fundamental Rights are more sacrosanct than rights granted by ordinary laws.
2. Fundamental Rights are subject to reasonable restrictions.
3. Fundamental Rights are justiciable and can be enforced through the Supreme Court.
Select the correct answer using the codes given below
(a) 1, 2 and 3 (b) 1 and 2
(c) 2 and 3 (d) None of these
Ans: (a)

---

258. The Right against Exploitation prohibits
1. traffic in human beings
2. beggar
3. employment of children below 14 years of age
Select the correct answer using the codes given below
(a) 1, 2 and 3 (b) 1 and 2
(c) 2 and 3 (d) 1 and 3
Ans: (a)

---

259. Which of the following is/are not Fundamental Right(s) under the Constitution of India?
1. Right to education
2. Right to wok
3. Right to form associations
4. Right to practice any profession
Select the correct answer using the codes given below
(a) 1 and 2 (b) 2 and 4
(c) Only 2 (d) 1 and 3
Ans: (b)

---

260. Freedom of Speech under the Indian Constitution is subject to reasonable restrictions on the grounds of protection of
1. sovereignty and integrity of the country.
2. the dignity of the Office of the Prime Minister.
3. the dignity of the Council of Ministers.
Select the correct answer using the codes given below
(a) 1, 2 and 3 (b) 1 and 3
(c) 1 and 2 (d) Only 1
Ans: (d)

---

261. Which of the following are covered under the Fundamental Rights in the Constitution of India?
1. Prohibition of trafficking human beings and forced labour.
2. Prohibition of employment of children in factories.
3. Freedom of conscience and free profession, practice and propagation of religion.
Select the correct answer using the codes given below
(a) 1 and 2 (b) 1 and 3
(c) 2 and 3 (d) 1, 2 and 3
Ans: (d)

---

262. Match List I (Article of the Constitution of India) with List II (Fundamental Rights) and select the correct answer using the codes given below the lists
List I List II
A. Article 14 1. Right to Equality
B. Article 22 2. Right of a person under detention
C. Article 25 3. Right to Freedom of Religion
D. Article 32 4. Right to Constitutional Remedies
Codes A B C D
(a) 1 2 3 4
(b) 2 1 3 4
(c) 2 1 4 3
(d) 1 2 4 3
Ans: (a)

---

263. The protection against arrest and detention under Article-22 of the Constitution of India is not available to
1. an enemy alien
2. a person detained under a preventive detention law
3. a foreigner
4. an overseas citizen of India
Select the correct answer using the codes given below
(a) 1 and 2 (b) 1, 3 and 4
(c) 1, 2 and 3 (d) 2 and 4
Ans: (a)

---

264. Which of the following Fundamental Rights is/are available to non-citizens?
1. Equality before Law
2. Right against Discrimination
3. Equality of Opportunity
4. Protection of Life and Personal Liberty
Select the correct answer using the codes given below
(a) Only 1 (b) 1 and 4
(c) 1, 2 and 4 (d) 2 and 3
Ans: (c)

---

265. Right to Education Act (2002) was introduced to help which of the following groups of society?
(a) Children of the age of 6 to 14 years
(b) College going teenagers
(c) All adults who could not get formal education
(d) Those who are interested in technical education
Ans: (a)

---

266. The Rights to Information means and includes
1. inspection of documents.
2. taking out files fromoffice to any place desired by the applicant.
3. taking photograph of files.
4. obtaining information in tapes.
Select the correct answer using the codes given below
(a) 1, 2, 3 and 4 (b) 1, 2 and 3
(c) 1, 3 and 4 (d) 2 and 4
Ans: (c)

---

267. Freedom of the Press in India is
(a) available to the people under the law of the Parliament
(b) specifically provided in the Constitution
(c) implied in the right of freedom of expression
(d) available to the people of India under executive power
Ans: (c)

---

268. The right to make laws to give effect to certain specified Fundamental Rights rests with
(a) Union Legislature
(b) State Legislature
(c) Both Union Legislature and State Legislature
(d) Union Government
Ans: (a)

---

269. Which of these is not included as a Fundamental Right in the Indian Constitution?
(a) Right to Freedom of Speech
(b) Right to Equality before Law
(c) Right to Constitutional Remedies
(d) Right to EqualWages for EqualWork
Ans: (d)

---

270. Which of the following is/are instance(s) of violation of human rights?
1. A person was detained by the security forces while going for casting vote in Parliamentary Election.
2. A civilian was killed by the Army while undertaking combing operation.
Select the correct answer using the codes given below
(a) Only 1 (b) Only 2
(c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2
Ans: (c)

---

271. Point out which from the following is not a right enumerated in the Constitution of India but has been articulated by the Supreme Court to be a Fundamental Right?
(a) Right to Privacy
(b) Equality before Law
(c) Abolition of Untouchability
(d) Right to form Association or Union
Ans: (a)

---

272. Under which article of the Constitution of India, can the fundamental rights of the members of the Armed Forces be specifically restricted?
(a) Article 19 (b) Article 21
(c) Article 25 (d) Article 33
Ans: (d)

---

273. Point out which from the following is not a right enumerated in the Constitution of India but has been articulated by the Supreme Court to be a Fundamental Right?
(a) Right to Life
(b) Equality of Opportunity in Matters of Public Employment
(c) Protection of Personal Liberty
(d) Right to Permanent Housing
Ans: (d)

---

274. Which of the following writs/orders of the High Court/Supreme Court is brought to get an order of an authority quashed?
(a) Mandamus (b) Certiorari
(c) Quo Warranto (d) Habeas Corpus
Ans: (b)

---

275. Which one among the following statements is not correct?
(a) The right conferred by Article-32 cannot be suspended except by virtue of Article-359 (1) of the Constitution of India.
(b) The enforcement of Articles-20 and 21 cannot be suspended.
(c) Punishments can be prescribed by a state legislation for offences under Part-III of the Constitution of India.
(d) The Fundamental Rights can be abrogated by law made by the Parliament with regard to members of the forces charged with the maintenance of public order.
Ans: (a)

---

276. The Scheduled Castes and Scheduled Tribes (Prevention of Atrocities) Act 1989, may be seen as giving effect to which of the following fundamental right?
1. Equality before law.
2. Right against discrimination
3. Abolition of untouchability
4. Right to Freedom of Religion.
Select the correct answer using the codes given below.
(a) 1, 2 and 3 (b) 2 and 3
(c) 2, 3 and 4
(d) 1, 2, 3 and 4
Ans: (a)

---

277. Right to Property was removed from the list of Fundamental Rights during the rule of
(a) Indira Gandhi Government
(b) Morarji Desai Government
(c) Narasimha Rao Government
(d) Vajpayee Government
Ans: (b)

---

278. Consider the following statements about preventive detention
1. A person can be arrested or detained under preventive detention, if the government feels that the person can be a threat to the law and order or to the peace and security of the nation.
2. The preventive detention can be extended only for 3 months, after which such a case is required to be brought before an advisory board for review.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a) Only 1
(b) Only 2
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
Ans: (c)

---

279. The writ of ‘Prohibition’ is issued by a superior court
(a) to prevent an inferior court or tribunal from exceeding its jurisdiction or acting contrary to the rules of natural justice.
(b) to an inferior court or body exercising judicial or quasijudicial functions to transfer the record to proceedings in a case for its review.
(c) where it can call upon a person to show under what authority he/she is holding the office.
(d) to an authority to produce an illegally detained person before the court for trial.
Ans: (a)

---

280. Political right does not include which of the following?
(a) Right to Vote
(b) Right to Life
(c) Right to Contest in Election
(d) Right to Lodge Complaint with Executive Bodies of the Government
Ans: (b)

---

281. Which part of the Indian Constitution deals with ‘Fundamental Rights’?
(a) Part I (b) Part II
(c) Part III (d) Part IV
Ans: (c)

---

282. Which of the following statements are true for the Fundamental Right to Life and Personal Liberty as guaranteed under Article-21 of the Constitution of India?
1. The Right is available to citizens as well as aliens.
2. It covers protection against arbitrary executive and legislative action.
3. It includes the right to live with human dignity.
4. It can be taken away according to the procedure established by law.
Select the correct answer using the codes given below
(a) 1, 2 and 3 (b) 2, 3 and 4
(c) 1, 2, 3 and 4 (d) 1 and 4
Ans: (c)

---

283. Fundamental Rights are not given to
(a) bankrupt persons
(b) aliens
(c) persons suffering from incurable diseases
(d) political sufferers
Ans: (d)

---

284. Which Constitutional Amendment deleted the Right to Property from the list of Fundamental Rights?
(a) 42nd Amendment
(b) 43rd Amendment
(c) 44th Amendment
(d) 62nd Amendment
Ans: (c)

---

285. The citizens of India do not have which of the following Fundamental Rights?
(a) Right to reside and settle in any part of India.
(b) Right to acquire, hold and dispose property
(c) Right to practice any profession
(d) Right to form cooperative societies
Ans: (b)

---

286. Which one of the following is the guardian of Fundamental Right?
(a) Legislature (b) Executive
(c) Political parties (d) Judiciary
Ans: (d)

---

287. The Right to Vote in India is a
(a) Fundamental right
(b) Constitutional right
(c) Natural right (d) Legal right
Ans: (b)

---

288. The Fundamental Rights in Indian Constitution primarily act as limitations upon the powers of the
1. Executive 2. Legislature
3. Individuals
Select the correct answer using the codes given below
(a) Only 1 (b) Only 2
(c) 1 and 2 (d) 1, 2 and 3
Ans: (c)

---

289. The Writ of Certiorari is issued by a Supreme Court to
(a) an inferior court to stop further proceedings in a particular case.
(b) an inferior court to transfer the record of proceedings in a case for review.
(c) an officer to show his/her right to hold a particular office.
(d) a public authority to produce a person detained by it before the court within 24 hours.
Ans: (b)

---

290. The correct statements about Fundamental Rights are
1. They are enforceable in the court of law.
2. These rights are absolute.
3. They can be suspended during National Emergency, except some.
4. They are available only to Indian citizens.
5. They are contained in Part IV of the Constitution. Choose the right answer from the options given below
(a) 1, 3, 4 and 5 (b) 1, 2, 3 and 5
(c) 1 and 3 (d) 1, 3 and 5
Ans: (c)

---

291. The Constitution allows preventive detention but stipulates
1. that no one should be detained beyond three months unless an Advisory Board authorises detention beyond that period.
2. that the grounds for detention should be conveyed to the detenu before arresting him.
3. that the detained person must be produced before the nearest magistrate within a period of 24 hours of his arrest.
Select the correct answer using the codes given below
(a) 1, 2 and 3 (b) 1 and 2
(c) 2 and 3 (d) Only 1
Ans: (d)

---

292. Which one of the following features of the Fundamental Rights under Indian Constitution is not correct?
1. They are above ordinary laws.
2. They are absolute.
3. They are justiciable.
4. They are six in number.
Select the correct answer using the codes given below
(a) 2 and 4 (b) Only 2
(c) 1 and 3 (d) 2, 3 and 4
Ans: (b)

---

293. The Preventive Detention Act does not have a restraining effect on
1. Right to Equality 2. Right to Freedom
3. Right to Religion
4. Right to Constitutional Remedies
Select the correct answer using the codes given below
(a) 1, 3 and 4
(b) 1, 2 and 4
(c) 2, 3 and 4
(d) 1, 2, 3 and 4
Ans: (a)

---

294. Which of the following is not a part of Fundamental duties under Indian Constitution?
(a) to defend the country and sender the national service.
(b) to value and preserve the rich heritage of our composite culture
(c) to help in organising village Panchayats.
(d) to safeguard public property and to adjure violence
Ans: (c)

---

295. Only the citizens of India enjoy the right to
1. equality before law.
2. protection of life and personal liberty.
3. freedom as to payment of taxes for the promotion of any particular religion.
4. equality of opportunity in matters of public employment.
Select the correct answer using the codes given below
(a) 1, 2, 3 and 4 (b) 1, 3 and 4
(c) Only 4 (d) 3 and 4
Ans: (c)

---

296. The rights enumerated under the heading ‘Right to Freedom’ include
1. protection against arrest and detention in certain cases.
2. freedom of speech and expression.
3. freedom of conscience.
4. protection of life and personal liberty.
Select the correct answer using the codes given below
(a) 1, 2, 3 and 4 (b) Only 2
(c) 1 and 2 (d) 1, 2 and 4
Ans: (d)

---

297. Freedom of conscience under the Constitution of India is subject to
1. public order, morality and health.
2. a law providing for social welfare and reform.
3. opening Hindu religious institutions of a public character to all Hindus.
4. defamation or incitement to an offence.
Select the correct answer using the codes given below
(a) 1, 2, 3 and 4 (b) 1, 2 and 3
(c) 3 and 4 (d) 1 and 2
Ans: (b)

---

298. The Supreme Court of India has expanded the meaning of the Right to Life to include the following derivative rights. Which one among the following is not included in the court’s definition?
(a) Right to Food and Adequate Livelihood
(b) Right fo Education
(c) Right to Live in a Healthy Environment
(d) Right to Health and Information
Ans: (b)

---

299. Which of the following are provided in the Fundamental Rights regarding prohibition of discrimination on grounds of religion, race, caste, sex, or place of the birth?
1. Access to hotels and places of public entertainment
2. Access to clubs
3. Access to shops
4. Access to public restaurants
Select the correct answer using the codes given below
(a) 1, 2, 3 and 4 (b) 1 and 4
(c) 1, 3 and 4 (d) 3 and 4
Ans: (c)

---

300. Which of the following is/are not right listed in the Constitution?
1. Equality in matters of appointment under State
2. Denial of special treatment for all sections including women, children and backward classes
3. Abolition of titles other than academic and military distinctions
Select the correct answer using the codes given below
(a) 1, 2 and 3 (b) 1 and 3
(c) Only 2 (d) 1 and 2
Ans: (c)

---

301. “To uphold and protect the sovereignty, unity and integrity of India”, is a provision made in
(a) Preamble of the Constitution
(b) Directive Principles of state policy
(c) Fundamental rights
(d) Fundamental duties
Ans: (d)

---

302. The provisions relating to the Fundamental Rights in the Constitution of India
(a) cannot be amended.
(b) can be amended by a simple majority in the Parliament.
(c) can be amended by a two-thirds majority in the Parliament.
(d) can be amended by a two-thirds majority of the members present and voting in the Parliament and ratified by amajority of the State Legislatures.
Ans: (c)

---

303. Consider the following statements The Fundamental Rights under the Indian Constitution are fundamental because
1. they are protected and enforced by the Constitution.
2. they can be suspended only in the manner prescribed by the Constitution.
3. they are enforceable against the State.
4. they cannot be amended.
Which of the statements given above are correct?
(a) 1 and 4 (b) 2 and 3
(c) 1, 3 and 4 (d) 1, 2 and 3
Ans: (d)

---

304. With reference to the Indian Constitution, consider the following statements
1. Originally, seven Fundamental Rights were listed in the Constitution.
2. By 44th Amendment, the Janata Party Government in 1978-79 deleted the Fundamental Right to Property. So there are now only six Fundamental Rights.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a) Only 1 (b) Only 2
(c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2
Ans: (c)

---

305. Which one among the following is not a fundamental duty?
(a) To abide by the Constitution of India and respect the National Flag and National Anthem.
(b) To safeguard public property.
(c) To protect the sovereignty, unity and integrity of India.
(d) To render compulsory military service
Ans: (d)

---

306. Which of the following provisions are contained in Article 20?
1. No ex post facto law
2. No double jeopardy
3. No self incrimination
Codes
(a) 1 and 2 (b) 2 and 3
(c) None of these (d) All of these
Ans: (a)

---

307. Which one of the following is Human Right as well as a Fundamental Right under the Constitution of India?
(a) Right to Information
(b) Right to Education
(c) Right to Work
(d) Right to Housing
Ans: (b)

---

308. Which one of the following can be provided under RTI Act, 2005?
(a) Information leading to incitement of an offense
(b) Information leading to disclosure that may constitute contempt of court
(c) Conditional disclosure relating to information on intellectual property
(d) Information relating to cabinet papers recording deliberations of Council of Ministers
Ans: (a)

---

309. Right to Information in India is a
(a) Fundamental Right
(b) Legal Right
(c) Both Fundamental and Legal Right
(d) Neither Fundamental nor Legal Right
Ans: (b)

---

310. How many Fundamental Rights are enjoyed by the Indians?
(a) Nine (b) Ten (c) Seven (d) Six
Ans: (d)

---

311. Under the provisions of Right to Freedom of Religion are included
1. Right to propagate religion.
2. Right to the Sikhs to wear and carry ‘Kripan’.
3. Right of the state to legislate for social reforms.
4. Right of religious bodies to secure conversion of people to their own faith.
Select the correct answer using the codes given below
(a) 1, 2 and 3
(b) 2, 3 and 4
(c) 3 and 4
(d) All of the above
Ans: (a)

---

312. Find the incorrect match.
(a) 77th Amendment Act -Article 16 (4A)
(b) 81st Amendment Act -Article 16(4B)
(c) 82nd Amendment Act Article 335
(d) 93rd Amendment ActArticle 15(4)
Ans: (d)

---

313. Take the case of dignity and equal rights for women. How do democrates help?
(a) Women in democracies have equal degree of political representation in legislature.
(b) Women in democracies have guaranteed rights and are always treated with respect.
(c) Women in democracies are not subjected to sex discrimination in most aspects of social life.
(d) In democracies, the principle of equality is accepted as legal norm, which makes it easier to guarantee their freedom and dignity.
Ans: (d)

---

314. Which provision of the Fundamental Rights is directly related to the exploitation of children?
(a) Article 17 (b) Article 19
(c) Article 23 (d) Article 24
Ans: (d)

---

315. Which one of the following rights is available under Article 19(1) D read with Article 21?
(a) Right to Travel Abroad
(b) Right to Shelter
(c) Right to Privacy
(d) Right to Information
Ans: (b)

---

316. Which one of the following categories of persons is not treated at par so far as the availability of Fundamental Rights is concerned?
(a) Members of the armed forces
(b) Members of the forces charged with the responsibility of maintenance of public order
(c) Members of the forces employed in connection with the communications systems set-up in the country
(d) Members of the forces employed in connection with the communication systems set-up for maintenance of public order
Ans: (a)

---

317. Which of the following statements is/are not correct?
1. The Fundamental Rights are enshrined in Part III of the Constitution from Articles 14 to 36.
2. The Fundamental Rights are meant for promoting the ideal of political democracy.
3. Some of them are negative in character.
4. They are sacrosanct.
Codes
(a) 1, 3 and 4 (b) 2 and 3
(c) 1 and 4 (d) 1 and 3
Ans: (c)

---

318. Which of the following Articles of Indian Constitution guarantees Freedom to Press?
(a) Article 16 (b) Article 19
(c) Article 22 (d) Article 31
Ans: (b)

---

319. Which among the following conditions are necessary for the issue of writ of quo warrants?
1. The office must be public and must be created by a statute or by the Constitution itself.
2. The office must be a substantive one and not merely the function or employment of a servant at the will and during the pleasure of another.
3. There has been a contravention of the Constitution on a statute or statutory instrument in appointing such person to that office.
Select the correct answer using the codes given below
(a) 1 and 2 (b) 1 and 3
(c) 2 and 3 (d) 1, 2 and 3
Ans: (d)

---

320. Consider the following statements about the ‘Right to Information (RTI) Act, 2005’ and select one which is not provided for or specially exempted.
(a) It is not applicable in the state of Jammu and Kashmir.
(b) An applicant making request for information will have to give reasons for seeking information.
(c) Removal of Chief Information Officer.
(d) Every Information Commissioner shall hold office for a term of 5 years or till the age of 65 years whichever is earlier.
Ans: (c)

---

321. Which one of the following can not be suspended or restricted even during National Emergency?
(a) Right to reside and settle in any part of the country
(b) Right to life and personal liberty
(c) Right to move freely throughout the territory of India
(d) Right to carry on any profession or business
Ans: (b)

---

322. At present in the Constitution of India, Right to Property is
(a) Fundamental Right
(b) Legal Right
(c) Moral Right
(d) None of the above
Ans: (b)

---

323. Which one of the following subjects comes under the common jurisdiction of the Supreme Court and the High Court?
(a) Mutual disputes among States
(b) Dispute between Centre and State
(c) Protection of the Fundamental Rights
(d) Protection from the violation of the Constitution
Ans: (c)

---

324. Which of the following is/are not correct?
1. The Fundamental Rights given in the Constitution are six in number.
2. Article 19 contains seven rights.
3. The rights mentioned in Article 19 are protected against only state action and not against private individuals.
Codes
(a) Only (b) Only 2
(c) Only 3 (d) All of these
Ans: (b)

---

325. Which of the following are the legal provisions for the implementation of the Fundamental Duties?
1. Protection of Civil Rights Act (1955)
2. Unlawful Activities (Prevention) Act (1967)
3. Wildlife Protection Act (1972)
4. Forest Conservation Act (1980) Choose the correct answer using the given codes
(a) 1, 2 and 3 (b) 2, 3, and 4
(c) 1, 2, 3 and 4 (d) 1, 3, and 4
Ans: (c)

---

326. Which Amendment to the Constitution inserted a new Article 21A providing Right to Education in the Constitution?
(a) 86th Amendment
(b) 87th Amendment
(c) 88th Amendment
(d) 89th Amendment
Ans: (a)

---

327. Which of the following Articles of the Indian Constitution guarantees equality of opportunity to all citizens of India in matters relating to public employment?
(a) Article 15
(b) Article 16(1) and 16(2)
(c) Article 16(3)
(d) Article 16(3), 16(4) and 16(5)
Ans: (b)

---

328. Which of the following statements is/are not correct?
1. Article 15 abolishes untouchability and forbids its practice in any form.
2. In 1976, the Untouchability (offences) Act, 1955 has been comprehensively amended and renamed as the Protection of Civil Rights Act, 1955.
3. The term untouchability has not been defined either in the Constitution or in the Act.
4. A person convicted of the offence of untouchability is disqualified for election to the Parliament but not to the State Legislature.
Codes
(a) 2 and 3 (b) 1, 3 and 4
(c) 1, 2 and 3 (d) 1 and 4
Ans: (d)

---

329. In which of the following cases, Supreme Court held that “Fundamental Rights enable a man to chalk out his own life in the manner he likes best”?
(a) Indira Gandhi vs Raj Narain
(b) Golaknath vs State of Punjab
(c) Bank Nationalisation Case
(d) Azar vs Municipal Corporation
Ans: (b)

---

330. Which one among the following pairs of Articles relating to the Fundamental Rights can not be suspended during the enforcement of emergency under Article 359 of the Indian Constitution?
(a) Articles 14 and 15
(b) Articles 16 and 17
(c) Articles 20 and 21
(d) Articles 24 and 25
Ans: (c)

---

331. Which of the following is/are not related to Fundamental Duties?
1. To cherish and follow the noble ideals which inspired our national struggle for freedom.
2. To value and preserve the rich heritage or our composite culture.
3. To promote the educational and economic interests of the weaker sections of the people, especially the Scheduled Castes and Scheduled Tribes.
4. To protect all monuments of historic interest and national importance.
Select the correct answer using the codes given below
(a) 1 and 2 (b) 2 and 3
(c) 3 and 4 (d) Only 4
Ans: (c)

---

332. Which one of the following writs is issued during the pendency of proceeding in a court?
(a) Mandamus (b) Certiorari
(c) Prohibition (d) Quo Warranto
Ans: (a)

---

333. Which one among the following is not included in the Fundamental Rights embodied in the Constitution of India?
(a) Right to Equality
(b) Right to Freedom
(c) Right against Exploitation
(d) Right to Information
Ans: (d)

---

334. Which of the following can impose reasonable restrictions on the Fundamental Rights of the Indian citizens?
(a) Supreme Court (b) Parliament
(c) President on the advice of the Council of Ministers
(d) None of these; the restrictions have already been included in the Constitution
Ans: (b)

---

335. For violation of which of the following rights, an aggrieved person can approach directly Supreme Court and High Courts for their enforcement?
1. For denial of information under Rights to Information.
2. For denial of education under Right to Education.
3. For denial of employment under MGNREGA. Choose the correct answer using the codes given below
(a) Only 1 (b) Only 2
(c) 2 and 3 (d) All of these
Ans: (b)

---

336. The acquisition of land and estates by the government for construction of highways and other infrastructure deals with which of the following parts of the Constitution?
1. Part-III, Fundamental Rights
2. Part-IV, Directive Principles of State Policy
3. Part-IVA, Fundamental Duties
4. Part-XII, Finance, Property, Contracts and Suits
Select the correct answer using the codes given below
(a) 1, 2 and 4 (b) 2 and 4
(c) 1 and 2 (d) Only 4
Ans: (b)

---

337. Which statement/s is/are not correct regarding the Fundamental Rights?
1. Some of these rights are not available to the Armed Forces.
2. They are automatically suspended when any emergency is proclaimed by the President.
3. The President alone can decide upon modifying their application to the Armed Forces.
4. They cannot be amended as they form the basic feature of the Constitution.
Select the correct answer using the codes given below
(a) 1 and 2 (b) 2, 3 and 4
(c) 1 and 4 (d) 1, 2, 3 and 4
Ans: (b)

---

338. Consider the following statements
1. The main objective of Article 13 is to secure the paramountcy of the Constitution in regard to Fundamental Rights.
2. According to Article 15, the state shall not deny to any person the equal protection of the laws within the territory of India.
Which of the above statements is/are correct?
(a) Only 1
(b) Only 2
(c) 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
Ans: (a)

---

339. Regarding Equality before Law, the Indian Constitution makes exceptions in the case of
1. The President 2. Governors
3. Foreign sovereigns
4. Foreign diplomats
Select the correct answer using the codes given below
(a) 1, 2 and 3 (b) 1, 2 and 4
(c) 1 and 2 (d) 1, 2, 3 and 4
Ans: (b)

---

340. Which of the following Fundamental Rights are available to Indian citizens but not to aliens?
1. Equality before Law
2. Freedom of Expression and Speech
3. Right of Minorities to conserve their language and culture
4. Protection to life and liberty
Select the correct answer using the codes given below
(a) 1, 2 and 4 (b) 1, 2 and 3
(c) 2, 3 and 4 (d) 2 and 3
Ans: (d)

---

341. Freedom of Speech and Expression are restricted in the Constitution on grounds of
1. defamation 2. contempt of court
3. protecting a scheduled tribe
4. friendly relations with foreign states
Select the correct answer using the codes given below
(a) 1, 2 and 3 (b) 1, 2, 3 and 4
(c) 1 and 4 (d) 1, 2 and 4
Ans: (d)

---

342. Which among the following are not true about the censorship of the press?
1. It is prohibited by the Constitution.
2. It has to be judged by the test of reasonableness.
3. It is a restriction on the freedom of the press mentioned in Article 19.
4. It is specified in Article 31 of the Constitution.
Select the correct answer using the codes given below
(a) 1, 3 and 4 (b) 1, 2 and 3
(c) 2, 3 and 4 (d) 1, 2, 3 and 4
Ans: (b)

---

343. Children of which of the following category of people do not belong to the category of creamy layer.
1. Persons holding constitutional post
2. Group A, Group B officers
3. Professionals like doctors, lawyers, engineers, artists, authors etc
4. Persons engaged in trade, business and industry
5. Persons having Gross national income less than ` 6 lakh
Select the correct answer using the codes given below
(a) 3, 4, 5 (b) 1 and 2
(c) Only 5 (d) 4 and 5
Ans: (c)

---

344. Which of the following come under Right to Equality?
1. Non-discrimination by State on grounds of religion or race.
2. Equal protection of the laws.
3. Equal pay for equal work.
4. Equality of opportunity in matters of employment under the State.
Select the correct answer using the codes given below
(a) 1, 2, 3 and 4 (b) 1, 3 and 4
(c) 1 and 4 (d) 1, 2 and 4
Ans: (d)

---

345. Which of the following courts is/are responsible for the enforcement of Fundamental Rights?
(a) Supreme Court (b) High Court
(c) Both ‘a’ and ‘b’ (d) District Court
Ans: (c)

---

346. Right to Information (RTI) Act aims at to
(a) secure access to information from public authorities.
(b) provide information to public by a person who has got the information.
(c) provide information by government on public place.
(d) secure information by police from culprits.
Ans: (a)

---

347. In the Indian Constitution, the Right to Equality is granted by five Articles. They are
(a) Article 13 to Article 17
(b) Article 14 to Article 18
(c) Article 15 to Article 19
(d) Article 16 to Article 20
Ans: (b)

---

348. Consider the following statements Right to Information is necessary in India because it
1. increases people’s participation in administration.
2. makes administration more accountable to people.
3. makes administrationmore innovative.
4. makes people aware of administrative decision making of the statements.
Which of the statements given above are correct?
(a) 1, 2 and 3 (b) 2, 3 and 4
(c) 1, 2 and 4 (d) 1, 3 and 4
Ans: (c)

---

349. Match List I (Articles) with List II (Provisions) and select the correct answer using the codes given below
List I List II
A. Article 14 1. The State shall not deny to person equality before the law or equal protection of laws within territory of India.
B. Article 15 2. The State shall not discriminate against any citizen on grounds of religion, race, caste, sex, place, birth or any of them.
C. Article 16 3. There shall be equality of opportunity in matters relating employment or appointment to office under the state.
D. Article 17 4. Untouchability is abolished and in practice in any form is forbidden.
Codes A B C D
(a) 1 2 3 4
(b) 2 1 3 4
(c) 4 3 2 1
(d) 4 3 1 2
Ans: (a)

---

350. Which of the following are envisaged as being part of the “Right against Exploitation” in the Constitution of India?
1. Prohibition of traffic in human beings and forced labour
2. Abolition of untouchability
3. Protection of the interests of the minorities
4. Prohibition of employment of children in factories and mines
Select the correct answer using the codes given below
(a) 1 and 2 (b) 1 and 3
(c) 1 and 4 (d) 2, 3 and 4
Ans: (c)

---

351. The National Green Tribunal Act, 2010 was enacted in consonance with which of the following provisions of the Constitution of India?
1. Right to healthy environment, constructed as a part of Right to life under Article 21.
2. Provision of grants for raising the level of administration in the Scheduled Areas for the welfare of Scheduled Tribes under Article 275(1).
3. Powers and functions of Gram Sabha as mentioned under Article 243(A).
Select the correct answer using the codes given below
(a) Only 1 (b) 2 and 3
(c) 1 and 3 (d) 1, 2 and 3
Ans: (a)

---

352. According to the National Human Rights Commission (NHRC) Act, 1993, who amongst the following can be its Chairman?
(a) Any serving Judge of the Supreme Court
(b) Any serving Judge of the High Court
(c) Only a retired Chief Justice of India
(d) Only a retired Chief Justice of High Court
Ans: (c)

---

353. The writ of prohibition issued by the Supreme Court or a High Court is issued against
1. judicial or quasi-judicial authorities.
2. administrative and judicial authorities.
3. administrative authorities only.
4. administrative authorities and government.
Select the correct answer using the codes given below
(a) 1 and 4
(b) Only 1
(c) Only 2
(d) Only 4
Ans: (b)

---

354. The writ of mandamus is available for the purpose of
1. enforcement of Fundamental Rights.
2. compelling a Court or Judicial Tribunal to exercise its jurisdiction when it has refused to exercise it.
3. directing a public official or the government not to enforce a law which is unconstitutional.
Select the correct answer using the codes given below
(a) 2 and 3 (b) 1, 2 and 3
(c) 1 and 3 (d) Only 1
Ans: (b)

---

355. Which of the following statements are incorrect?
1. The Fundamental Rights of the Indian citizens cannot be suspended under any circumstances.
2. The Fundamental Rights of the Indian citizens can be suspended by the Parliament by a two-third majority.
3. The Fundamental Rights of the Indian citizens can be suspended by the President during the National Emergency.
4. The Fundamental Rights of the Indian citizens can be suspended by the President during the National Emergency as well as during the emergency arising due to breakdown of Constitutionalmachinery in a State.
Select the correct answer using the codes given below
(a) 2, 3 and 4 (b) 1, 3 and 4
(c) 1, 2 and 3 (d) 1, 2 and 4
Ans: (d)

---

356. Which of the following statements are incorrect?
1. The Right to Private Property was removed from the Constitution by the 42nd Amendment.
2. The Right to Private Property which was granted by the original Constitution has been made more sacrosanct by the 44th Amendment.
3. The Right to Property was never a Fundamental Right under the Indian Constitution.
4. The Right to Private Property was granted by the original Constitution but it has since been removed from the list of Fundamental Rights.
Select the correct answer using the codes given below
(a) 1, 2 and 3 (b) 2, 3 and 4
(c) 1, 3 and 4 (d) 1 and 3
Ans: (a)

---

357. Which of the following are the points of criticism against the Fundamental Rights?
1. The economic and social rights do not find any place in the Chapter on Fundamental Rights.
2. The Fundamental Rights are almost absolute and attach too much importance to the interests of the individual.
3. The remedies for the protection of the Fundamental Rights are very expensive and beyond the capacity of the ordinary citizens.
4. The Rights are hedged with so many restrictions and limitations that they virtually became ineffective.
Select the correct answer using the codes given below
(a) 1, 2 and 3 (b) 1, 2 and 4
(c) 1, 3 and 4 (d) 2, 3 and 4
Ans: (c)

---

358. Which of the following is matched incorrectly?
(a) Article 19(1) (a) —Right to Freedom of Speech and Expression
(b) Article 19(1) (b) —Freedom to Form Aassociation
(c) Article 19(1)(e) —Freedom of Residence
(d) Article 19(1)(g) —Right to Practise any Profession or to Carry on any Occupation, Trade or Business.
Ans: (b)

---

359. Which of the following has been inserted by 42nd Amendment?
(a) Participation of workers in management of industries
(b) Protection and improvement of environment and safeguarding of forests and wildlife
(c) Both ‘a’ and ‘b’
(d) None of the above
Ans: (b)

---

360. Which of the following are not included in the Right to Freedom of Religion in the Constitution of India?
1. Freedom of conscience and the right to practise and propagate religion.
2. Levying of taxes or use of funds of the government for the promotion or maintenance of any religion.
3. Establishment and maintenance of religion and charitable institutions
4. Imparting of religious instructions in any government maintained institutions.
Select the correct answer using the codes given below
(a) l and 2 (b) 1, 2 and 3
(c) 1,3 and 4 (d) 2 and 4
Ans: (d)

---

361. Which of the following are Constitutional rights?
1. Right to Property
2. Freedom of Trade, Commerce, and Intercourse
3. Right to Vote
4. Right related to Article 265
Select the correct answer using the codes given below
(a) 1 and 3 (b) 1, 2 and 3
(c) 1 and 2 (d) All of these
Ans: (d)

---

362. Which of the following statements regarding the Article 22 of the Constitution of India are correct?
1. The Fundamental Right conferred by this Article protects persons against arrests and detention in certain cases.
2. This Fundamental Right is guaranteed to both citizens and non-citizens.
3. The rights guaranteed under this provision are applicable to those arrested under laws providing for preventive detention.
4. The rights guaranteed under this article are not applicable to enemy aliens. Choose the correct answer using the codes given below
(a) 1, 2 and 3 (b) 2 and 4
(c) 1, 2 and 4 (d) 1 and 3
Ans: (c)

---

363. ‘State’ for the purpose of Fundamental Rights includes
(a) Government and Parliament of India
(b) Government and Legislature of State
(c) All local authorities
(d) All of the above
Ans: (d)

---

364. Which one of the following is not a feature of the Fundamental Rights?
(a) These are available to all persons, citizens and non-citizens.
(b) These are in the nature of positive obligations upon the state.
(c) Some of the rights are available only to the citizens.
(d) These are justiciable.
Ans: (b)

---

365. Which Article of the Constitution deals with martial law?
(a) Article 33 (b) Article 34
(c) Article 35 (d) All of these
Ans: (b)

---

366. Assertion (A) The right to property in the Constitution of India ceased to be a Fundamental Right but it continues to exist as a Constitutional Right.
Reason (R) Forty-forth Amendment deleted Article 19(f) and 31 from Part III and added a new Article 300 A in Part XII.
Codes
(a) Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A
(b) Both A and R are true, but R is not the correct explanation of A
(c) A is true, but R is false
(d) A is false, but R is true
Ans: (a)

---

367. What are the essentials of writ of mandamus?
1. It should relate to a public duty.
2. It should be ordered against a public officer.
3. The duty must have been requested.
4. The said duty must have not been performed.
Codes
(a) 1, 2 and 3 (b) 1, 3 and 4
(c) 2, 3 and 4 (d) All of these
Ans: (d)

---

368. Which of the following is not matched correctly?
Writ Available against
(a) Quo Warranto : Any person
(b) Mandamus : Public official
(c) Prohibition : Lower court
(d) Certiorari : Quasi judicial tribunal and not the courts
Ans: (d)

---

369. Which of the following is a significance of the Fundamental Rights?
(a) They strengthen secular fabric of State.
(b) They serve as bulwark of individual liberty.
(c) They check the authority of the government.
(d) They are Absolute Rights and are provided without any exception.
Ans: (d)

---

370. Which of the following is correctly matched?
Article Deals with
(a) 31 A : Laws inconsistent with Fundamental Rights
(b) 31 B : Validating certain Acts
(c) 31 C : Giving effect to Fundamental Duties
(d) 13 : Saving of certain laws
Ans: (b)

---

371. The basic difference between the Fundamenal Rights and Directive Principles is
(a) Fundamental Rights are positive while Directive Principles are negative.
(b) Directive Principles are given precedence over the Fundamental Rights by the court in all the cases.
(c) Fundamental Rights are justifiable while Directive Principles are not.
(d) None of the above
Ans: (c)

---

372. Under the Constitution of India, which one of the following is not a Fundamental Duty?
(a) To vote in public elections
(b) To develop the scientific temper
(c) To safeguard public property
(d) To abide by the Constitution and respect its ideals
Ans: (a)

---

373. On which of the following grounds restrictions may not be imposed on Right to Freedom of Religion?
(a) Public order (b) Morality
(c) Security of India (d) Health
Ans: (c)

---

374. Which of the following is correct about the Right to Education?
(a) It is provided in Article 21A.
(b) It is provided by 86th amendment.
(c) It is provided for children between 6-14 years of age.
(d) All of the above
Ans: (d)

---

375. Assertion (A) An accused person cannot be compelled to give his thumb impression.
Reason (R) An accused person cannot be compelled to be a witness against himself.
(a) Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A
(b) Both A and R are true, but R is not the correct explanation of A
(c) A is true, but R is false
(d) A is false, but R is true
Ans: (d)

---

376. Consider the following statements
1. The Right to Property was deleted from the list of Fundamental Rights by the 42nd Amendment Act.
2. It is made a legal right under Article 300-A in Part XII of the Constitution.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a) Only 1 (b) Only 2
(c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2
Ans: (b)

---

377. Fundamental Rights are available against
(a) only States
(b) both State and citizens
(c) only citizens
(d) None of these
Ans: (b)

---

378. Assertion (A) Habeas Corpus writ petition is not limited by the rule of ‘res judicata’.
Reason (R) It relates to life and liberty of a person.
(a) Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A
(b) Both A and R are true, but R is not the correct explanation of A
(c) A is true, but R is false
(d) A is false, but R is true
Ans: (a)

---

379. The Constitution of India guarantees the Fundamental Right of Freedom of Religion to all its citizens. Which among the following is not true of this right?
(a) It gives freedom of conscience and freedom to profess, practise and propagate any religion.
(b) It gives freedom to establish and maintain institution for religious and charitable purposes.
(c) The right is subject to public order, morality and health.
(d) The state cannotmake any law which abrogates this right for citizens.
Ans: (d)

---

380. The Constitution of India guarantees Freedom of Thought and Expression to all its citizens subject to
1. implementation of directive principles
2. Fundamental Duties
3. Right to Equality
Select the correct answer using the codes given below
(a) 1 and 2 (b) 2 and 3
(c) Only 1 (d) 1, 2 and 3
Ans: (c)

---

381. Which of the following is not correctly matched?
Article Deals with
(a) Article 26 : Right to manage religious affairs
(b) Article 29 (2) : Right not to be discriminated in admission
(c) Article 30 (1) : Right to establish educational institutions
(d) Article 29 (1) : Right to receive aid from the state
Ans: (d)

---

382. Which of the following is correct about the Right to Freedom of Religion?
(a) It is available to citizens only.
(b) It includes the freedom to convert.
(c) It cannot be subjected to any restrictions.
(d) It covers religious beliefs as well as religious practices.
Ans: (d)

---

383. Child Labour (Prohibition and Regulation) Act, 1986 was legislated to implement the provisions of
(a) Article 23 (b) Article 24
(c) Article 21 (d) All of these
Ans: (b)

---

384. Who said that Fundamental Rights are the conscience of the Constitution?
(a) BR Ambedkar
(b) Granville Austin
(c) Jawahar Lal Nehru
(d) Rajendra Prasad
Ans: (b)

---

385. Match the following List I with List II and answer as per the codes given below
List I List II
A. Mandamus 1. It is issued on the grounds of excess of jurisdiction or lack of jurisdiction or error of law.
B. Prohibition 2. It is issued by a higher court to lower court or tribunal to prevent the latter from exceeding its jurisdiction.
C. Certiorari 3. It is issued by the court to a public official asking him to perform his official duties.
D. Quo- Warranto 4. It is issued by the court to enquire into the legality of claim of a person to a public office.
Codes A B C D
(a) 3 1 2 4 (b) 1 2 4 3
(c) 4 1 2 3 (d) 3 2 1 4
Ans: (d)

---

386. Which of the following is not true about the preventive detention laws in India?
(a) Rights granted in Article 22 (1) and (2) are provided to the preventive detenues also.
(b) Preventive detention laws may be challenged in the courts.
(c) A person cannot be detained for a period exceeding three months without the report of advisory board.
(d) None of the above
Ans: (a)

---

Type 2. Fundamental Duties
387. Which of the following are included as the Fundamental Duties?
1. To abide by the Constitution and have respect for its ideals and institutions.
2. To uphold and protect the sovereignty, unity and integrity of India.
3. To ensure rule of law in the country.
4. To safeguard public property and to abjure violence.
Codes
(a) 1, 2 and 4
(b) 1, 3 and 4
(c) 1, 2 and 3
(d) 1, 2, 3 and 4
Ans: (a)

---

388. The Fundamental Duties of a citizen include
1. respect for the Constitution, the National Flag and the National Anthem.
2. to develop the scientific temper.
3. respect for the Government.
4. to protect wildlife.
Codes
(a) 1, 3 and 4 (b) 1 and 4
(c) 1, 2 and 3 (d) 1, 2 and 4
Ans: (d)

---

389. Which one of the following is a Fundamental Duty in India?
(a) Separation of judiciary fromexecutive
(b) To value and preserve the rich heritage of ours composite culture
(c) Free and compulsory education for children
(d) Abolition of untouchability
Ans: (b)

---

390. The Fundamental Duties were included in the Constitution with the idea of
(a) giving more importance to the Fundamental Rights.
(b) curbing subversive and unconstitutional activities.
(c) preventing abuse of Fundamental Rights.
(d) givingmore powers to the Executive.
Ans: (b)

---

391. Which one of the following is not a Fundamental Duty?
(a) To respect the National Anthem
(b) To safeguard public property
(c) To protect monuments and places of public importance
(d) To protect and improve the natural environment
Ans: (c)

---

392. Which of the following is correctly matched?
(a) Part II of the Constitution : Fundamental Rights
(b) Part Ill of the Constitution : Citizenship
(c) Part IV A of the Constitution : Fundamental Duties
(d) Part V of the Constitution : Directive Principles of the State Policy
Ans: (c)

---

393. Which of the following Acts provides legal provision for implementation of Fundamental Duties?
1. Representation of People Act, 1951
2. The Protection of Civil Right Act, 1955
3. Wildlife Protection Act Choose the correct option
(a) 2 and 3 (b) Only 2
(c) 1, 2 and 3 (d) 1 and 3
Ans: (c)

---

394. Which one of the following is a Fundamental Duty of citizens under the Constitution of India?
(a) To provide friendly cooperation to the people of the neighbouring countries
(b) To protect monument of national importance
(c) To defend the country and render national service when called upon to do so
(d) To know more and more about the history of India
Ans: (c)

---

395. Fundamental Duties were included in the Constitution of India on the recommendation of
(a) Balwant Rai Mehta Committee
(b) Lyngen Committee
(c) Swarn Singh Committee
(d) Thakkar Committee
Ans: (c)

---

396. Which of the following is/are among the Fundamental Duties of citizens laid down in the Indian Constitution?
1. To preserve the rich heritage of our composite culture
2. To protect the weaker sections from social injustices
3. To develop the scientific temper and spirit of enquiry
4. To strive towards excellence in all spheres of individual and collective activity
Select the correct answer using the codes given below
(a) 1 and 2 (b) Only 2
(c) 1, 3 and 4 (d) 1, 2, 3 and 4
Ans: (c)

---

397. Which one among the following is not a Fundamental Duty of the citizen of India?
(a) To develop scientific temper, humanism and the spirit of inquiry and reform
(b) To safeguard public property and to abjure violence
(c) To uphold and protect the sovereignty, unity and integrity of India
(d) To practise family planning and to control population
Ans: (d)

---

398. The Fundamental Duties of a citizen of India include
1. to protect and improve the natural environment.
2. to cherish and follow the noble ideals which inspired our national struggle for freedom.
3. to develop scientific temper, humanismand the spirit of inquiry and reform.
4. to strive towards achieving equal protection of law.
Codes
(a) 1, 2, 3 and 4 (b) 1 and 2
(c) 2, 3 and 4 (d) 1, 2 and 3
Ans: (d)

---

399. Which of the following statements regarding the Fundamental Duties contained in the Constitution of India are correct?
1. Fundamental Duties can be enforced through writ jurisdiction.
2. Fundamental Duties have formed a part of the Constitution of India since its adoption.
3. Fundamental Duties have become a part of the Constitution of India in accordance with the recommendations of the Swarn Singh Committee.
4. Fundamental Duties are applicable only to citizens of India.
Codes
(a) 1, 2 and 3 (b) 1, 2 and 4
(c) 2 and 3 (d) 3 and 4
Ans: (d)

---

400. In which of the following years the Fundamental Duties have been added to the existent Fundamental Rights in the Constitution of India?
(a) 1965 (b) 1976 (c) 1979 (d) 1982
Ans: (b)

---

401. Fundamental Duties do not enjoy any
(a) social sanction
(b) moral sanction
(c) political sanction
(d) legal sanction
Ans: (d)

---

Part 5 Directive Principles of State Policy (DPSP)
402. Which of the following are the differences between the Fundamental Rights and Directive Principles?
1. Fundamental Rights are negative instructions, while the Directive Principles are positive instruction to the government.
2. Fundamental Rights are justiciable while the Directive Principles are nonjusticiable.
3. Fundamental Rights enjoy constitutional basis while the Directive Principles are based on conventions.
Codes
(a) 1 and 2 (b) 1 and 3
(c) 1, 2 and 3 (d) None of these
Ans: (a)

---

403. What are the Gandhian Principles incorporated in the Indian Constitution?
1. Efforts to be made for the development of weaker or backward sections of the society.
2. Prohibition on the use of intoxicating liquor except for medicinal purposes.
3. Organisation of village panchayats.
4. Establishment of cottage and small scale industries in rural areas.
Codes
(a) 1, 3 and 4 (b) 1, 2 and 3
(c) 2, 3 and 4 (d) All of these
Ans: (d)

---

404. Which of the following are listed as a Directive Principle in our Constitution?
1. Complete freedom in the economic field for the interest of consumers and producers.
2. Regulation of economic system of the country so as to prevent concentration of wealth and means of production.
3. To ensure decent standard of living and facilities of leisure for all workers.
4. To protect and improve the environment and to safeguard forests and wild life.
Codes
(a) 2 and 3 (b) 2, 3 and 4
(c) 2 and 4 (d) 3 and 4
Ans: (d)

---

405. The Directive Principles are in the nature of
(a) judicial injunctions to the Government to enact certain laws
(b) request to the Government to pay attention to certain subjects
(c) injunctions to the Government to refrain from doing certain things
(d) instructions to the Government to do certain things
Ans: (d)

---

406. Consider the following statements about the Directive Principles of State Policy and find out the correct answer
(a) While the Fundamental Rights restrain the government from doing certain things, the Directive Principles exhort the government to do certain things.
(b) The DPSPs are not enforceable in the courts and do not create any justicable rights in favour of the individuals.
(c) The Supreme Court in Kesavananda Bharati case ruled that DPSPs constitute the basic features of the Constitution and cannot be changed by Parliament.
(d) All of the above are correct
Ans: (d)

---

407. If the State enacts a law to implement a Directive Principle calling for equitable distribution of the material resources of the community, it
(a) is put in the Ninth Schedule
(b) shall be considered void even if, it violates the rights in Articles 14 and 19
(c) can be struck down by the Supreme Court on grounds of violating the Fundamental Rights
(d) shall not be considered void if it violates Fundamental Rights under Artical 14 and 19
Ans: (d)

---

408. Which Constitutional Amendment granted a position of primacy to all the Directive Principles over Fundamental Rights?
(a) 24th (b) 25th (c) 36th (d) 42nd
Ans: (d)

---

409. Match the following
List I List II
A. Article 39A 1. human conditions of work maternity relief
B. Article 40 2. equal justice and free legal aid
C. Article 42 3. organisation of village panchayats
D. Article 44 4. provision for uniform civil code for the citizens.
Codes A B C D A B C D
(a) 1 2 3 4 (b) 3 2 1 4
(c) 2 3 1 4 (d) 4 3 2 1
Ans: (c)

---

410. Panchayati Raj System in India is laid down under
(a) Fundamental Rights
(b) Fundamental Duties
(c) Directive Principles of State Policy
(d) Election Commission Act
Ans: (c)

---

411. ‘The Directive Principles of State Policy is a cheque which is paid on Bank’s convenience’. Who told it?
(a) BR Ambedkar
(b) KM Munshi
(c) Rajendra Prasad
(d) KT Seth
Ans: (a)

---

412. Which of the following is not included in the Directive Principles of State Policy?
(a) Prohibition of Liquor
(b) Right to Work
(c) Equal Wage for Equal Work
(d) Right to Information
Ans: (d)

---

413. Which one among the following statements is not correct? The word ‘Socialist’ in the preamble of the Constitution of India, read with
(a) Article 39(d), would enable the court to uphold the constitutionality of nationalization laws
(b) Article 14, would enable the court to strike down a statute which failed to achieve the socialist goal to the fullest extent
(c) Article 25, would enable the court to ensure freedom guaranteed under that Article
(d) Article 23, would enable the court to reduce inequality in income and status
Ans: (a)

---

414. The purpose of Directive Principles of state policy is to
(a) lay down positive instructions which would guide state policy at all levels
(b) implement Gandhiji’s idea for a decentralized state
(c) check the use of arbitrary powers by the government
(d) promote welfare of the backward sections of the society
Ans: (a)

---

415. A socialistic ideology is reflected in the Directive Principle, which calls for
(a) securing equitable distribution of material resources of the country to prevent concentration of wealth
(b) promotion of cottage industries
(c) free and compulsory education for children up to 14 years of age
(d) All of the above
Ans: (a)

---

416. Which of the following statements is/are not indicative of the difference between Fundamental Rights and Directive Principles?
1. Directive Principles are aimed at promoting social welfare, while Fundamental Rights are for protecting individuals from State encroachment.
2. Fundamental Rights are limitations on State action, while Directive Principles are positive instructions for the Government to work towards a justice and socio-economic order.
3. Fundamental Rights were included in the original Constitution, but Directive Principles were added by the first amendment.
4. Fundamental Rights are amendable, but Directive Principles cannot be amended.
Codes
(a) 1 and 2 (b) 2 and 3
(c) 3 and 4 (d) 1, 2 and 3
Ans: (a)

---

417. Which of the following can be termed ‘Gandhian’ among the Directive Principles?
1. Prevention of cow slaughter.
2. Promotion of cottage industries.
3. Establishment of village Panchayats.
4. Uniform Civil Code for the country.
Codes
(a) 1, 2, 3 and 4 (b) 1, 2 and 3
(c) 1 and 3 (d) 1 and 2
Ans: (b)

---

418. The enforcement of Directive Principles depends mostly on
(a) the Courts
(b) an effective opposition in Parliament
(c) resources available to the Government
(d) Public cooperation
Ans: (c)

---

419. As a result of Minerva Mills case, a law will be Protected by Article 31C if
(a) it has been made to implement the Directives in Article 39(b) and (c)
(b) it has been made to implement any Directive Principle
(c) it conflicts with a Fundamental Right
(d) None of the above
Ans: (a)

---

420. Among the ‘Socialistic’ Directive Principles may be listed
1. Prevention of concentration of wealth.
2. Right to work.
3. Separation of judiciary from executive.
4. Organising agriculture along scientific lines.
Codes
(a) 1 and 2 (b) 1, 2 and 3
(c) 2 and 4 (d) 1, 2, 3 and 4
Ans: (a)

---

421. Which of the following Directive Principles of state policy come into category of ‘liberal principles’?
1. The state shall endeavour to secure a uniform civil code throughout the territory of India.
2. The state shall protect every monument or place or object of artistic or historic interest.
3. The state shall endeavour to secure to all workers a living wage and conditions of work ensuring a decent standard of life.
4. The state shall take steps to separate the judiciary from executive.
Codes
(a) 1, 2 and 3 (b) 1, 2 and 4
(c) 2, 3 and 4 (d) 1, 2, 3 and 4
Ans: (b)

---

422. A uniform civil code mentioned in the Directive Principles of State Policy ensure
(a) economic equality
(b) national security
(c) national integration
(d) support of weaker sections of society
Ans: (c)

---

423. The Articles of the Constitution of India which deal with Directive Principles of State Policy are
(a) 26 to 41 (b) 30 to 45
(c) 36 to 51 (d) 40 to 55
Ans: (c)

---

424. Which Article of the Constitution enjoins the state to provide for a social order in which justice, social, economic and political freedom is ensured?
(a) Article 37 (b) Article 38
(c) Article 39 (d) Article 39A
Ans: (b)

---

425. Which of the following are stated as Directive Principles of State Policy by Article 51 of Constitution of India? The State shall endeavour to
1. promote International Peace and Security.
2. maintain just and honourable relation between nations.
3. encourage settlement of international disputes by arbitration.
Select the correct answer using the codes given below
(a) 1 and 2 (b) 1 and 3
(c) 2 and 3 (d) 1, 2 and 3
Ans: (d)

---

426. Which of the following statements is/are correct?
1. Ariticle 38 provides that state shall secure social order for promotion of welfare of the people.
2. Ariticle 45 makes the provision for free and compulsory education to children below the age of 14 years.
Codes
(a) Only 1 (b) Only 2
(c) 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
Ans: (a)

---

427. The purpose of the inclusion of Directive Principle of State Policy in the Indian Constitution is to establish
(a) Political Democracy
(b) Social Democracy
(c) Gandhian Democracy
(d) Social and Economic Democracy
Ans: (d)

---

428. Which of the following directives has not been included in the Constitution with regard to conduct of international relations?
(a) Work for the maintenance of just and honourable relations between nations
(b) Show respect for international law and treaty obligations
(c) Encourage settlement of international disputes through arbitration
(d) Work for disarmament
Ans: (d)

---

429. Which of the following Directive Principles was/were added to the Constitution at a later date?
(a) Organisation of village panchayats
(b) Prohibition of cow slaughter
(c) Free legal aid
(d) Uniform civil code
Ans: (c)

---

430. Which one of the following Articles of the Directive Principles of State Policy deals with the promotion of international peace and security?
(a) 41 (b) 43 A
(c) 48 A (d) 51
Ans: (d)

---

431. In which of the following cases, the attempt to confer primacy to Directive Principles of State Policy upon Fundamental Rights was failed by the Supreme Court?
(a) Indira Sawhni vs Union of India
(b) Shankari Prasad vs Union of India
(c) Minerva Mills vs Union of India
(d) Bennet Coleman vs Union of India
Ans: (c)

---

432. Which of the following is not correctly matched?
(a) Article 42 : To secure just and humane conditions of work and maternity relief
(b) Article 40 : To organise village panchayats
(c) Article 47 : Prohibition of intoxicating drinks
(d) Article 50 : To protect all monuments of historic and national importance
Ans: (d)

---

433. Which of the following is a Directive Principle of state policy?
(a) State to secure a social order for the promotion and welfare of the people
(b) Equal justice and free legal aid
(c) Just and human conditions of work and maternity relief
(d) All of the above
Ans: (d)

---

434. Who described the Directive Principles of State Policy as a novel feature of the Constitution of India?
(a) DD Basu (b) BR Ambedkar
(c) Pt Nehru (d) Mahatma Gandhi
Ans: (b)

---

435. Which of the following provisions of the Constitution of India have a bearing on education?
1. Directive Principles of State Policy
2. Rural and Urban Bodies
3. Fifth Schedule
4. Sixth Schedule
5. Seventh Schedule
Select the correct answer using the codes given below
(a) 1 and 2 (b) 3, 4 and 5
(c) 1, 2 and 5 (d) 1, 2, 3, 4 and 5
Ans: (c)

---

436. Consider the following provisions under the Directive Principles of State Policy as enshrined in the Constitution of India
1. Securing for citizens of India a uniform civil code.
2. Organising village panchayats.
3. Promoting cottage industries in rural areas.
4. Securing for all the workers reasonable leisure and cultural apportunities.
Which of the above are the Gandhian Principles that are reflected in the DPSP?
(a) 1, 2 and 4 (b) 2 and 3
(c) 1, 3 and 4 (d) 1, 2, 3 and 4
Ans: (b)

---

437. Which of the following is not correctly matched?
Article Deals with
(a) Right to adequate livelihood : 39 (a)
(b) Equal pay for equal work : 39 (d)
(c) Opportunity to the children : 39 (c)
(d) Ownership of material sources : 39 (b) For common good

Ans: (c)

---

438. In which of the following cases did the Supreme Court rule that harmony and balance between the Fundamental Rights and Directive Principles is a basic feature of the Constitution?
(a) Keshavananda Bharathi vs State of Kerala
(b) Minerva Mills vs Union of India
(c) Golaknath vs State of Punjab
(d) Waman Rao vs Union of India
Ans: (b)

---

439. Consider the following statements regarding the directive principles of State Policy
1. The principles spell out the socio-economic democracy in the country.
2. The provisions contained in these principles are not enforceable by any court.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a) Only 1 (b) Only 2
(c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2
Ans: (c)

---

440. Assertion (A) Directive Principles of state policy are not justiciable.
Reason (R) Directive Principles are positive obligations upon the state. .
(a) Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A
(b) Both A and R are true, but R is not the correct explanation of A
(c) A is true, but R is false
(d) A is false, but R is true
Ans: (b)

---

441. The correct statements about the directive principles of state policy are
1. They are borrowed from the Irish Constitution.
2. They are incorporated in Part V of the Constitution.
3. They seek to provide social and economic base to democracy.
4. The state must compulsorily implement them.
5. All of them are Gandhian in nature.
Codes
(a) 1, 2, 3 and 5 (b) 1, 3 and 5
(c) 1, 3, 4 and 5 (d) 1 and 3
Ans: (d)

---

442. The ideal of ‘Welfare State’ in the Indian Constitution is enshrined in its
(a) Preamble
(b) Directive Principles of State Policy
(c) Fundamental Rights
(d) Seventh Schedule
Ans: (b)

---

443. In the Constitution of India, promotion of international peace and security is included in the
(a) Preamble to the Constitution
(b) Directive Principles of State Policy
(c) Fundamental Duties
(d) Ninth Schedule
Ans: (b)

---

444. Apart from the directives included in part IV, the directives contained in other parts of the Constitution includes
1. Article 335 2. Article 350A
3. Article 351 4. Article 352 Choose the correct code below
(a) 1 and 2 (b) 1, 2, 3
(c) 2, 3, 4 (d) All of these
Ans: (b)

---

445. According to the Constitution of India, which of the following are fundamental for the governance of the country?
(a) Fundamental Rights
(b) Fundamental Duties
(c) Directive Principles of state policy
(d) Fundamental Rights and Fundamental Duties
Ans: (c)

---

446. Match the following
List I List II
A. Article 39A 1. Promotion of cooperation societies
B. Article 43A 2. Equal justice and free legal aid
C. Article 43B 3. Protection and improvement of environment and safeguarding of Forest and wild life
D. Article 48A 4. Participation of wokers in management of industries
Codes A B C D A B C D
(a) 2 4 1 3 (b) 1 3 2 4
(c) 2 1 4 3 (d) 3 2 4 1
Ans: (a)

---

Part 6 The Union Executive
Type 1. The President and Vice-President
447. Which of the following is the discretionary powers of President?
1. Appointment of council of ministers
2. To return the bill with objections
3. To detain the bill
4. To pardon
5. To summon for joint session
6. To message the Parliament
7. Appointment of judges.
Codes
(a) 1, 3 and 4
(b) 2, 5 and 7
(c) 3, 6 and 7
(d) 2, 4 and 6
(e) 2, 3 and 6
Ans: (e)

---

448. Which one of the following is the correct sequence of persons who occupied the office of the President of India right from beginning?
(a) C Rajagopalachari, Rajendra Prasad, Zakir Hussain, VV Giri
(b) C Rajagopalachari, Rajendra Prasad, VV Giri, Zakir Hussain
(c) Rajendra Prasad, S Radhakrishnan, Zakir Hussain, VV Giri
(d) Rajendra Prasad, S Radhakrishnan, VV Giri, Zakir Hussain
Ans: (c)

---

449. The President of India is elected by proportional representative system by a single transferable vote. This implies that
(a) elected MPs and MLAs of states have different number of votes
(b) all MPs and MLAs of states have one vote each
(c) all MPs and MLAs of states have equal number of votes
(d) MPs of the Lok Sabha have equal number of votes
Ans: (a)

---

450. In the event of a vacancy in the offices of both the President and Vice- President of India, the person who performs the duty of a President is
(a) Speaker of Lok Sabha
(b) Chief Justice of India
(c) Chairman of Rajya Sabha
(d) Attorney General
Ans: (b)

---

451. Which of the following appointments is not made by the President of India?
(a) Speaker of the Lok Sabha
(b) Chief Justice of India
(c) Chief of Air Staff (d) Chief of Army
Ans: (a)

---

452. How many times the President of India can seek re-election to his post?
(a) Once
(b) 2 times
(c) 3 times (d) Any number of times
Ans: (d)

---

453. What is the maximum age limit prescribed for the post of the President of India?
(a) 58 years (b) 60 years
(c) 62 years
(d) There is no maximum age limit
Ans: (d)

---

454. In case the President wishes to resign, to whom is he to address his resignation letter?
(a) Chief Justice of India
(b) Secretary of Lok Sabha
(c) Vice-President (d) Prime Minister
Ans: (c)

---

455. Who can initiate impeachment of the President?
(a) 1/4th members of either House of the Parliament
(b) Half of the members of either House of the Parliament
(c) Half of the State Legislatures
(d) 1/3rd members of any State Legislature
Ans: (a)

---

456. A Presidential Ordinance can remain in force
(a) for three months(b) for six months
(c) for nine months (d) indefinitely
Ans: (b)

---

457. According to Article 72, which of the following statements indicates the difference between ‘Commutation’ and ‘Respite’?
(a) Commutation changes the character of sentence but Respite reduced the amount of sentence
(b) Commutation reduces the amount of sentence but Respite changes character of serve
(c) The relief given under Commutation is permanent whereas under Respite its in temporary
(d) Commutation in to reduce the amount of punishment but Respite into temporarily postpone the executive of a sentence, especially a death sentence
Ans: (a)

---

458. The President of India is elected by the members of an electoral college which does not include
(a) the elected members of the Rajya Sabha
(b) the elected members of the Lok Sabha
(c) the elected members of the State Assemblies
(d) the elected members of the State Legislative Councils
Ans: (d)

---

459. With reference to the Presidential Election in India, consider the following statements
1. The nomination paper of a candidate for the Presidential Election should be signed by at least 50 electors as proposers and another 50 as seconders.
2. The prescribed security deposit in the Presidential Election is ` 25000.
Which of these statement is/are correct?
(a) Only 1 (b) Only 2
(c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2
Ans: (a)

---

460. Which of the following are available to the President of India but not to the Governor of a State?
1. Power to grant pardon in case of death sentence.
2. Diplomatic powers.
3. Power to veto the bills passed by the State Legislature.
4. Power to declare emergency.
(a) 1 and 4 (b) 2 and 3
(c) 1, 2 and 3 (d) 1, 2 and 4
Ans: (d)

---

461. Who was the President of India at the time of proclamation of emergency in the year 1975?
(a) V V Giri
(b) Giani Zail Singh
(c) Fakhruddin Ali Ahmad
(d) Shankar Dayal Sharma
Ans: (c)

---

462. Consider the following statements
1. The President of India cannot return the Money Bill to the Lok Sabha for reconsideration.
2. During the period of National Emergency, the President of India can make ordinances even when Parliament is in session.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a) Only 1
(b) Only 2
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
Ans: (a)

---

463. Consider the following statements
1. The President may, by writing under his hand addressed to the Vice- President, resign his office.
2. Executive power of the Union is vested in the President.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a) Only 1 (b) Only 2
(c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2
Ans: (c)

---

464. Which one of the following is not correct?
(a) The President shall be elected by the members of an electoral college
(b) The electrol college consists of all members of both the house of parliament and the elected members of the Legislative assemblies of the states
(c) The election of President is held in accordance with proportional representation by single transferable secret ballot system
(d) The President takes oath from chief justice of India.
Ans: (b)

---

465. The Constitution authorises the President to make provisions for discharge of duties of Governor in extraordinary circumstances under the
(a) Article 160 (b) Article 162
(c) Article 165 (d) Article 310
Ans: (a)

---

466. Which one of the following has the power to initiate the motion of impeachment of the President of India?
(a) Rajya Sabha
(b) Lok Sabha
(c) Speaker of the Lok Sabha
(d) Both the Houses of the Parliament
Ans: (d)

---

467. Which of the following is/are not correct?
1. When the Vice President preforms the duty of president in his absence, he is seized to be ex-officio Chairman of the Rajya sabha.
2. The Vice President takes oath only from president of India.
Codes
(a) Only 1 (b) Only 2
(c) 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2
Ans: (a)

---

468. Which one of the following is not a constitutional prerogative of the President of India?
(a) Returning an ordinary bill for reconsideration
(b) Returning a money bill for reconsideration
(c) Dissolving the Lok Sabha
(d) Appointing the Prime Minister
Ans: (b)

---

469. According to the Constitution of India, it is the duty of the President of India to cause to be laid before the Parliament which of the following?
1. The Recommendations of the Union Finance Commission.
2. The Report of the Public Accounts Committee.
3. The Report of the CAG.
4. The Report of the National Commission for scheduled castes.
Select the correct answer using the codes given below
(a) Only 1
(b) 2 and 4
(c) 1, 3 and 4
(d) 1, 2, 3 and 4
Ans: (c)

---

470. Who holds the power to appoint the nominees from Anglo-Indian Community in the Lok Sabha?
(a) Minorities Commission
(b) President of India
(c) Prime Minister
(d) Vice-President
Ans: (b)

---

471. Consider the following statements.
1. The president shall mark rules for the more convenient transaction of the business of the government of India and for the allocation amongministers of the said business.
2. All executive actions of the government of India shall be expressed to be taken in the name of the Prime Minister.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct.
(a) Only 1 (b) Only 2
(c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2
Ans: (a)

---

472. Which Article of the Indian Constitution prescribes eligibility conditions for re-election to the post of president of India?
(a) Article 52 (b) Article 54
(c) Article 55 (d) Article 57
Ans: (d)

---

473. Who has the right to seek advisory opinion of the Supreme Court of India, on any question of law?
(a) Prime Minister
(b) President
(c) Any Judge of the High Court
(d) All of the above
Ans: (b)

---

474. The vacancy of the office of the President of India must be filled up within
(a) 90 days
(b) 6 months
(c) 1 year
(d) within the period decided by the Parliament
Ans: (b)

---

475. Who among the following is/are appointed by the President of India?
1. Vice-Chairman of the Planning Commission.
2. Chairman of the Finance Commission.
3. Administrators of the Union Territories.
Select the correct answer by using the following codes
(a) 1 and 2 (b) 2 and 3
(c) 1 and 3 (d) Only 1
Ans: (a)

---

476. Under which one of the following Articles, the procedure for removal of the President of India through the process of impeachment has been laid down?
(a) Article-53 (b) Article-61
(c) Article-74 (d) Article-13
Ans: (b)

---

477. Which of the following is/are correct?
1. The President can only be impeached, if he violates the provisions of the Constitution.
2. The charge of impeachment against the President shall be preferred only in Lok Sabha.
Codes
(a) Only 1 (b) Only 2
(c) 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2
Ans: (c)

---

478. The power of the President to issue ordinance is a relic of
(a) Government of India Act, 1909
(b) Government of India Act, 1919
(c) Government of India Act, 1935
(d) Indian Independence Act, 1947
Ans: (b)

---

479. The authority to specify as to which castes shall be deemed to be Scheduled Castes rests with the
(a) Commission for Scheduled Castes and Tribes
(b) Prime Minister
(c) Governor of the State
(d) President
Ans: (d)

---

480. Which of the following statements relating to election as the President of India is/are correct?
1. A person above the age of 35 years is eligible for election as the President of India.
2. The President of India is eligible for re-election for more than one term.
3. A person is not eligible for election as the President of India if the person holds an office of profit.
Select the correct answer using the codes given below.
(a) 1 and 2 (b) Only 2
(c) 1, 2 and 3 (d) Only 3
Ans: (c)

---

481. Who among the following is appointed by the President?
(a) Attorney General of India
(b) Comptroller and Auditor General
(c) Governor of a State
(d) All of the above
Ans: (d)

---

482. Which of the following Presidents of India was associated with Trade Union Movement?
(a) V V Giri (b) N Sanjiva Reddy
(c) KR Narayanan (d) Zakir Hussain
Ans: (d)

---

483. Who amongst the following elects the Vice-President of India?
1. Members of Lok Sabha
2. Members of Rajya Sabha
3. Members of Legislative Assemblies
4. Members of Legislative Councils
Select the correct answer from the codes given below
(a) 1 and 2 (b) 1 and 3
(c) 1, 2 and 3 (d) All of these
Ans: (a)

---

484. Acting Chief Justice of the Supreme Court in India is appointed by the
(a) Chief Justice of Supreme Court
(b) Prime Minister
(c) President
(d) Law Minister
Ans: (c)

---

485. Who among the following have held the office of the Vice-President of India?
1. Mohammad Hidayatullah
2. Fakhruddin Ali Ahmad
3. Neelam Sanjiva Reddy
4. Shankar Dayal Sharma
Codes
(a) 1, 2, 3 and 4 (b) 1 and 4
(c) 2 and 3 (d) 3 and 4
Ans: (b)

---

486. The Electoral College which elects the President of India comprises of
1. elected members of both the Houses of Parliament
2. elected members of the both the Houses of State Legislatures
3. elected members of Legislative Assemblies of all the States
4. elected members of the Legislative Assemblies of Delhi and Puduchersy
Select the correct answer from the codes given below
(a) 1 and 3 (b) 1, 2 and 3
(c) 1, 3 and 4 (d) 2, 3 and 4
Ans: (c)

---

487. Who held the office of the Vice- President of India for two consecutive terms?
(a) Dr Radhakrishnan
(b) Mr R Venkataraman
(c) Dr Shankar Dayal Sharma
(d) Mr VV Giri
Ans: (a)

---

488. Which of the following is/are correct?
1. The Vice-President can be removed from his office on resolution by majority of Member of Rajya Sabha.
2. Resolution for the removal of Vice- President must be agreed upon by the Lok Sabha, but subject to 14 days notice regarding such resolution.
Codes
(a) Only 1 (b) Only 2
(c) 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2
Ans: (c)

---

489. Which one of the following statements regarding the Vice-President of India Officiating as President is correct?
(a) He shall continue to be Chairman of the Council of States
(b) He shall cease to be the Chairman of the Council of States
(c) He shall nominate the next-senior-most member of the house to be the Chairman of the Council of States
(d) None of the above
Ans: (b)

---

490. Consider the following statements
1. No formal impeachment is required for the removal of the Vice-President.
2. Dispute regarding election of the Vice-President is referred to the Election Commission.
Which of these statements is/are correct?
(a) Only 1 (b) Only 2
(c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2
Ans: (a)

---

491. Consider the following statements regarding the Vice-President of India
1. The Vice-President is elected by an electoral college consisting of all the members of the Both Houses of the Parliament.
2. The Constitution is silent about a person who is having the duties of the Vice-President during the period of vacancy.
Which of these statements is/are correct?
(a) Only 1 (b) Only 2
(c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2
Ans: (c)

---

492. Which of the following statements is/are not correct regarding the President of India?
1. The President enjoys personal immunity from legal liability for his official acts. During his termof office, he is immune from any civil proceedings, even in respect of his personal acts.
2. After giving two months notice, criminal proceedings can be instituted against him during his term of office.
3. The President can hold office beyond his term of five years until his successor assumes charge.
4. The President of India is not eligible for re-election.
Codes
(a) 1, 2 and 3 (b) 2, 3 and 4
(c) 1, 2 and 4 (d) All of these
Ans: (c)

---

493. Consider the following Vice- Presidents of India
1. VV Giri
2. GS Pathak
3. BD Jatti
4. M Hidayatullah Which one of the following is the correct chronology of their tenures?
(a) 1-2-3-4 (b) 2-1-3-4
(c) 2-1-4-3 (d) 1-2-4-3
Ans: (a)

---

494. Which one of the following statements is not correct?
(a) The Vice-President of India holds office for a period of five years
(b) The Vice-President of India can be removed by a simplemajority of votes passed in the Rajya Sabha only
(c) The Vice-President of India continues to be in office even after the expiry of his term till his successor takes over
(d) The Supreme Court of India has to take into all disputes with regard to the election of the Vice-President of India
Ans: (b)

---

495. Who has the right under the Constitution to seek the opinion of the Supreme Court on question of law?
(a) President
(b) Any High Court
(c) Prime Minister
(d) All of these
Ans: (a)

---

496. Which of the following statements about the Vice-President of India are not correct?
1. In order to be Vice-President a person must be qualified for election as a member of the House of the People.
2. A member of the State Legislative can seek election to that office.
3. The term of the office of the Vice-President is the same as that of the President.
4. He can be removed through a formal impeachment. Choose the correct answer from the codes given below
(a) 1 and 2 (b) 2 and 3
(c) 1 and 4 (d) 3 and 4
Ans: (c)

---

497. Consider the following statements about the powers of the President of India
1. The President can direct that any matter on which decision has been taken by a minister should be placed before the Council of Ministers.
2. The President can call all information relating to proposals for Legislation.
3. The President has the right to address and send messages to either House of the Parliament.
4. All decisions of the Council of Ministers relating to the administration of Union must be communicated to the President.
Which of the statements given above are correct?
(a) 1, 2 and 3 (b) 1 and
(c) 2 and 4 (d) 1, 2, 3 and 4
Ans: (d)

---

498. The resolution for removing the Vice-President of India can be moved in the
(a) Lok Sabha alone
(b) either House of Parliament
(c) joint sitting of Parliament
(d) Rajya Sabha alone
Ans: (d)

---

499. The salary of the President is
(a) fixed in the Constitution
(b) fixed by a lawmade by the Parliament
(c) it is mentioned in the Second Schedule of the Constitution
(d) All of the above
Ans: (c)

---

500. Who administers the oath of office to the President in the absence of Chief Justice of India?
(a) Vice-President
(b) Chief Justice of Delhi High Court
(c) Speaker of Lok Sabha
(d) Senior most Judge of the Supreme Court
Ans: (d)

---

501. Which of the following is not correctly matched?
(a) Election of President : Article 54
(b) Executive Power of Union : Article 53
(c) Manner of election of President : Article 57
(d) Impeachment of President : Article 61
Ans: (c)

---

502. The privileges of the President has been expressly provided in
(a) Article 54 (b) Article 56
(c) Article 361 (d) Article 363
Ans: (c)

---

503. The power to make treaties with other nations lies with
(a) the Parliament
(b) the Prime Minister of India
(c) the President of India
(d) None of the above
Ans: (c)

---

504. A person who has held office of the President
(a) is eligible for re-election to that office
(b) is eligible for re-election to that office subject to the other provisions of the Constitution
(c) is not eligible for re-election if he is impeached from his office
(d) None of the above
Ans: (a)

---

505. Which of the following are appointed by the President?
1. Judges of the High Court.
2. Lt. Governors of the Union Territories.
3. Vice-President.
4. Chief Election Commissioner.
Codes
(a) 1, 2 and 3 (b) 2, 3 and 4
(c) 1, 2 and 4 (d) 2 and 4
Ans: (c)

---

506. Which of the following protection has not been given to the President of India?
(a) No criminal proceedings whatsoever shall be instituted or continued against the President in any court during his term of office
(b) No civil proceedings whatsoever shall be instituted or continued against the President during his term of office
(c) No process for the arrest or imprisonment of the President shall be issued from any court during his term of office
(d) He is not answerable to any court for execution and performance of the powers and duties of his office or for any act done or purporting to be done by him in the exercise and performance of these powers and duties
Ans: (b)

---

507. Consider the following statements
1. All doubts and disputes in connection with election of the Vice-President are enquired into and decided by the Supreme Court whose decision is final.
2. The election of a person of Vice- President cannot be challenged on the ground that the electoral college was incomplete.
Codes
(a) Only 1 is correct
(b) Only 2 is correct
(c) Both 1 and 2 are correct
(d) Neither 1 nor 2 is correct
Ans: (a)

---

508. Which of the following statements relating to the office of the President of India are correct?
1. The President has the power to grant pardon to criminal in special cases.
2. The President can promulgate ordinances even when the Parliament is in session.
3. The President can dissolve Rajya Sabha during emergency.
4. The President has the power to nominate two members in the Lok Sabha from the Anglo Indian Community.
Select the correct answer using the codes given below.
(a) 1 and 2
(b) 1 and 4
(c) 3 and 4
(d) 1, 3 and 4
Ans: (b)

---

509. Which of the following statements/are correct?
1. The election of the Vice-President is held in accordance with the system of proportional representation by means of the single transferable vote.
2. The electoral college for the election of the Vice-President consists of both elected and nominated members of the Parliament.
3. The electoral college does not include the members of the Stage Legislative Assmblies.
Codes
(a) 1 and 2 (b) 2 and 3
(c) None of these (d) All of these
Ans: (d)

---

510. Consider the following statements
1. When a vacancy occurs in the office of the President due to his resignation, removal, death or otherwise, the Chief Justice of India acts as the President until a new President is elected.
2. If the office of the President falls vacant by resignation, removal, death or otherwise, then election to fill the vacancy should be held within six months from the date of the occurrence of such a vacancy.
Codes
(a) Only 1 is correct
(b) Only 2 is correct
(c) Both 1 and 2 are correct
(d) Neither 1 nor 2 is correct
Ans: (b)

---

511. Consider the following statements
1. The President can promulgate ordinances when the Parliament is not in session. These ordinances must be approved by the Parliament within sixmonths fromits reassembly.
2. He nominates 12 members of the Lok Sabha from amongst persons having special knowledge or practical experience in literature science, art and social service.
Codes
(a) Only 1 is correct
(b) Only 2 is correct
(c) Both 1 and 2 is correct
(d) Neither 1 nor 2 is correct
Ans: (d)

---

512. Which of the following does not fall into the category of executive functions of the President?
(a) He appoints the Prime Minister and the other ministers.
(b) He appoints the Attorney General of India and determines his remuneration.
(c) He can promulgate ordinances when the Parliament is not in session.
(d) He appoints the comptroller and Auditor General of India, the chief Election Commissioners and other Clection Commissioners.
Ans: (c)

---

513. Assertion (A) During the term of office no litigation can be instituted in any court of law against the President of India.
Reason (R) President’s Office is above the Constitution.
Codes
(a) Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A
(b) Both A and R are true but R is not a correct explanation of A
(c) A is true but R is false
(d) A is false but R is true
Ans: (c)

---

514. While dividing any question relating the disqualification of a member of Parliament, the President shall obtain the opinion of
(a) Chief Justice of India
(b) Election Commission of India
(c) Attorney General of India
(d) Speaker of Lok Sabha
Ans: (b)

---

Type 2. The Prime Minister and the Council of Ministers
515. The Prime Minister of India, at the time of his/her appointment
(a) need not necessarily be a member of one of the Houses of the Parliament but must become a member of one of the Houses within six months
(b) need not necessarily be a member of one of the houses of the Parliament but must become a member of the Lok Sabha within six months
(c) must be a member of one of the Houses of the Parliament
(d) must be a member of the Lok Sabha
Ans: (a)

---

516. Who among the following has not been Deputy Prime Minister of India?
1. Sardar Patel
2. Morarji Desai
3. Charan Singh and Jagjivan ram Jointly
4. YB Charan
5. Devi Lal
6. LK Advani
(a) 2,3,4 (b) 2,4,5
(c) 4 only (d) None of these
Ans: (c)

---

517. Which one of the following Prime Ministers never faced the Parliament during the tenure?
(a) Chandra Sekhar
(b) VP Singh
(c) Chaudhary Charan Singh
(d) Atal Behari Vajpayee
Ans: (c)

---

518. It was withdrawal of support by the Congress (I) which was responsible for the resignation of
(a) Charan Singh
(b) Chandra Shekhar
(c) HD Deve Gowda
(d) All of the above
Ans: (d)

---

519. The Council of Minister is collectively responsible to which of the following?
(a) Prime Minister (b) President
(c) Rajya Sabha (d) Lok Sabha
Ans: (d)

---

520. The office of the Deputy Prime Minister
(a) was created under the original Constitution
(b) is an extra-constitutional growth
(c) was created by 44th Amendment
(d) was created by 85th Amendment
Ans: (b)

---

521. How does participatory budgeting seek to make the functioning of local governance institutions more transparent and accountable?
1. By allowing citizens to deliberate and negotiate over the distribution of public resources.
2. By allowing citizens to play a direct role in deciding how and where resources should be spent.
3. By allowing historically excluded citizens with access to important decision-making venues.
Select the correct answer using the codes given below.
(a) 1 and 2
(b) 2 and 3
(c) Only 3
(d) 1, 2 and 3
Ans: (c)

---

522. The Union Ministers hold office during the pleasure of
(a) the President
(b) the Prime Minister
(c) the Chief Justice of the Supreme Court of India
(d) the Speaker of the Lok Sabha
Ans: (a)

---

523. What is the tenure of the Prime Minister of India?
(a) Conterminous with the tenure of the Lok Sabha
(b) Conterminous with the tenure of the President
(c) As long as he enjoys the support of a majority in the Lok Sabha
(d) Five Years
Ans: (c)

---

524. In the context of India, which of the following principles is/are implied institutionally in the parliamentary government?
1. Members of the Cabinet are Members of the Parliament.
2. Ministers hold the office till they enjoy confidence in the Parliament.
3. Cabinet is headed by the Head of the State.
Select the correct answer using the codes given below
(a) 1 and 2
(b) Only 3
(c) 2 and 3
(d) All of the above
Ans: (a)

---

525. Consider the following statements
1. The resignation of the Prime Minister means the resignation of the whole Council of Ministers.
2. It is on the advice of Prime Minister that the President summons and prorogues Parliament and dissolve the Lok Sabha.
Which of these statements are correct?
(a) Only 1 (b) Only 2
(c) 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2
Ans: (c)

---

526. Who among the following is the Chairman of the National Integration Council?
(a) The President
(b) The Vice- President
(c) The Prime Minister
(d) The Chief Justice of India
Ans: (c)

---

527. Who was the Prime Minister of India when the Anti-Defection Bill was passed?
(a) Indira Gandhi (b) Rajiv Gandhi
(c) VP Singh (d) HD Deve Gowda
Ans: (b)

---

528. Who of the following became Prime Minister of India without becoming a Union Cabinet Minister?
(a) Chaudhary Charan Singh
(b) HD Deve Gowda
(c) Morarji Desai (d) IK Gujral
Ans: (b)

---

529. Who was the first Deputy Prime Minister of India?
(a) LK Advani (b) Morarji Desai
(c) Charan Singh
(d) Sardar Vallabhbhai Patel
Ans: (d)

---

530. Who among the following Indian Prime Ministers resigned before facing a vote of no-confidence in the Lok Sabha?
(a) Chandra Sekhar
(b) Morarji Desai
(c) Chaudhary Charan Singh
(d) V P Singh
Ans: (c)

---

531. Which one of the following is not a department in the Ministry of Human Resource Development?
(a) Department of Elementary Education and Literacy
(b) Department of Secondary Education and Higher Education
(c) Department of Technical Education
(d) Department of Woman and Child Development
Ans: (d)

---

532. Consider the following statements
1. Jawaharlal Nehru was in his fourth term as Prime Minister of India at the time of his death.
2. Jawaharlal Nehru represented Rai Bareilly constituency as a Member of Parliament.
3. The first non-Congress PrimeMinister of India assumed the office in the year 1977.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a) Only 1 (b) Only 3
(c) 1 and 2 (d) 1 and 3
Ans: (d)

---

533. The number of Lok Sabha members who can table a ‘No Confidence Motion’ against the Council of Ministers is
(a) 30 (b) 40
(c) 50 (d) 60
Ans: (c)

---

534. The Council of Ministers has to resign if a no-confidence motion is passed by a majority of members of
(a) Lok Sabha
(b) Rajya Sabha
(c) Both the houses separately
(d) Both the houses in joint sitting
Ans: (a)

---

535. The Council of Ministers does not include
(a) Cabinet Ministers
(b) Ministers of State
(c) Ministers without Portfolio
(d) Cabinet Secretary
Ans: (d)

---

536. Who was the Defence Minister of India during the Indo-China War of 1962?
(a) RN Thapar
(b) Govind Ballabh Pant
(c) VK Krishna Menon
(d) Jagjivan Ram
Ans: (c)

---

537. With reference to the Constitution of India, consider the following statements
1. The Council of Ministers of the Union are responsible to Both the Houses of Parliament.
2. The President of India cannot appoint any one as Union Minister not recommended by Prime Minister.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a) Only 1
(b) Only 2
(c) 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
Ans: (b)

---

538. Who is called the Father of Indian Economic Reform?
(a) Jawaharlal Nehru (b) Indira Gandhi
(c) Manmohan Singh
(d) None of the above
Ans: (c)

---

539. In which one of the following Ministries, the Census Organisation has been functioning on a permanent footing since 1961?
(a) Home Affairs
(b) Health and Family Welfare
(c) Human Resource Development
(d) Social Justice and Empowerment
Ans: (a)

---

540. The Union Executive of India consists of
(a) The President, Vice-President and the Council of Ministers only
(b) The President and the Council of Ministers only
(c) The President, the Vice-President, the Council of Ministers and Lok Sabha Speaker
(d) The President, The Prime Minister, Deputy Chairman of Rajya Sabha and Lok Sabha Speaker
Ans: (b)

---

541. Which one of the following provisions of the Indian Constitution deals with the appointment and dismissal of the Council of Ministers?
(a) Article 70 (b) Article 72
(c) Article 74 (d) Article 75
Ans: (d)

---

542. If the Finance Minister fails to get the Annual Budget passed in the Lok Sabha, the Prime Minister is expected to
(a) compel the FinanceMinister to resign
(b) submit the resignation of his/her cabinet
(c) refer it to the Joint Session of both the Houses of Parliament
(d) form another cabinet with different members
Ans: (b)

---

543. Who was the first Foreign Minister of free India?
(a) Jawaharlal Nehru
(b) Gulzari Lal Nanda
(c) Lal Bahadur Shastri
(d) John Mathni
Ans: (a)

---

544. Under which one of the Ministries of the Government of India does the Food and Nutrition Board work?
(a) Ministry of Agriculture
(b) Ministry of Health and FamilyWelfare
(c) Ministry of Human Resource Development
(d) Ministry of Rural Development
Ans: (c)

---

545. Archaeological Survey of India is an attached office of the Department/ Ministry of
(a) Culture (b) Tourism
(c) Science and Technology
(d) Human Resource Development
Ans: (a)

---

546. Assertion (A) The Council of Ministers in the Union of India is collectively responsible to the Lok Sabha.
Reason (R) The member of both the Lok Sabha and the Rajya Sabha are eligible to be the Ministers of the Union Government.
Codes
(a) Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A
(b) Both A and R are true, but R is not a correct explanation of A
(c) A is true, but R is false
(d) A is false, but R is true
Ans: (b)

---

547. Who among the following have been the Union Finance Minister of India?
1. VP Singh
2. R Venkataraman
3. YB Chavan
4. Pranab Mukherjee
Select the correct answer by using the codes given below
(a) 1, 2 and 3 (b) 1, 3 and 4
(c) 2 and 4 (d) 1, 2, 3 and 4
Ans: (d)

---

548. With reference to Union Government, consider the following statements
1. The number of Ministers at the Centre on 15th August, 1947 was 18.
2. The number of Ministers at the Centre at present is 48.
Which of the statement(s) is/are correct?
(a) Only 1
(b) Only 2
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
Ans: (a)

---

549. Which one of the following Constitutional Amendment Acts seeks that the size of the Council of Ministers at the Centre and in a State must not exceed 15% of the total number of members in the Lok Sabha and the total number of members of the Legislative Assembly of that state respectively?
(a) 91st (b) 93rd
(c) 95th (d) 97th
Ans: (a)

---

550. If at the time of the election of the President, some seats are vacant in any House of Parliament and in any State Legislature, that makes the election of the President
(a) valid (b) invalid
(c) invalid, if in any state there is no assembly existing
(d) valid, though in election, the new members can cast their votes
Ans: (a)

---

551. Under the administration of which one of the following is the Department of Atomic Energy?
(a) Prime Minister’s Office
(b) Cabinet Secretary
(c) Ministry of Power
(d) Ministry of Science and Technology
Ans: (a)

---

552. Which Articles of the Constitution are relevant to analyse the Constitutional provisions that deal the relationship of the President with the Council of Ministers?
(a) Articles 71, 75 and 78
(b) Articles 74, 75 and 78
(c) Articles 73, 74 and 78
(d) Articles 73, 75 and 78
Ans: (b)

---

553. Which of the following is/are the function/functions of the Cabinet Secretariat?
1. Preparation of aganda for Cabinet Meetings
2. Secretarial assistance to Cabinet Committees
3. Allocation of financial resources to the Ministries
Select the correct answer using the codes
(a) Only 1 (b) 2 and 3
(c) 1 and 2 (d) 1, 2 and 3
Ans: (c)

---

554. Who among the following is the first Prime Minister to lose an election?
(a) Indira Gandhi
(b) Rajiv Gandhi
(c) AB Vajpayee
(d) Manmohan Singh
Ans: (a)

---

555. Who among the following prime Ministers of India were defeated by a vote of no confidence?
1. Morarji Desai
2. Viswanath Prathap Singh
3. HD Deva Gowda
4. Atal Bihari Vajpayee
Select the correct answer using the codes given below.
(a) 1, 2, 3 and 4 (b) 1, 2 and 3
(c) 2, 3 and 4 (d) 1 and 4
Ans: (c)

---

556. Which of the following statement regarding comparision between Indian and American President is/are correct?
1. Indian President’s term is 5 year whereas for American President it in 4 year.
2. Indian President may be re-elected for many times but US President can’t function for more than 2-terms.
(a) 1 Only (b) 2 Only
(c) Both 1 and 2 (d) None
Ans: (c)

---

557. Who among the following was/were Chief Minister before becoming Prime Minister
1. Morarji Desai
2. Charan Singh
3. VP Singh
4. PV Narsimha Rao
5. HD Deve Gowda 6. Narendra Modi
(a) 1,2,3,4,6 (b) 2,4,6
(c) 1,2,3,6 (d) All of these
Ans: (d)

---

558. Which of the following veto is/are used by President of India?
1. Absolute veto 2. suspensive veto
3. Pocket veto 4. Qualified veto
(a) 2, 3, 4 (b) 2 and 3
(c) 1, 2, 3 (d) 1, 2, 3, 4
Ans: (c)

---

559. Consider the following statements
1. The President shall make rules for the more convenient transaction of the business of the Government of India and for the allocation amongMinisters of the said business.
2. All executive actions of the Government of India shall be expressed to be taken in the name of the Prime Minister.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a) Only 1 (b) Only 2
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
Ans: (b)

---

560. The President selects as Prime Minister
1. the leader of the party in majority in Lok Sabha.
2. any one he wishes to.
3. the person who is in a position to win the confidence of the majority in Lok Sabha.
4. The leader of the party having a majority of seats in either Lok Sabha or Rajya Sabha.
Codes
(a) Only 1 (b) 1 and 3
(c) 2 and4 4 (d) 1, 3 and 4
Ans: (b)

---

Part 7 The Union Legislature
Type 1. The Parliament
561. Which of the following fall within the financial powers of the Indian Parliament?
1. The Parliament can reduce or reject the demands of the Government.
2. The Parliament can propose any tax.
3. No expenditure can be incurred without the sanction of the Parliament.
4. No taxes can be levied without the consent of the Parliament. Choose the right answer from the codes given below.
Codes
(a) 1, 3 and 4
(b) 2, 3 and 4
(c) 2, 3 and 4
(d) 1, 2 and 3
Ans: (a)

---

562. Questions of disqualification of member of the Parliament have to be decided by
(a) the Election Commission, in consultation with the Speaker of the Lok Sabha
(b) the Speaker or the Chairman of the respective House in consultation with the Election Commission
(c) the President, according to the opinion of the Election Commission
(d) the Supreme Court
Ans: (c)

---

563. The Constitution provides that a House of Parliament may declare a seat vacant
1. in the case of a member who is guilty of breach of privilege of the House.
2. in the case of a member who has been absent for 60 days without the permission of the House.
3. if a member resigns. Choose the right answer from the codes given below.
(a) 1 and 2 (b) Only 2
(c) 1, 2 and 3 (d) Only 1
Ans: (c)

---

564. Consider the following statements regarding the Parliament
1. The provision for the calling Attention Notices was first made in the year 1954.
2. Notices of calling Attention have to be given by members in writing by 10:00 am.
3. A member can give not more than one calling Attention Notice for any one sitting
Which of the above statements is not correct?
(a) 1 and 2
(b) Only 2
(c) Only 3
(d) None of the above
Ans: (a)

---

565. In a parliamentary democracy, the
(a) Executive controls the Legislature
(b) Executive and Legislature are strictly separate
(c) Judiciary controls both Legislature and Executive
(d) Legislature controls the Executive
Ans: (d)

---

566. Where was the first Parliamentary form of Government formed?
(a) Britain (b) Belgium
(c) France (d) Switzerland
Ans: (a)

---

567. The Parliament can legislate on the subjects in the State List if the
(a) President issues an order authorising it to do so
(b) Supreme Court gives authority to the Parliament in this regard
(c) Rajya Sabha passes a resolution by two-third of its members present and voting, declaring it expedient to legislate on a state matter in the national interest
(d) Primeminister issues a special order
Ans: (c)

---

568. Secretariat of Parliament of India is
(a) UnderMinister of Parliamentary Affairs
(b) Under President
(c) Independent of the Government
(d) Under the Supreme Court
Ans: (a)

---

569. With reference to the delimitation Commission, consider the following statements
1. The orders of the delimitation commission cannot be challenged in a court of law.
2. When the orders of the delimitation commission are laid before the Lok Sabha or State Legislative Assembly, they cannot effect any modifications in the orders.
Which of the above statements is/are correct?
(a) Only 1 (b) Only 2
(c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2
Ans: (c)

---

570. Privilege motion can be raised-against a Minister when he
(a) loses confidence in the government
(b) absents himself for a long time
(c) withholds facts of a case or gives a distorted versions of facts
(d) avoids collective responsibility of the cabinet
Ans: (c)

---

571. Which non-member can participate in the business of either House of Parliament?
(a) The Vice-President
(b) The Solicitor General
(c) The Attorney-General
(d) The Chief Justice of India
Ans: (c)

---

572. The Union Budget is laid before the two Houses of Parliament in accordance with Article Number of Indian Constitution
(a) 73 (b) 112 (c) 360 (d) 370
Ans: (b)

---

573. Who is considered as the Guardian of the Public Purse?
(a) Parliament
(b) Comptroller and Auditor General
(c) Public Accounts Committee
(d) The President
Ans: (b)

---

574. All moneys matters received by or on behalf of the Government of India are credited to
1. the Consolidated Fund of India.
2. the Public Account of India.
3. the Contingency Fund of India. Choose the right answer from the codes given below.
(a) 1, 2 and 3 (b) 1 and 3
(c) Only 2 (d) 1 and 2
Ans: (c)

---

575. Parliament is empowered to get the following removal
1. Comptroller and Auditor General
2. Supreme Court judges
3. Chairman of UPSC
4. High Court judges Choose the right answer from the codes given below.
Codes
(a) 1, 2, 3 and 4 (b) 1, 2 and 4
(c) 2 and 4 (d) 1 and 2
Ans: (b)

---

576. Besides representation, the Parliament of India is also a deliberative body with diverse functions.Which one among the following is not a function of the Parliament of India?
(a) Ventilating the grievances of the people
(b) Executing major policy decisions
(c) Holding the government accountable for its actions and expenditure
(d) Amending the Constitution
Ans: (c)

---

577. Which of the following are a function of Parliament in India?
1. Providing the Cabinet and holding them responsible.
2. Critically analysing government policy.
3. Grievance ventilation.
4. Securing relevant information on government.
Codes
(a) 1, 2, 3 and 4 (b) 1, 2 and 4
(c) 2, 3 and 4 (d) 1, 2 and 3
Ans: (a)

---

578. Sovereignty of Indian Parliament is restricted by
(a) Powers of the President of India
(b) Judicial review
(c) Leader of the opposition
(d) Powers of the Prime Minister of India
Ans: (b)

---

579. A proclamation of emergency must be placed before the Parliament for its approval
(a) within 1 month (b) within 2 months
(c) within 6 months (d) within 1 year
Ans: (a)

---

580. The Indian Parliament consists of
(a) Lok Sabha only
(b) Lok Sabha and the President
(c) Rajya Sabha and Lok Sabha
(d) the President, Rajya Sabha and Lok Sabha
Ans: (d)

---

581. The quorum of Rajya Sabha and Lok Sabha is
(a) 1/5th of the total membership
(b) 1/6th of the total membership
(c) 1/8th of the total membership
(d) 1/10th of the total membership
Ans: (d)

---

582. Which of the following are means by which Parliament controls the financial system?
1. Parliament has to authorise the levy or collection of any tax.
2. Money can be withdrawn from the Consolidated Fund of India only if Parliament sanctions it.
3. Through the financial committees that scrutinise Government expenditure.
4. It causes the Budget to be laid before it every year. Choose the right answer from the codes given below.
Codes
(a) 1, 2, 3 and 4 (b) 1 and 2
(c) 2, 3 and 4 (d) 1, 2 and 3
Ans: (a)

---

583. Which of the following statement is correct?
(a) the presiding officer of the Rajya Sabha is elected every year.
(b) the presiding officer of the Rajya Sabha is elected for a term of 5 years.
(c) the presiding officer of the Rajya Sabha is elected for a term of 6 years.
(d) the Vice-President of India is the ex-officio presiding officer of the Rajya Sabha.
Ans: (d)

---

584. In the removal of which of the following officials does the Parliament play no role?
1. Chairman of the Union Public Service Commission.
2. Judges of the High Courts.
3. Judges of the Supreme Court.
4. Comptroller and Auditor General of India.
Codes
(a) Only 1 (b) 2, 3 and 4
(c) l and 2 (d) Only 3
Ans: (a)

---

585. When a Bill is referred to a joint sitting of both the Houses of the Parliament, it has be passed by
(a) a simple majority of members present and voting
(b) three-fouths majority of members present and voting
(c) two-thirds majority of the Houses
(d) absolute majority of the Houses
Ans: (a)

---

586. How are legislative excesses of Parliament and State Assemblies checked?
(a) Intervention from President/Governor
(b) No-confidence motions
(c) Judicial review (d) General elections
Ans: (c)

---

587. What can be the maximum interval between two sessions of Parliament?
(a) 3 months (b) 4 months
(c) 6 months (d) 9 months
Ans: (c)

---

588. Which of the following statements is/are correct regarding the power of parliament to punish individuals for its contempt?
1. The power of Lok Sabha to punish an individual for its contempt shall be exercsised during the tenure of the Lok Sabha only, against which the offence of contempt is alleged to have been committed.
2. Each house of Parliament has a privilege committee consisting of the members of the house.
3. The quantum of punishment is a determination of parliament.
Select the correct answer for the codes gives below.
(a) Only 2 (b) 1 and 2
(c) 1 and 3 (d) 2 and 3
Ans: (d)

---

589. Who among the following was the first tribal speaker of Lok Sabha?
(a) GV Mavalankar (b) GMC Balayogi
(c) Manohar Joshi (d) PA Sangma
Ans: (d)

---

590. The most important feature of the Indian Parliament is that
(a) it is the Union Legislature in India
(b) it also comprises of the President
(c) it is bicameral in nature
(d) the Upper House of the Parliament is never dissolved
Ans: (b)

---

591. Which functionary can be invited to give his opinion in the Parliament?
(a) Attorney-General of India
(b) Chief Justice of India
(c) Chief Election Commissioner of India
(d) Comptroller and Auditor General of India
Ans: (a)

---

592. Who said, ‘‘Parliamentary system provides a daily as well as a periodic assessment of the Government’’?
(a) BR Ambedkar (b) BN Rau
(c) Jawaharlal Nehru
(d)Rajendra Prasad
Ans: (a)

---

593. Japan’s Parliament is known as
(a) Diet (b) Dail (c) Yuan (d) Shora
Ans: (a)

---

594. Indian Parliament consists of
(a) Lok Sabha and Rajya Sabha
(b) Lok Sabha, Rajya Sabha and Prime Minister
(c) Speaker and Lok Sabha
(d) President and Both the Houses
Ans: (d)

---

595. Consider the following statements
1. The Constitution of India empowers the Parliament to form new states and to alter the areas, boundaries or names of existing states by passing a resolution in simple majority.
2. Jammu and Kashmir has been given special status under Article-370 of the Constitution of India.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a) Only 1 (b) Only 2
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
Ans: (c)

---

596. With reference to Indian Parliament, consider the following statements
1. A member of Lok Sabha can not be arrested by police under any case when the Parliament is in session.
2. Members of Indian Parliament have the privilege of exemption from attendance as witnesses in the law courts.
Which of these statements is/are correct?
(a) Only 1
(b) Only 2
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
Ans: (c)

---

597. An Appropriation Bill
1. is necessary to draw money from the Consolidated Funds of India.
2. cannot be amended to vary the amount of any charged expenditure
3. includes only the expenditure charged on the Consolidated Funds of India
4. is required to withdraw money from the Contingency Fund of India
Codes
(a) 1 and 3 (b) 1, 2 and 3
(c) 1 and 2 (d) 1, 2, 3 and 4
Ans: (c)

---

598. Which of the following has the powers to create a new All India Service?
(a) Parliament
(b) Union Public Service Commission
(c) Union Cabinet
(d) Ministry of Personnel, Public Grievances and Pensions
Ans: (a)

---

599. Consider the following statements
1. The expenditure to be incurred by the Government and the revenue to be collected by way of taxes must be approved by both the Lok Sabha and the Rajya Sabha.
2. The charge of impeachment against the President of India can be brought out by any House of the Parliament.
Which of the statement(s) given above is/are correct?
(a) Only 1 (b) Only 2
(c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2
Ans: (c)

---

600. Which of the following are the circumstances under which an elected member of Parliament may be disqualified on the ground of defection?
1. If he voluntarily gives up his membership of a political party. 2 If he votes or abstains from voting contrary to any direction issued by his political party without prior permission of the political party.
3. If he is expelled by the party for anti-party activities.
4. If he joins a political party other than the party on whose ticket he contested and got elected.
Select the correct answer from the codes given below.
(a) 1, 2, 3 and 4 (b) 1, 2 and 4
(c) 1, 3 and 4 (d) 2, 3 and 4
Ans: (b)

---

601. Which one of the following is responsible for the preparation and presentation of Union Budget to the Parliament?
(a) Department of Revenue
(b) Department of Economic Affairs
(c) Department of Financial Services
(d) Department of Expenditure
Ans: (b)

---

602. Consider the following statements
1. The Chairman and the Deputy Chairman of the Rajya Sabha are not the members of that House.
2. While the nominated members of the two Houses of the Parliament have no voting right in the presidential election, they have the Right to Vote in the election of the Vice-President.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a) Only 1 (b) Only 2
(c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2
Ans: (b)

---

603. The Constitution of India provides that a Bill passed by the Union Parliament cannot become a law until the President accords his approval to it. Normally, the President accords his approval but he can withhold his assent and can ask the House to reconsider it. This power is applicable to the
1. Money Bills 2. Ordinary Bills
3. Financial Bills
Codes
(a) 1 and 2
(b) Only 2
(c) 2 and 3
(d) 1, 2 and 3
Ans: (b)

---

604. The Parliament can make any law for the whole or any part of India for implementing International treaties
(a) with the consent of all the State
(b) with the consent of the majority of States
(c) with the consent of the States concerned
(d) without the consent of any State
Ans: (d)

---

605. Which one of the following bills must be passed by each House of the Indian Parliament separately by special majority?
(a) Ordinary Bill
(b) Money Bill
(c) Finance Bill
(d) Constitutional Amendment Bill
Ans: (d)

---

606. Who of the following shall cause every recommendation made by the Finance Commission to be laid before each House of Parliament?
(a) The President of India
(b) The Speaker of Lok Sabha
(c) The Prime Minister of India
(d) The Union Finance Minister
Ans: (a)

---

607. In what ways does the Indian Parliament exercise control over the administration?
(a) Through Parliamentary Committees
(b) Through Consultative Committees of various ministers
(c) By making the administrations send periodic reports
(d) By compelling the executive to issue writs
Ans: (a)

---

608. With regard to the powers of the Rajya Sabha, which one among the following statements is not correct?
(a) A Money Bill cannot be introduced in the Rajya Sabha
(b) The Rajya Sabha has no power either to reject or amend a Money bill
(c) The Rajya sabha cannot discuss the Annual Financial statement
(d) The Rajya Sabha has no power to vote on the Demands for grants
Ans: (b)

---

609. Assertion (A) Under Article-368 the parliament can amend any part of the constitution.
Reason (R) The Parliament is the Supreme Legislative body elected by the people of India. Choose the correct answer using the codes given below
(a) Both A and R are correct and R is the correct explanation of A
(b) Both A and R are correct, but R is not the correct explanation of A
(c) A is true, but R is false
(d) A is false, but R is correct
Ans: (a)

---

610. Which Union Territories are represented in Rajya Sabha at present?
I. Delhi 2. Puducherry 3. Lakshadweep 4. Chandigarh Choose the right answer from the codes given below.
Codes
(a) 1, 2 and 4 (b) 2 and 3
(c) 1, 2, 3 and 4 (d) 1 and 2
Ans: (d)

---

611. The members of the Rajya Sabha are
(a) elected indirectly
(b) mostly nominated
(c) elected directly as well as indirectly
(d) elected by the members of the Legislative Assemblies and Legislative Councils of States
Ans: (a)

---

612. Who is competent to dissolve the Rajya Sabha?
(a) The Chairman, Rajya Sabha
(b) The President
(c) The Joint Session of Parliament
(d) None of the above
Ans: (d)

---

613. Which of the following states sends the maximum number of members to the Rajya Sabha?
(a) Uttar Pradesh (b) Bihar
(c) West Bengal (d) All equal
Ans: (a)

---

614. What will follow, if a Money Bill is substantially amended by the Rajya Sabha?
(a) The Lok Sabha may still proceed with the bill, accepting or not accepting the recommendations of the Rajya Sabha
(b) The Lok Sabha cannot consider the bill further
(c) The Lok Sabha may send the bill to the Rajya Sabha for reconsideration
(d) The President may call a joint sitting for passing the bill
Ans: (a)

---

615. Rajya Sabha enjoys more power than the Lok Sabha in the case of
(a) Money Bills (b) Non money Bills
(c) Setting up of new All India Services
(d) None of the above
Ans: (c)

---

616. Which one of the following is presided over by one who is not its member?
(a) Vidhan Sabha
(b) Council of Ministers
(c) Lok Sabha (d) Rajya Sabha
Ans: (d)

---

617. Which of the following special powers have been conferred on the Rajya Sabha by the Constitution of India?
(a) To change the existing territory of a State and to change the name of the State
(b) To pass a resolution empowering the Parliament to make laws in the State List and to create one or more All India Services
(c) To amend the election procedure of the President and to determine the pension of the President after his / her retirement
(d) To determine the functions of the Election Commission and to determine the number of Election Commissioners
Ans: (b)

---

618. In the Rajya Sabha, the States have been given seats
(a) in accordance with their population
(b) equally
(c) on the basis of population and economic position
(d) on the basis of present economic status
Ans: (a)

---

619. Rajya Sabha can delay the Finance Bill sent for its consideration by the Lok Sabha for a maximum period of
(a) one year (b) one month
(c) fourteen days (d) seven days
Ans: (c)

---

620. Which one of the following states has the lowest number of elected members in the Rajya Sabha?
(a) Jharkhand (b) Chhattisgarh
(c) Jammu and Kashmir
(d) Himachal Pradesh
Ans: (d)

---

621. The resolution for the removal of the Vice- President of India can be proposed in
(a) Lok Sabha only
(b) Rajya Sabha only
(c) Joint Session of Parliament
(d) any House of Parliament
Ans: (b)

---

622. What is the fixed strength of Rajya Sabha?
(a) 210 (b) 220 (c) 230 (d) 250
Ans: (d)

---

623. Consider the following statements with respect to qualification to become the member of Rajya Sabha and select the correct answer from the codes given below He/She
1. Should be at least 30 years of age.
2. Should be registered as a voter on the list of voters in the State from which the candidates is to be elected.
3. should not hold office of profit under the State.
Codes
(a) 1 and 2 are correct
(b) 1 and 3 are correct
(c) 2 and 3 are correct
(d) 1, 2 and 3 are correct
Ans: (b)

---

624. Which of the following statements regarding Rajya Sabha is/are correct?
1. The maximum permissible strength of Rajya Sabha is 250.
2. In Rajya Sabha 238 members are elected indirectly from the states and union territories.
3. It shares legislative powers equally with Lok Sabha in matters such as creation of All India Services.
Select the correct answer using the codes given below
(a) 1 and 2 (b) 1, 2 and 3
(c) 2 and 3 (d) Only 1
Ans: (a)

---

(ii) Lok Sabha (The House of the People)
A. Parliament
625. When a Bill is referred to joint sitting of both the Houses of the Parliament, it has be passed by
(a) a simple majority of members present and voting.
(b) three-fourths majority of members present and voting.
(c) two-thirds majority of the houses.
(d) absolute majority of the houses.
Ans: (a)

---

626. Which one of the following provisions deals with the privileges and immunities of the members of parliament under the constitution of India?
(a) Article-104 (b) Article-105
(c) Article-82 (d) Article-117
Ans: (b)

---

627. Consider the following statements regarding the ‘question hour’ in the Indian Parliament
1. Unless the Chairman of Rajya Sabha otherwise the Speaker of Lok Sabha directs the first hour of every sitting of Rajya Sabha is for asking and answering question.
2. Starred questions are answered orally and a supplementary questions are allowed in it.
3. Speaker of Lok Sabha or Chairman of Rajya Sabha is authorized to decide if the question asked should be answered orally or written.
4. One member of Parliament can ask only three starred questions in a day. Which of statements given above are correct?
(a) 1 and 2 (b) 1 and 3
(c) 2 and 3 (d) 3 and 4
Ans: (b)

---

628. Which of the following offices have been provided by the Constitution?
1. Deputy Speaker of Lok Sabha
2. Deputy Chairman of Rajya Sabha
3. Deputy Speaker of Legislative Assembly
4. Deputy Prime Minister
Codes
(a) 1, 2 and 3 (b) Only 2
(c) 1 and 2 (d) 1, 2, 3 and 4
Ans: (a)

---

629. If the Speaker of the Lok Sabha wants to resign, he is required to send his resignation letter to the
(a) Prime Minister (b) Deputy Speaker
(c) President
(d) Parliament Secretariat
Ans: (b)

---

630. Which one of the following is the largest (area-wise) Lok Sabha Constituency?
(a) Kangra (b) Ladakh
(c) Kachchh (d) Bhilwara
Ans: (b)

---

631. Which one of the following States has the highest number of reserve seats for the Scheduled Tribes in the Lok Sabha?
(a) Bihar (b) Uttar Pradesh
(c) Madhya Pradesh (d) Gujarat
Ans: (c)

---

632. The State of Uttar Pradesh accounts for
(a) 60 Lok Sabha seats
(b) 70 Lok Sabha seats
(c) 80 Lok Sabha seats
(d) 90 Lok Sabha seats
Ans: (b)

---

633. The Speaker of the Lok Sabha may resign his office by writing, addressed to the
(a) President of India
(b) Prime Minister of India
(c) Vice-President of India
(d) Deputy Speaker of Lok Sabha
Ans: (d)

---

634. Money Bill
1. cannot be introduced in the Council of States.
2. needs to be certified as such by the Speaker.
3. can be amended by the Council of States.
4. President has to assent itwithout delay.
Codes
(a) 1, 2, 3 and 4 (b) 1, 2 and 4
(c) 2, 3 and 4 (d) 2 and 4
Ans: (b)

---

635. Representatives of Union Territories in Lok Sabha are chosen by
(a) direct Election (b) indirect election
(c) nomination (d) All of these
Ans: (a)

---

636. Out of 543 Lok Sabha constituencies, how many Lok Sabha constituencies are from the States?
(a) 525 (b) 528 (c) 530 (d) 532
Ans: (c)

---

637. The 84th Amendment Act has frozen the total number of existing seats in the Lok Sabha on the basis of 1971 Census. They shall remain unaltered till the first Census to be taken after the year
(a) 2010 (b) 2015 (c) 2021 (d) 2026
Ans: (d)

---

638. The Speaker of the Lok Sabha can be removed by
(a) a resolution of the Lok Sabha passed by a majority of the members of the House
(b) two-third majority of the members of the House
(c) order of the President
(d) simple majority of the Parliament
Ans: (a)

---

639. The first female Speaker of Lok Sabha is
(a) Vijay Laxmi Pandit
(b) Sucheta Kripalani
(c) Tarkeshwari Sinha
(d) Meira Kumar
Ans: (d)

---

640. The Opposition Party status is accorded to a political party in the Lok Sabha only if it captures at least
(a) 5% seats (b) 10% seats
(c) 15% seats (d) 20% seats
Ans: (b)

---

641. A member of Lok Sabha does not become disqualified to continue as a member of the house if the member
(a) voluntarily gives up his/her membership of the political party from which he/she was elected
(b) is expelled by the political party from which he/she had been elected to the house.
(c) joins a political party after being elected as an independent candidate.
(d) abstains from voting contrary to the direction by his/her political party.
Ans: (b)

---

642. In the Lok Sabha, unless there is a quorum, the Speaker should not conduct the proceedings. To ensure this
(a) the Speaker usually counts the heads at the beginning of everyday’s first session
(b) the Parliamentary Secretariat keeps a watch on the attendance in the House and informs the Speaker
(c) the attendance register kept at the entrance is monitered
(d) the Speaker relies only on the members to bring to his notice the lack or a quorum
Ans: (b)

---

643. Union Budget is always presented first in
(a) the Lok Sabha
(b) the Rajya Sabha
(c) joint session of the Parliament
(d) meeting of the Union Cabinet
Ans: (a)

---

644. What is the fix number of members of Lok Sabha?
(a) 444 (b) 541 (c) 543 (d) 545
Ans: (d)

---

645. According to the Article-82 of the Constitution of India, the allocation of seats in Lok Sabha to the States is on the basis of the…………….census.
(a) 1961 (b) 1971 (c) 1981 (d) 1991
Ans: (b)

---

646. Which House is better placed with regard to control over the executive?
(a) Lok Sabha (b) Rajya Sabha
(c) Both are equally placed
(d) It depends from which House the Prime Minister comes
Ans: (a)

---

647. Consider the following statements
1. The President of India Shall have the power to appoint and remove the speaker of Lok Sabha.
2. The speaker has to discharge the functions of his offices himself throughout his term and cannot delegate his functions to the Deputy Speaker during his absence from the station or during his illness.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a) Only 1 (b) Only 2
(c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2
Ans: (d)

---

648. The first mid-term elections for Lok Sabha were held in
(a) 1962 (b) 1971 (c) 1977 (d) 1980
Ans: (b)

---

649. Which are the two states (other than UP) having the highest representation in Lok Sabha?
(a) Maharashtra and Andhra Pradesh
(b) Tamil Nadu and Bihar
(c) Bihar and West Bengal
(d) Karnataka and Madhya Pradesh
Ans: (a)

---

650. As per the Constitution of India, how many members are represented by the Union Territories in the Lok Sabha?
(a) 18 (b) 20
(c) 22 (d) 24
Ans: (b)

---

651. The Speaker’s vote in the Lok Sabha is called
(a) casting vote (b) sound vote
(c) direct vote (d) indirect vote
Ans: (a)

---

652. Who among the following was the member of Lok Sabha during his Prime Ministership?
(a) Deve Gowda
(b) IK Gujral
(c) Chandrashekhar
(d) Dr. Manmohan Singh
Ans: (c)

---

653. The maximum strength of the Lok Sabha, as stipulated in the Constitution of India, is
(a) 500 (b) 525
(c) 550 (d) 552
Ans: (d)

---

654. What could be the maximum time limit of ‘Zero Hour’?
(a) 30 minutes (b) 1 hour
(c) 2 hour (d) Indefinite period
Ans: (b)

---

655. Consider the following statements
1. The total elective membership of the Lok Sabha is distributed among the States on the basis of the population and area of the State.
2. The 84th Amendment Act of the Constitution of India lifted the freeze on the delimitation of constituencies imposed by the 42nd Amendment.
Which of the statement(s) given above is / are correct?
(a) Only 1 (b) Only 2
(c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2
Ans: (c)

---

656. Who is not entitled to take part in the activities of Lok Sabha?
(a) The Comptroller and Auditor General of India
(b) The Attorney General of India
(c) The Solicitor General
(d) The Secretary to President of India
Ans: (d)

---

657. What is the minimum age laid down for a candidate seek election to the Lok Sabha?
(a) 18 years (b) 21 years
(c) 25 years (d) None of these
Ans: (c)

---

658. The term of the Lok Sabha
(a) cannot be extended under any circumstances
(b) can be extended by six months at a time
(c) can be extended by one year at a time during the proclamation of emergency
(d) can be extended for two years at a time during the proclamation of emergency
Ans: (c)

---

659. Consider the following statements about democracy.
1. It consists with the formation of government elected by the people.
2. In democracy, those currently in power have a fair chance of losing.
3. Each vote has one value.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a) 1 and 2 (b) 1, 2 and 3
(c) Only 1 (d) 2 and 3
Ans: (c)

---

660. Who was the first Speaker to discard the official wig and presided over the House wearing the Gandhi Cap?
(a) Satya Narayan Sinha
(b) Rajendra Prasad
(c) GV Mavalanka
(d) N Sanjiva Reddy
Ans: (c)

---

661. Which of the following Constitutional Amendments are related to raising the number of members of Lok Sabha to be elected from the State?
(a) 6th and 22nd
(b) 13th and 38th
(c) 7th and 31st (d) 11th and 42nd
Ans: (c)

---

662. In which of the following cases The use of “effective majority” applies?
(a) Election of Vice-President
(b) Removal of speaker of Lok Sabha
(c) Resolution seeking the discontinance of national emergency in Lok Sabha
(d) Resolution seeking the removal of Vice-President in Lok Sabha
Ans: (b)

---

Type 2. Parliament Officers
663. Who among the following was never the Lok Sabha Speaker?
(a) KVK Sundaram
(b) GS Dhillon
(c) Baliram Bhagat
(d) Hukum Singh
Ans: (a)

---

664. The Speaker of the Lok Sabha may be removed from office by
(a) the majority party in the House adopting a no-confidence motion
(b) a resolution passed by not less than half of the total membership of the House
(c) a resolution passed by at least two-thirds of the total membership of the House
(d) a resolution passed by a majority of all the members of the House
Ans: (b)

---

665. Regarding the office of the Lok Sabha Speaker, consider the following statements
1. He/she holds the office during the pleasure of the President.
2. He/she need not be a member of the house at the time of his/her election but has to become a member of the house within six months fromthe date of his/her election.
3. If he/she intends to resign, the letter of his/her resignation has to be addressed to the Deputy speaker.
Which of the statement(s) given above is/are correct?
(a) 1 and 2 (b) Only 3
(c) 1, 2 and 3 (d) None of these
Ans: (b)

---

666. Who among the following was not elected for two terms as the Speaker of Lok Sabha?
(a) GMC Balayogi (b) N Sanjiva Reddy
(c) Balram Jakhar
(d) Baliram Bhagat
Ans: (d)

---

667. The Deputy Chairman of the Rajya Sabha is
(a) nominated by the Chairman
(b) elected by elected members of the Rajya Sabha
(c) nominated by the President
(d) elected by the Rajya Sabha from amongst its members
Ans: (d)

---

668. The Speaker of Lok Sabha can be removed from his office before the expiry of his term
(a) by the President on the recommendation of Prime Minister
(b) if the Lok Sabha passes a resolution to this effect
(c) if the Lok Sabha and Prime Minister decides so
(d) if both the Houses of Parliament pass a resolution to this effect
Ans: (b)

---

669. The first Speaker against whom a motion of no-confidence was moved in the Lok Sabha was
(a) Balram Jhakhar
(b) GV Mavalankar
(c) Hukum Singh
(d) KS Hegde
Ans: (b)

---

670. Who among the following forms the Advisory Committees of the Parliament?
(a) Speaker of the Lok Sabha
(b) Vice-President of India
(c) Minister of Parliamentary Affairs
(d) President of India
(e) None of the above
Ans: (a)

---

671. When a resolution for the removal is under consideration, the Speaker
1. does not take part in the proceedings of the House.
2. has no right to vote.
3. has the right to speak in the House even though he shall not preside.
Codes
(a) Only I (b) 1 and 2
(c) Only 2 (d) Only 3
Ans: (d)

---

672. Consider the following statements
1. Salary and allowances of the Speaker of Lok Sabha are charged on the Consolidated Funds of India.
2. In the Warrant of Precedence, the Speaker of Lok Sabha ranks higher than all the Union Cabinet Ministers other than Prime Minister.
Which of the statement(s) given above is/are correct?
(a) Only 1 (b) Only 2
(c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2
Ans: (c)

---

673. The function of the Pro-temSpeaker is to
(a) conduct the proceedings of the House in the absence of Speaker
(b) swearing members
(c) officiate as Speaker when the Speaker is unlikely to be elected
(d) only check if the election certification of the members are in order
Ans: (b)

---

Type 3. Sessions, Sittings & Proceedings
674. The joint sitting of the House of people and the Council of States is summoned by
(a) the President
(b) the Speaker of Lok Sabha
(c) the Parliament
(d) the Chairman of Rajya Sabha
Ans: (a)

---

675. Which of the following statements is/are correct?
1. The constitution lays down a special procedure for the passing of Money Bills in the Parliament.
2. A Money Bill can only be introduced in the Lok Sabha and that too on the recommendation of the President.
3. If any question arises whether a Bill is a Money Bill or not, the decision of the President is final.
Codes
(a) 1 and 3 (b) 1 and 2
(c) All of these (d) None of these
Ans: (b)

---

676. The Parliament can legislate on a subject in the state list
(a) by the wish of the President
(b) if the Rajya Sabha passes such a resolution
(c) under any circumstances
(d) by asking the legislature of the concerned state
Ans: (b)

---

677. No Money Bill can be introduced in the legislative assembly of a state, except on the recommendations of
(a) the Parliament
(b) the Governor of the State
(c) the President of India
(d) a Special Committee of Ministers
Ans: (c)

---

678. Which of the following committees are committees of Parliament?
1. Public Accounts Committee.
2. Estimate Committee.
3. Committee on Public Undertakings.
Codes
(a) 1 and 2 (b) 1 and 3
(c) 2 and 3 (d) 1, 2 and 3
Ans: (b)

---

679. With reference to the conduct of government business in the Parliament of India, the term ‘Closure’ refers to
(a) suspension of debate at the termination of a day is sittting of the Parliament
(b) a rule of legislative procedure under which further debate on a motion can be halted
(c) the termination of a Parliamentary session
(d) refusal on the part of the Government to have the opposition look at important documents
Ans: (d)

---

680. Which of the following statements about the freedom from arrest enjoyed by the members of the Parliament are correct?
1. A member of the Parliament cannot be arrested during the continuance of a meeting of the House or a Committee of which he is a member.
2. He cannot be arrested during the continuance of the joint sitting of the Houses.
3. He cannot be arrested during a period of 40 days before and after such meetings or sittings.
4. These immunities are equally applicable to arrest in civil or criminal cases and preventive detention.
Codes
(a) 1, 2 and 4 (b) 1, 2 and 3
(c) 2, 3 and 4 (d) 1, 2, 3 and 4
Ans: (b)

---

681. Consider the following statements
1. The Rajya Sabha has no power either to reject or to amend a Money Bill.
2. The Rajya Sabha cannot vote on the demands for Grants.
3. The Rajya Sabha cannot discuss the Annual Financial Statement.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a) Only 1
(b) 1 and 2
(c) 2 and 3
(d) 1, 2 and 3
Ans: (c)

---

682. At which of the following stages, general discussion on a Bill takes place in the Lok Sabha?
(a) During introduction of the Bill
(b) During second reading
(c) During report stage
(d) During third stage
Ans: (b)

---

683. Which of the following points of criticism are levelled against the amendment procedure in the Indian Constitution?
1. There is no provision for special Conventions for amendment of the Constitution as in the USA.
2. Too much power has been given to the States in the matter of proposing amendments to the Constitution.
3. The states have not been given sufficient powers with regard to amendment of the Constitution. Choose the correct codes from the given below
(a) 1 and 3 (b) Only 3
(c) All of the above (d) None of these
Ans: (a)

---

684. With reference to the Union Government, consider the following statements
1. The Department of Revenue is responsible for the preparation of Union Budget that is presented to the Parliament.
3. No amount can be withdrawn fromthe Consolidated Funds of India without the authorisation from the Parliament of India.
3. All the disbursements made from Public Account also need the authorisation from the Parliament of India.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a) 1 and 2 (b) 2 and 3
(c) Only 2 (d) 1, 2 and 3
Ans: (c)

---

685. The provision for the Calling Attention Notices has restricted the scope of which of the following?
(a) Short duration discussion
(b) Question hour
(c) Adjournment motion
(d) Zero hour
Ans: (a)

---

686. The privileges enjoyed by the members of Parliament individually include
1. freedom from arrest in all cases.
2. freedom from attendance as witness while Parliament is in session.
3. unlimited freedom of speech. Choose the right answer from the options given below.
(a) 1,2 and 3 (b) 2 and 3
(c) Only 2 (d) Only 3
Ans: (c)

---

687. There is a Parliamentary System of Government in India because the
(a) Lok Sabha is elected directly by the people.
(b) Parliament can amend the Constitution.
(c) Rajya Sabha cannot be dissolved.
(d) Council of Ministers is responsible to the Lok Sabha.
Ans: (d)

---

688. Members of Rajya Sabha are not associated with
1. Public Accounts Committee
2. Estimates Committee
3. Committee on Public Undertakings Choose the right answer from the options given below.
(a) 1 and 2 (b) Only 1
(c) Only 2 (d) 1 and 3
Ans: (c)

---

689. A joint sitting may be called
1. only in case of national emergency.
2. to enable a Constitutional Amendment to be passed in a hurry.
3. when taxes approved by one House and rejected by the other.
Codes
(a) 1 and 3 (b) 2 and 3
(c) 1, 2 and 3 (d) None of these
Ans: (d)

---

690. Expenses incurred out of the Contingency Fund of India are
(a) subsequently recouped by transferring savings from other heads of budget
(b) recouped through supplementary, addition or excess grants by Parliament
(c) not recouped till the whole fund is exhausted
(d) recouped by collecting contributions from various states
Ans: (b)

---

691. Who presides the joint session of Parliament?
(a) President of India
(b) Chairperson of Rajya Sabha
(c) Senior most member of Parliament
(d) Speaker of Lok Sabha
Ans: (d)

---

692. Two houses of the Parliament enjoy co-equal power in all spheres except
1. Financial matters
2. Responsibilities of the Council of Ministers
3. Amendment procedure
4. Election of President
Codes
(a) 3 and 4 (b) 2, 3 and 4
(c) 1, 2 and 3 (d) 1 and 2
Ans: (d)

---

693. The Consolidated Funds of India is a fund in which
(a) all taxes collected by the Union as well as State Governments are deposited
(b) all money received by or on behalf of the Government of India is deposited
(c) the Union as well as State Governments make equal contribution to this fund and out of this, all charged expenses are met
(d) savings of the Union and State Governments are deposited to meet unforeseen expenses
Ans: (b)

---

694. By which Bill the Government propose collection of revenues for a year?
(a) Economic Bill (b) Finance Bill
(c) Supplementary Bill
(d) None of the above
Ans: (b)

---

695. How does participatory budgeting seek to make the functioning of local governance institutions more transparent and accountable?
1. By allowing citizens to deliberate and negotiate over the distribution of public resources.
2. By allowing citizens to play a direct role in deciding how and where resources should be spent.
3. By allowing historically excluded citizens with access to important decision-making venues.
Select the correct answer using the codes given below.
(a) 1 and 2 (b) 2 and 3
(c) Only 3 (d) 1, 2 and 3
Ans: (c)

---

696. Which of the following are correct regarding the Money Bill?
1. A Money Bill passed by the Lok Sabha is not returned to it within a period of 2 weeks of its transmission to the Rajya Sabha, it shall be deemed to have been passed by both the Houses.
2. Its rejection in the Rajya Sabha means the defeat of the Government.
3. To be introduced in Parliament, it requires the recommendation of the President.
4. It has to be introduced in the Lok Sabha. Choose the right answer from the options given below.
(a) 3 and 4 (b) 1, 3 and 4
(c) 2, 3 and 4 (d) 1, 2, 3 and 4
Ans: (b)

---

697. Which of the following is true regarding ‘No Confidence Motion’ in the Parliament?
1. There is no mention of it in the Constitution.
2. A period of six months must lapse between the introduction of one ‘No Confidence Motion’ and another.
3. At least 100 persons must support such a motion before it is introduced in the House.
4. It can be introduced in the Lok Sabha only.
Codes
(a) 2 and 4 (b) 1, 2, 3 and 4
(c) 1,2 and 3 (d) 1 and 4
Ans: (a)

---

698. The first joint sitting of both the Houses of the Indian Parliament was held in connection with
(a) Dowry Abolition Bill
(b) Hindu Code Bill
(c) Bank Nationalisation Bill
(d) Gold Control Bill
Ans: (a)

---

699. Which one of the following motions has contextual relationship with the Union Budget
(a) Censure motion
(b) Call Attention motion
(c) Cut motion
(d) Adjournment motion
Ans: (c)

---

700. In the event of the Upper House rejecting a Constitutional Amendment Bill passed by the Lower House
(a) The Bill have to be dropped
(b) A joint sitting of the two Houses of Parliament may be convened to consider and pass the bill
(c) The Bill shall be deemed to have been passed by both the Houses of Parliament if the Lok Sabha passes it again by a two-third majority
(d) The Bill shall be deemed to have been passed by both the Houses of Parliament despite the disapproval of the Bill by the Upper House
Ans: (a)

---

701. ‘Votes on Account’ permits Union Government to
(a) go for public loan
(b) borrow money from the Reserve Bank of India
(c) give grants in aid to States
(d) withdraw money from Consolidated Funds of India for specific period
Ans: (d)

---

702. Which one of the following statements are not correct?
(a) A Money Bill can be introduced by any member of the Parliament but generally only members with specialised knowledge of finance introduce the same
(b) A Money Bill can be introduced only in the Lok Sabha
(c) A Money Bill can be introduced only by the Ministers
(d) A Money Bill can be introduced only on the recommendation of the President
Ans: (a)

---

703. The provisions related to Official Language of India can be amended by
(a) simple majority
(b) minimum 2/3 majority
(c) minimum 3/4 majority
(d) Cannot be amended
Ans: (b)

---

704. Money from the Contingency Fund of India can be withdrawn only after
(a) the appropriation Act has been passed by the Parliament
(b) the approval of the President
(c) the Appropriation Bill is introduced in the Parliament
(d) the prior approval of the Comptroller and Auditor General
Ans: (a)

---

705. At the Third Reading of the Bill,
(a) the committee Chairman presents his report
(b) the dissenting report is submitted
(c) the Bill is discussed clause-by-clause
(d) no substantive amendment to the Bill is proposed
Ans: (c)

---

706. Which of the following Ministries prepares its own budget and presents in the Parliament every year?
(a) Finance Ministry
(b) Railway Ministry
(c) Ministry of Defence
(d) Ministry of Home Affairs
Ans: (b)

---

707. What is ‘Zero Hour’?
(a) When the proposals of the opposition are raised
(b) When matters of utmost importance are raised
(c) Interval between the morning and afternoon sessions
(d) When a Money Bill is introduced in Lok Sabha
Ans: (b)

---

708. When a Bill is referred to a joint sitting of both the Houses of Indian Parliament, it has to be passed by
(a) a simple majority of members present and voting
(b) three-fourth majority of members present and voting
(c) two-third majority of the House
(d) absolute majority of the total membership of the Houses
Ans: (a)

---

709. As we all know, the Ministry of Finance every year prepares the Union Budget and presents it to the Parliament. Which of the following is/are the elements of the Union Budget?
1. Estimates of revenue and capital receipts.
2. Ways andmeans to raise the revenue.
3. Estimates of expenditure.
Codes
(a) Only 1 (b) Only 2
(c) Only 3 (d) 1, 2 and 3
Ans: (d)

---

710. Consider the following statements when Lok Sabha is dissolved,
1. a Bill pending in Rajya Sabha which has not been passed by Lok Sabha lapses
2. a Bill pending in Lok Sabha lapses
3. a Bill passed by both Houses but pending assent of the President of India does not lapse
Codes
(a) Only 1 (b) 1 and 2
(c) 2 and 3 (d) 1, 2 and 3
Ans: (d)

---

711. If a Money Bill passed by the Lok Sabha is not returned by the Rajya Sabha within 14 days, then
(a) Lok Sabha will reconsider it
(b) Money Bill will be rejected
(c) President will summon a joint meeting of both the Houses to discuss it
(d) The bill will be sent to the President for his signature and consent
Ans: (d)

---

712. The Indian Parliament cannot legislate on a subject of State List unless
1. the President of India directs to do so.
2. the Rajya Sabha passes a resolution that it is necessary to do so in national interest.
3. the Speaker of Vidhan Sabha certifies that the legislation is necessary.
4. there is national emergency. Considering the above statements, select the correct answer from the codes given below.
Codes
(a) 1, 2 and 3 (b) 2, 3 and 4
(c) 1 and 2 (d) 2 and 4
Ans: (d)

---

713. A Bill presented in Parliament becomes an Act after
(a) it is passed by both the Houses
(b) the President has given his assent
(c) the Prime Minister has signed it
(d) the Supreme Court has declared it to be within the competence of Union Parliament
Ans: (b)

---

714. The Parliament can make any law for whole or any part of India for implementing international treaties.
(a) With the consent of all the states
(b) With the consent of Majority of states
(c) With the consent of the states concerned
(d) Without the consent of any state
Ans: (d)

---

715. Prior sanction of the President of India is required before introducing the Bill, in the Parliament on
1. formation of new State.
2. affecting taxation in which States are interested.
3. altering the boundaries of the States.
4. Money Bill. Considering the above statements, select the correct answer from the codes given below.
(a) 1, 2 and 3
(b) 2, 3 and 4
(c) 1, 2 and 4
(d) All of these
Ans: (d)

---

716. Joint sitting of the two Houses of Indian Parliament are held to
(a) elect the President of India
(b) elect the Vice-President of India
(c) adopt a Constitution Amendment Bill
(d) Consider and pass bill on which the two houses disagree.
Ans: (d)

---

717. Consider the following statements
1. Union territories are not represented in the Rajya Sabha.
2. It is within the purview of the Chief Election Commissoner to adjudicate the election disputes.
3. According to the constitution of India, the Parliament consists of the Lok Sabha and the Rajya Sabha only.
Which of the statement(s) given above is/are correct?
(a) Only 1 (b) 2 and 3
(c) 1 and 3 (d) None of these
Ans: (d)

---

718. Consider the following statements
1. The joint sitting of the two Houses of the Parliament in India is sanctioned under Article-108 of the Constitution.
2. The first joint sitting of Lok Sabha and Rajya Sabha was held in the year 1961.
3. The second joint sitting of Lok Sabha and Rajya Sabha was held to pass the Banking Services Commission (Repeal) Bill.
Which of these statements are correct?
(a) 1 and 2 (b) 2 and 3
(c) 1 and 3 (d) 1, 2 and 3
Ans: (d)

---

719. The Speaker can stop a member of Parliament from speaking and let another member speak. This phenomenon is known as
(a) decorum
(b) crossing the floor
(c) interpellation
(d) yielding the floor
Ans: (d)

---

720. What is the difference between ‘Vote on Account’ and ‘Interim Budget’?
1. The provision of a ‘Vote on Account’ is used by a regular Government, while an ‘InterimBudget’ is a provision used by a caretaker Government.
2. A ‘Vote on Account’ only deals with the expenditure in Government’s budget, while an ‘Interim Budget’ includes both expenditure and receipts.
Which of the statement(s) given above is / are correct?
(a) Only 1
(b) Only 2
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) None of these
Ans: (b)

---

721. With reference to Indian Parliament, which one of the following is not correct?
(a) The Appropriation Bill must be passed by both the Houses of Parliament before it can be enacted into law
(b) No money shall be withdrawn from the Consolidated Funds of India except under the appropriation made by the Appropriation Act
(c) Finance Bill is required for proposing new taxes but no other Bill / Act is required for making changes in the rates of taxes which are already under operation
(d) No Money Bill can be introduced except on the recommendation of the President
Ans: (a)

---

722. Which of the statements given is/are correct?
1. The speaker immediately vacates his/her office whenever the State Legislative Assembly is dissolved.
2. No member of a State Legislative Assembly shall be liable to any proceeding in any court in respect of anything said or any vote given by him/her in the legislature.
Codes
(a) Only 1 (b) Only 2
(c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2
Ans: (b)

---

723. A deadlock between the Lok Sabha and the Rajya Sabha for a joint sitting of the Parliament during the passage of
1. Ordinary Legislation
2. Money Bill
3. Constitutional Amendment Bill
Select the correct answer using the codes given below.
(a) Only 1 (b) 2 and 3
(c) 1 and 3 (d) 1, 2 and 3
Ans: (a)

---

724. If the President returns the Bill to the legislature for reconsideration
(a) a re-passage of the Bill by the two-third majority will compel him to give his assent
(b) a re-passage of the Bill by simple majority will compel him to give his assent
(c) a joint sitting will have to be called to pass it again
(d) the legislature must accept amendments proposed by the President
Ans: (b)

---

725. Consider the following statements regarding a No-Confidence Motion in India
1. There is no mention of a No-Confidence Motion in the Constitution of India.
2. A motion of No-Confidence can be introduced in the Lok Sabha only.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a) Only 1 (b) Only 2
(c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2
Ans: (b)

---

726. The Government Bill means a Bill introduced by a
(a) Member of the Treasury bench in the Lok Sabha
(b) Member of the Parliament who is not a Minister
(c) Minister in the Lok Sabha
(d) Minister in any House of the Parliament
Ans: (d)

---

727. In which among the following cases, the joint session of both the Houses of Parliament can be summoned?
1. To amend the Constitution.
2. When Bill has been pending with one House for more than six months after it was passed by the other.
3. When both the Houses disagree on the amendments to be made in a Bill.
4. When a Bill is passed by one House and is rejected by the other.
Codes
(a) 1, 2 and 3
(b) 2, 3 and 4
(c) 2 and 3
(d) 1 and 4
Ans: (b)

---

728. In the Parliament of India, the purpose of an adjourment motion is
(a) to allow a discussion on definite matter of urgent Public importance
(b) to let opposition members collect information from the numbers
(c) to allow a reduction of specific amount in demand for grant
(d) to postpone the proceedings to check the inappropriate or violent behaviour on the part of same members.
Ans: (d)

---

729. Consider the following statements
1. The Parliament has powers to make laws with respect to any of thematters enumerated in the Union List. However, this power is not exclusive.
2. The power to make laws with respect to residuary subjects is vested in the Parliament.
Codes
(a) Only 1
(b) Only 2
(c) Both 1 and 2 are correct
(d) Neither 1 nor 2 are correct
Ans: (b)

---

730. Which of the following are not correct?
1. Adjournment only terminates a sitting and not a session of the House while prorogation not only terminates a sitting but also a session of the House.
2. Adjournment is done by presiding officer of the House. Prorogation is done by the President of India.
3. Only the Lok Sabha is subject to dissolution.
4. Quorum is the minimum number of members required to be present in the House before it can transact any business.
Codes
(a) 1 and 2 (b) 3 and 4
(c) All of these (d) None of these
Ans: (d)

---

731. Consider the following statements
1. The Parliament scrutinises government spending and financial performance with the help of its Financial Committees.
2. The Budget is based on the principle of annuality, that is, the Parliament grants monney to government for one financial year. If the granted money is not spent by the end of the financial year, then the balance expires and returns to the Public Accounts of India.
Codes
(a) Only 1 (b) Only 2
(c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2
Ans: (a)

---

732. Match the following List I (Term) with List II (Defined by) and answer as per the codes given below.
List I List II
A. Consolidated Funds of India 1. Article-110
B. Money Bill 2. Article-267
C. Annual Financial Statement 3. Article-266
D. Contingency Fund of India 4. Article-265
5. Article-112
Codes A B C D A B C D
(a) 4 1 5 3 (b) 2 1 5 4
(c) 4 1 5 2 (d) 3 1 5 2
Ans: (d)

---

733. The correct statements about calling attention notice are
1. It is a device of calling the attention of a minister to a matter of urgent public importance.
2. Its main purpose is to seek an authoritative statement from the minister.
3. It does not involve any censure against Government.
4. It is an Indian innovation in the parliamentary procedure since 1952.
5. It is not mentioned in the Rules of Business and Procedure.
Codes
(a) 1, 2, 3 and 4 (b) 4 and 5
(c) 1, 2, 3 and 5 (d) 1, 2 and 3
Ans: (d)

---

734. Which of the following matters requires the previous sanction of the President for introducing legislation on it?
1. A Money Bill
2. A Bill affecting taxation in which states are interested
3. States Bills imposing restrictions upon the freedom of trades
Codes
(a) 1, 2 and 3 (b) 2 and 3
(c) 1 and 3 (d) 1 and 3
Ans: (a)

---

Type 4. Parliamentary Committees
735. The correct statements about Finance Commission are
1. It is to act as the balancing wheel of Indian Fiscal Federalism.
2. It consists of a Chairman and three other members.
3. Qualifications of the members of the Commission are determined by the President.
4. It is constituted under the provisions of Article-280.
Codes
(a) 2, 3 and 4 (b) 2 and 3
(c) 1 and 4 (d) 1, 2 and 3
Ans: (c)

---

736. Which of the following are true about the Attorney General of India?
1. He is not a member of the Cabinet.
2. He has the right to speak in the Houses of Parliament.
3. He has the right to vote in Parliament.
4. He must have the same qualifications as those required to be a judge of the Supreme Court.
Codes
(a) 1, 2 and 4 (b) 2 and 4
(c) All of these (d) 1 and 2
Ans: (a)

---

737. Which one of the following statements regarding the office of the Speaker is correct?
(a) He holds office during the pleasure of the President.
(b) He need not be a member of the house at the time of his election but has to become a member of the house within six months from the date of his election.
(c) He loses his office if the House is dissolved before the end of its normal tenure.
(d) If he intends to resign the letter of his resignation is to be addressed to the Deputy Speaker.
Ans: (d)

---

738. The Committee of Indian Parliament which has the largest membership is
(a) the Committee on Privileges
(b) the Public Accounts Committee
(c) the Estimates Committee
(d) the Committee on Public Undertakings
Ans: (c)

---

739. Which one of the following functions of the Public Accounts Committee has been wrongly listed?
(a) It sees that the Executive has followed the financial rules and regulations
(b) It suggests the forms in which the accounts of the Government Department and Public Undertakings are to be maintained
(c) It sees that the money has been spent for the purpose for which it was sanctioned by the Parliament
(d) It sees that the expenditure does not exceed the grants made by the Parliament
Ans: (d)

---

740. Which of the following are the functions of the Estimates Committee?
1. It prepares the estimates of expenditure for the ensuing year.
2. It suggests alternative policies with a view to bring about efficiency and economy in administration.
3. It suggests the forms in which the estimates are to be presented to the Parliament.
4. It examines whether the money is well laid out within the limit of the policy implied in the estimates.
Codes
(a) 2,3,4 (b) 1,2,3
(c) 1,3,4 (d) 1,2,4
Ans: (d)

---

741. Which one of the following statements about the Parliamentary Committee on Public Sector Undertakings are true?
1. It examines the reports and accounts of certain specified public sector undertakings and the reports of the Auditor General.
2. It approves the appointments of the Chairman of certain specified public sector undertakings.
3. It examines whether public undertakings are being run efficiently.
4. It also examines whether they are being managed in accordance with sound business principles and prudent commercial practice.
Codes
(a) 1,2 and 3
(b) 2,3 and 4
(c) 1,2,3 and 4
(d) 1,3 and 4
Ans: (d)

---

742. The functions of the Estimates Committee of Parliament include
1. presenting annually to Parliament an Economic Survey report on the country’s state of economy.
2. reporting on what economies, improvement in organisation, or administrative reforms can be effected.
3. examining whether the money is well laid out within the limits of the policy implied in the estimates.
4. suggesting the form in which estimates should be presented to the Parliament.
Codes
(a) 2 and 3 (b) 2, 3 and 4
(c) 1, 3 and 4 (d) All of these
Ans: (b)

---

743. Whose function is it to see that no money is spent out of the Consolidated Fund of a State without the authority of the legislature?
(a) Public Accounts Committee
(b) Comptroller and Auditor General of India
(c) Finance Commission
(d) None of the above
Ans: (a)

---

744. Which one among the following statements about the functioning of political parties in a democracy is not correct?
(a) Political parties give political education to the people.
(b) Political parties serve as a link between the government and the people.
(c) Political parties fight elections and try to get the maximum number of their candidates elected.
(d) None of the above
Ans: (a)

---

745. Which of the following standing committees of Parliament has no MP from Rajya Sabha?
(a) Public Accounts Committee
(b) Committee on Public Undertakings
(c) Committee on Government Assurance
(d) Estimates Committee
Ans: (d)

---

746. The Committee of Parliament on Official Language comprises the members
(a) 20 from Lok Sabha and 10 from Rajya Sabha
(b) 10 from Lok Sabha and 20 from Rajya Sabha
(c) 10 from Lok Sabha and 10 from Rajya Sabha
(d) 20 from Lok Sabha and 20 from Rajya Sabha
Ans: (a)

---

747. Which one of the following is the largest committee of the Parliament?
(a) The committee on public accounts
(b) The committee on estimates
(c) The committee on public undertakings
(d) The committee on petitions
Ans: (b)

---

748. Reservation of seats for SCs and STs was started in the year
(a) 1950 (b) 1951
(c) 1952 (d) 1960
Ans: (a)

---

749. Which one of the following is not a Parliamentary Committee?
(a) Committee on Public Accounts
(b) Committee on Public Undertakings
(c) Committee on Estimates
(d) Demands for Grants Committee
Ans: (d)

---

750. Which of the following are the Financial Committees of Parliament in India?
1. Public Accounts Committee
2. Estimate Committee
3. Committee on Public Undertakings
Select the correct answer from the codes given below.
Codes
(a) Only 1 (b) 1 and 2
(c) 1 and 3
(d) 1, 2 and 3
Ans: (d)

---

751. Consider the following statements
1. Ministry of Parliamentary Affairs Committee of constituts Members of both the House of Parliament.
2. The main purpose of these committes is to provide a forum for formal discussion between the Government and Members of Parliament and Programmes of the Government.
Which of the statement(s) given above is /are correct?
(a) Only 1
(b) Only 2
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
Ans: (a)

---

752. Which one of the following is the correct meaning of Budget?
(a) Money Bill
(b) Statement of expenditure
(c) Estimate of expenditure, the ways and means to raise revenue
(d) A statement of the economic policy of the country
Ans: (c)

---

753. Which of the following is not a tool of Parliamentary control over Public expenditures?
(a) Public Accounts Committee
(b) Attorney General of India
(c) Estimates Committee
(d) Committee on Public Undertakings
Ans: (b)

---

754. Which one of the following is not true?
(a) The secretary general of Lok Sabha advises the speaker
(b) He is the custodian of Parliamentary conventions
(c) He provides secretarial assistance to all the Parliamentary committees
(d) He is chosen amongst the members of the house.
Ans: (d)

---

755. Which of the following is not correctly matched?
(a) Cut-motion : demand to reduce allocation of funds
(b) Guillotine : bring the debate to an end
(c) Division : mode of arriving at a decision
(d) Point of order : put an end to the business of the day
Ans: (d)

---

756. Consider the following statements
1. A Bill returned by the President for reconsideration does not lapse on the dissolution of Lok Sabha.
2. A Bill passed by the Lok Sabha and pending in the Rajya Sabha lapses on the dissolution of the Lok Sabha.
3. A Bill under consideration of Lok Sabha lapses when the Lok Sabha is prorogued.
4. A Bill originating in the Rajya Sabha, which has not been passed by the Lok Sabha and which is still pending in the Rajya Sabha does not lapse.
Select the correct answer from the following codes given below.
Codes
(a) 2, 3 and 4 (b) 1 and 2 only
(c) 3 and 4 (d) 1,2 and 4
Ans: (a)

---

757. Consider the following statements After a Bill has been passed by one House and transmitted to the other House, the President may notify to the Houses, his intention to summon a joint sitting if
1. the Bill is rejected by the other House
2. the Houses have finally disagreed on the amendments to be made in the Bill
Select the correct answer from the following codes given below.
Codes
(a) Only 1 (b) Only 2
(c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2
Ans: (c)

---

758. In which of the following Articles, Rajya Sabha enjoys special and exclusive power?
1. Article-249 2. Article-312
3. Article-67
Codes
(a) 1 and 2 (b) 1 and 3
(c) 2 and 3 (d) All of these
Ans: (a)

---

759. In which of the following cases the status of Lok Sabha and Rajya Sabha is not equal?
(a) Financial Bill
(b) Impeachment of the President
(c) Passage of amendments
(d) Approval of ordinances
Ans: (a)

---

760. Which of the following is not the significance of Rajya Sabha?
(a) It checks hasty defective and careless legislation
(b) It provides representation to eminent experts
(c) It maintains the federal equilibrium
(d) It keeps a check on the PrimeMinister
Ans: (d)

---

761. Consider the following statements and choose the correct answer.
1. The nature of a Bill if it is certified by the Speaker of the house of people as a Money Bill is not open to question in a court of law.
2. The President of India has the power to question the nature of a Bill to be taken as a Money Bill even if it is certified to be so by the Speaker of the House of People.
Codes
(a) Only 1 (b) Only 2
(c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2
Ans: (d)

---

762. Which of the following is not correctly matched?
(a) Estimate Committee : 30 members
(b) Committee on Welfare of SCs and STs : 30 members
(c) House Committee : 15 members
(d) Committee on Privileges : 15 members from Lok Sabha
Ans: (d)

---

763. Which of the following is not true about the Public Accounts Committee?
(a) It consists of 15 members from Lok Sabha and 7 from Rajya Sabha
(b) It was set up for the first time in 1951
(c) Chairman of the committee is from the opposition by a convention
(d) It examines the accounts of the Union Government
Ans: (d)

---

764. Consider the following statements The parliamentary committee on public accounts
1. Consists of not more than 25 members of the Lok Sabha.
2. Scrutinises appropriation and finance accounts of the government.
3. Examines the report of the comptroller and Auditor General of India.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a) Only 1 (b) 2 and 3
(c) Only 3 (d) All of these
Ans: (b)

---

765. Which of the following is not correctly matched?
State Number of Seats in
Lok Sabha
(a) Andhra Pradesh 40
(b) Gujarat 26
(c) Maharashtra 48
(d) West Bengal 42
Ans: (a)

---

766. Consider the following statements
1. The provision of joint-sitting has been provided in the Constitution for constitution amendment bills.
2. In the case of a money bill, Rajya Sabha enjoys the same power as the Lok Sabha
Codes
(a) Only 1 (b) Only 2
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
Ans: (d)

---

767. Which of the following are the privileges of the members of Parliament?
1. Freedom from arrest in civil cases
2. Freedom from arrest in civil and criminal cases
3. Freedom from jury services
4. Freedom of speech
Codes
(a) 1, 2 and 3 (b) 1, 3 and 4
(c) 2, 3 and 4 (d) All of these
Ans: (b)

---

768. What are the implications of sovereignty of Parliament?
1. Parliament can make, amend or repeal any law.
2. Parliament can make Constitutional laws.
3. Parliamentary laws cannot be declared invalid by the Judiciary.
Codes
(a) 1 and 2 (b) 1 and 3
(c) 2 and 3 (d) All of these
Ans: (a)

---

769. To whom does the Public Accounts Committee submit its report?
(a) Chairman of Rajya Sabha
(b) Speaker of Lok Sabha
(c) President of India
(d) Union Finance Minister
Ans: (b)

---

770. Which of the following does not come under the public accounts of India?
(a) Provident fund deposits
(b) Remittances
(c) Saving banks deposits
(d) Salaries of the President
Ans: (d)

---

771. In which of the following matters, the status of Rajya Sabha and Lok Sabha equal?
(a) Money Bill
(b) Financial Bill
(c) Demand for Grants
(d) Approval of Emergencies
Ans: (d)

---

772. Which of the following is not correctly matched?
(a) Policy cut motion:Demand be reduced by ` 1
(b) Economy cut motion : Demand be reduced by specific amount
(c) Token cut motion :Demand be reduced by ` 10
(d) Call attention motion : On matters of urgent public importance
Ans: (d)

---

773. A Bill is deemed to be a Money Bill’ if it has any provisions dealing with
1. imposition, abolition, remission, alteration or regulation of any tax
2. appropriation of money from the Consolidated Fund of India
3. imposition of fines or other pecuniary penalties
4. payment of fee for licences or fee for service rendered
Select the correct answer using the codes given below.
(a) 1 and 2 (b) 1, 3 and 4
(c) 1, 2 and 3 (d) Only 2
Ans: (a)

---

774. Which of the following does not form a part of the Consolidated Funds of India?
(a) Loans raised by the government
(b) Revenues received by the government of India
(c) Remittances
(d) Money received in repayment of loans
Ans: (c)

---

775. Which of the following is not correctly matched?
(a) Supplementary grant : Amount insufficient for that year for a particular service
(b) Additional grant : Additional expenditure on some new services
(c) Exceptional grant : Granted for special purpose and forms part of current services of the next financial year
(d) Token grant : Fund can be made available by reappropriation
Ans: (c)

---

776. Consider the following statements and choose the correct answer from the codes given below.
1. All resolutions are substantive motions.
2. All resolutions are necessarily put to vote.
Codes
(a) Only 1 (b) Only 2
(c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2
Ans: (a)

---

777. What is also known as Rule 377 in Lok Sabha?
(a) Half an hour discussion
(b) Special mention
(c) Short duration discussion
(d) No-day-yet named motion
Ans: (b)

---

778. Consider the following statements and choose the correct answer from the codes given below.
1. Substantive motion is a self contained independent proposal dealing with a very important matter.
2. A motion for removal of Chief Election Commissioner is a substantivemotion.
Codes
(a) Only 1 (b) Only 2
(c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2
Ans: (c)

---

779. How is censure motion different from no- confidence motion?
(a) Censure motion must state the reasons for its adoption
(b) It can be voted against the Council of Ministers
(c) It leads to censure of the Government and CoM need not resign from office
(d) All of the above
Ans: (d)

---

780. Which one is not correct about the committee on petitions (Lok sabha)?
(a) The committee consists of 15 members nominated by the speaker
(b) A minister is also nominated to this committee
(c) The committee considers representations from individuals and associations also
(d) All of the above
Ans: (b)

---

781. When a person is selected to both the Houses of the Parliament and he does not decide within 10 days which house he desires to vacate, his seat shall become vacant in which house?
(a) Lok Sabha (b) Rajya Sabha
(c) Both Lok Sabha and Rajya Sabha
(d) None of the above
Ans: (b)

---

782. Which of the following statements is not correct?
(a) Business in Parliament shall be transacted in Hindi or English
(b) The Chairman of Rajya Sabha or Speaker may ; allow any person to express himself in hismother tongues
(c) Language of the Parliament is provided in Article-119 of the Constitution
(d) All of the above
Ans: (c)

---

783. Consider the following statements and choose the correct answer from the codes given below.
1. No discussion shall take place in Parliament with regard to the conduct of any judge in India.
2. The validity of any proceedings in Parliament shall not be called in question on the ground of any alleged irregularity.
Codes
(a) Only 1 (b) Only 2
(c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2
Ans: (c)

---

784. To enforce international treaties in the part of India or in the entire country, the Parliament of India can make any laws.
(a) with the consent of all the States
(b) with the consent of majority of States
(c) with the consent of the related States
(d) without the constant of any States
Ans: (d)

---

785. Who presides over the house (Lok Sabha) in the absence of the Speaker or the Deputy Speaker?
(a) President
(b) Vice-President
(c) Any of ‘a’ or ‘b’
(d) None of the above
Ans: (d)

---

786. During the discussion on the demands for Grants, motions can be moved to reduce the amount of a demand. Such a motion is called a “Cut-motion”. Which of the following categories are classified as “Cut-motion”?
1. Disapproval of Policy cost
2. Economy cut 3. Taken cut
Select the correct answer using the codes given below.
Codes
(a) 1 and 2 (b) 2 and 3
(c) 1, 2 and 3 (d) 1 and 3
Ans: (c)

---

787. Which of the following statements is/are correct?
1. Articles 79 to 122 in Part V of the constitution deal with the organisation, composition, duration, powers, privileges, and so on of the Parliament.
2. The parliamentary form of government emphasizes on the interdependence between the legislative and executive organs.
3. The maximum strength of the Rajya Sabha is fixed at 250. At present, the Rajya Sabha has 245 members.
4. The Fourth Schedule of Constitution deals with the allocation of seats in the Rajya Sabha.
Codes
(a) 1, 2 and 3
(b) 2, 3 and 4
(c) All of these
(d) None of these
Ans: (c)

---

788. Which of the following does not become one of the ground for defection?
(a) If anyMember of Parliament voluntarily gives up the managership on whose ticket he is elected to the House.
(b) If he votes or abstains from voting in the House contrary of any direction given by his political party.
(c) If a sitting member of one House is also elected to the other House.
(d) If any independently elected member joins any political party later on.
Ans: (c)

---

789. The Comptroller and Auditor for General of India has been described as the friend, philosoper and guide of
(a) The Estimates Committee
(b) The Committee of the Public undertakings
(c) The Public Account Committee
(d) All Parliamentary Committees
Ans: (c)

---

790. A Parliamentary Democracy is one where
1. a balance of popular participation and elite rule takes place.
2. the government is responsible not to the public but to the elected representatives.
3. the parliamentarians are delegated the responsibility of thinking and acting on behalf of their constituents.
Select the correct answer using the codes given below
(a) 1, 2 and 3 (b) 2 and 3
(c) 1 and 3 (d) Only 2
Ans: (c)

---