Part 1 States of Matter
1. The temperature to which a gas must be cooled before it can be liquefied by compression is called
(a) Boyle’s temperature
(b) critical temperature
(c) liquefaction temperature
(d) inversion temperature
Ans: (b)
2. Internal energy of gas (ideal) depends only on
(a) pressure (b) temperature
(c) volume
(d) temperature and pressure
Ans: (b)
3. The gas used in a refrigerator is
(a) cooled down on flowing
(b) heated up on flowing
(c) cooled down when compressed
(d) cooled down when expanded
Ans: (d)
4. Consider the following statements
1. When evaporation takes place, cooling takes place.
2. Evaporation takes place at all temperatures, boiling takes place only at the boiling point.
3. Evaporation is a surface phenomenon.
Which of the above is/are true?
(a) Only 1 (b) 1 and 2
(c) 2 and 3 (d) 1, 2 and 3
Ans: (d)
5. Matter around us can exist in three different states, namely, solid, liquid and gas. The correct order of their compressibility is
(a) Liquid < Gas < Solid
(b) Solid < Liquid < Gas
(c) Gas < Liquid < Solid
(d) Solid < Gas < Liquid
Ans: (b)
6. Which of the following gases will have the highest rate of diffusion?
(a) O2 (b)CO2
(c) NH3 (d)N 2
Ans: (c)
7. At very low temperature, oxygen O2, freezes and forms a crystalline solid. Which term best describes the solids?
(a) Covalent network
(b) Molecular crystals
(c) Metallic
(d) Ionic
Ans: (b)
8. The absolute zero, i.e. temperature below which is not achievable, is about.
(a) 0°C (b) –273 K
(c) –273°C (d) –300°C
Ans: (c)
9. Dry ice is used for making cold-baths in laboratories by mixing with volatile organic solvents. Identify the form of dry ice from the following.
(a) Gaseous carbon dioxide
(b) Liquid carbon dioxide
(c) Solid carbon dioxide
(d) Solid hydrogen oxide
Ans: (c)
10. Statement I There is high salinity if Red Sea.
Statement II Rate of evaporation is high in Red Sea.
Codes
(a) Both the statements are individually true and Statement II is the correct explanation of Statement I.
(b) Both the statements are individually true but Statement II is not the correct explanation of Statement I
(c) Statement I is true but Statement II is false.
(d) Statement I is false but Statement II is true.
Ans: (a)
11. At constant temperature, the product of pressure and volume of a given amount of a gas is constant. This is
(a) Gay-Lussac law
(b) Charles’ law
(c) Boyle’s law
(d) Pressure law
Ans: (c)
12. Consider the following statements
1. Gaseous substances whose critical temperatures are above room temperatures can be liquefied by applying sufficient pressure to the gas.
2. Gaseous substances whose critical temperatures are below room temperature can be liquefied by the application of pressure and lowering of temperature below Tc . Select the correct alternate.
(a) Only 1
(b) Only 2
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) None of the above
Ans: (b)
13. Consider the following statements
1. Amorphous solids do not have sharp melting points.
2. Amorphous solids are isotropic.
3. Amorphous have same mechanical strength, electrical and optical properties in all directions.
Which of the above is/are true about amorphous solids?
(a) Only 1 (b) Only 2
(c) 2 and 3 (d) 1, 2 and 3
Ans: (d)
14. Consider the following statements
1. The rate of diffusion of liquids is higher than that of solids.
2. In the liquid state, particles move freely and have greater space between each other as compared to particles in the solid state.
Which of the statement(s) given above is/are correct?
(a) Only 1
(b) Only 2
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) None of the above
Ans: (c)
15. The temperature at which a solid melts to become a liquid at the atmospheric pressure is called its melting point. The melting point of a solid is an indication of
(a) strength of the intermolecular forces of attraction
(b) strength of the intermolecular forces of repulsion
(c) molecular mass (d) molecular size
Ans: (c)
16. Glasses and plastics are
(a) amorphous solids
(b) supercooled liquids
(c) Both (a) and (b) (d) None of these
Ans: (c)
17. Consider the following statements
1. Dry ice is the solid form of CO2.
2. Dry ice is used primarily as a cooling agent.
3. Simple ice is colder than dry ice.
Which of the statement(s) given above is/are correct?
(a) Only 1 (b) Only 2
(c) 1 and 2 (d) 1, 2 and 3
Ans: (c)
18. Consider the following statements
1. Atmospheric pressure is less at the top of a mountain than at sea level.
2. Gases are much more compressible than solids and liquids.
3. When the atmospheric pressure increases, the height of the mercury column rises. Select the correct statements.
(a) 1, 2 (b) 2, 3
(c) 1, 3 (d) 1, 2, 3
Ans: (d)
19. H2O is a liquid and H2S is a gas because
(a) oxygen forms stronger hydrogen bond than sulphur
(b) oxygen is less electronegative than sulphur
(c) atomic radius of oxygen is less than that of sulphur
(d) atomic radius of oxygen is greater than that of sulphur
Ans: (a)
20. As which one of the following, does amorphous carbon occur in its purest form in nature?
(a) Diamond (b) Graphite
(c) Carbon black (d) Coal
Ans: (c)
21. Which one among the following would expand the most on being heated?
(a) Water (b) Air
(c) Alcohol (d) Glass
Ans: (b)
22. A glass vessel is filled with water to the rim and a lid is fixed to it tightly. Then it is left inside a freezer for hours. What is expected to happen?
(a) The water freezes to ice and that level of ice comes down
(b) The water in the glass vessel simply freezes to ice
(c) The glass vessel breaks due to expansion as water freezes to ice
(d) The water does not freeze at all
Ans: (c)
23. Match the List I (Crystals) with List II (Type/Structure).
List I List II
A. Ice 1. Conductivity covalent solid
B. Solid CO2 2. Insulator
C. Graphite 3. Molecular crystal
D. Silica 4. Hydrogen bonded structure
Codes A B C D
(a) 3 1 2 4
(b) 4 3 1 2
(c) 1 2 3 4
(d) 2 3 1 4
Ans: (b)
24. Ammonia (NH3) obtained from different sources always has same proportion of nitrogen and hydrogen. It proves the validity of law of
(a) reciprocal proportion
(b) constant proportion
(c) multiple proportions
(d) None of the above
Ans: (b)
25. At absolute zero, which one of the following is zero for a gas?
(a) Potential energy
(b) Kinetic energy
(c) Vibration energy
(d) None of these
Ans: (b)
26. Consider the following statements
1. Liquid state in intermediate between solid state and gaseous state as regards to interparticle, packing of particles, etc.
2. Evaporation increases with increase in surface area, increase in temperature and decrease in intermolecular attractive forces.
3. Boiling point of a liquid increases with increase in external pressure.
Which of the statement given above are correct?
(a) 1 and 2 (b) 2 and 3
(c) 1 and 3
(d) 1, 2 and 3
Ans: (d)
27. Why do two ice blocks join to form one block when pressed together?
(a) Melting point of ice is lowered with increase in pressure
(b) Melting point of ice increases with increase in pressure
(c) Melting point of ice remains unchanged with increase in pressure
(d) Melting point of ice is 0°C
Ans: (a)
28. A balloon filled with ethyne is pricked with a sharp point and quickly dropped in a tank of H2 gas under identical conditions. After a while the balloon will have
(a) shrunk
(b) enlarged
(c) completely collapsed
(d) remained unchanged in size
Ans: (b)
29. An ideal gas is one which obeys
(a) Gas law (b) Boyle’s law
(c) Charles’ law (d) Avogadro’s law
Ans: (a)
30. Which one of the following is used as an anti-freezer, which effectively depresses the freezing point of water in an automobile?
(a) Ethylene glycol (b) Propanoic acid
(c) Glutamic acid
(d) Glycolic acid
Ans: (a)
31. Consider the followings
1. Viscosity is the reciprocal of fluidity.
2. Molecular interactions between molecules is in order Solid > Liquid > Gas.
3. If surface area increases, rate of evaporation decreases.
4. Glass is a supercooled liquid.
Which of the above is/are true?
(a) Only 2 (b) 2 and 3
(c) 1, 2 and 4 (d) 2, 3 and 4
Ans: (c)
32. What is the term used to denote the critical temperature at which the air becomes saturated with vapour and below which the condensation is likely to begin?
(a) Condensation point
(b) Evaporation point
(c) Dew point
(d) Point of critical temperature
Ans: (c)
33. Consider the following statements
1. The difference between the moisture-holding capacity of air and its actual humidity is called saturation deficit.
2. The temperature to which air has to be cooled in order to reach saturation is called dew point.
Which of the statement(s) given above is/are correct?
(a) Only 1 (b) Only 2
(c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2
Ans: (c)
34. Consider the following statements
1. A real gas can be approximated as an ideal gas when it is highly dilute.
2. Only monoatomic gases can be approximated as ideal gases.
3. An ideal gas does not undergo phase transitions.
Which of the above statements are correct?
(a) 1 and 2 (b) 1 and 3
(c) 2 and 3 (d) 1, 2 and 3
Ans: (b)
35. In winter season specially in cold countries, ethylene glycol is added to water in the radiators of cars. It results in
(a) reducing the viscosity of water
(b) lowering the freezing point of water
(c) lowering the boiling point of water
(d) reducing the specific heat of water
Ans: (b)
36. According to which one of the following laws it is indicated that when two or more gases react with one another, their volumes bear a simple ratio?
(a) Law of mass action
(b) Law of multiple proportions
(c) Law of reciprocal proportions
(d) Law of combining volumes
Ans: (d)
37. Silica in amorphous form is used in
(a) photovoltaic cell
(b) conductivity cell
(c) standard hydrogen electrode
(d) None of the above
Ans: (a)
38. Which one of the following elements exists in liquid state at room temperature?
(a) Mercury (b) Lead
(c) Sodium (d) Calcium
Ans: (a)
39. Assertion (A) All liquids are conductors of electricity.
Reason (R) Under the condition of low pressure and high voltage, liquids can be made conducting.
Codes
(a) Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A
(b) Both A and R are true, but R is not the correct explanation of A
(c) A is true, but R is false
(d) A is false, but R is true
Ans: (d)
40. Air at sea level is found to be dense. This is in accordance with
(a) Boyle’s law
(b) Charles’ law
(c) Dalton’s law
(d) Avogadro’s law
Ans: (a)
41. Consider the following statements
1. Density of water is maximum at 277 K.
2. Density of water increases from 273 to 277 K and beyond this decreases as expansion predominates.
3. Due to extensive hydrogen bonding, water has a very high heat capacity. Select the correct statements.
(a) 1 and 2 (b) 2 and 3
(c) 1 and 3 (d) 1, 2 and 3
Ans: (d)
42. Some of the following properties are transport properties
1. Viscosity
2. Surface tension
3. Thermal conductance
4. Diffusion Select the correct alternate of transport properties.
(a) 1, 2, 3, 4 (b) 1, 3, 4
(c) 1, 3 (d) 3, 4
Ans: (b)
43. The latest discovered state of matter is
(a) solid
(b) Bose-Einstein condensate
(c) plasma
(d) liquid
Ans: (b)
44. On increasing pressure, melting point of ice
(a) decreases
(b) increases
(c) remains unchanged
(d) changes in regular manner
Ans: (a)
45. Consider the following statements
1. All liquids have concave meniscus.
2. All liquids have convex meniscus.
3. Mercury has convex and other liquids have concave meniscus.
4. Mercury has concave and other liquids have convex meniscus.
Which of the above is/are true?
(a) Only 1 (b) 2 and 3
(c) Only 3 (d) None of these
Ans: (c)
46. Unit of viscosity is
(a) poise (b) dyne/cm
(c) joule/m2 (d) joule
Ans: (a)
47. When a gas is compressed at constant temperature
(a) the speeds of the molecules decrease
(b) the speeds of themolecules increase
(c) the collisions between the molecules increase
(d) the collisions between the molecules decrease
Ans: (c)
48. Consider the following statements
1. One water molecule forms four H-bonds.
2. Water has high boiling point due to hydrogen bonding.
3. When ice is melt, collapse of structure leads to increase in density.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a) 1, 2 and 3 (b) 1 and 3
(c) 2 and 3 (d) Only 2
Ans: (a)
49. Consider the following statements
1. Gases are compressible fluids.
2. The molecular interaction energy practically over powers the thermal energy in solid state.
3. Molecular interactions between molecules are identical in stream, water and ice.
4. Liquid is incompressible fluid.
Which of the above is/are false?
(a) Only 1 (b) Only 3
(c) 3 and 4 d) 1 and 2
Ans: (b)
50. The mass of water vapour per unit volume of air is known as
(a) relative humidity
(b) specific humidity
(c) absolute humidity
(d) variable humidity
Ans: (c)
51. Kinematic viscosity of a given liquid is the ratio of the
(a) coefficient of viscosity to the density
(b) coefficient of viscosity to the surface tension
(c) density to the coefficient of viscosity
(d) surface tension to the coefficient of viscosity
Ans: (a)
52. The rate of evaporation increases with
(a) an increase of surface area
(b) an increase of temperature
(c) a decrease in humidity
(d) All of the above
Ans: (d)
53. Consider the following statements
1. Liquid lead does not wet a solid iron surface since the interfacial tension between these two phases is quite large.
2. Alloys of tin and lead are used in soldering because the interfacial tension between the liquid and solid is reduced and the liquid flows over the solid surface.
3. Ice has a sharp melting point whereas glass melts over a range of temperature.
Which of the above statement(s) is/are correct?
(a) Only 1 (b) Only 2
(c) 2 and 3 (d) 1, 2 and 3
Ans: (d)
54. Consider the following statements
1. Super critical CO2 (SCO2) is ideally suited in food processing and production of pharmaceuticals.
2. The best scientific method to test the presence of water in a liquid is use of anhydrous CuSO4.
3. A great advantage of SCO2 is that there are no noxious residues once the solvent has been allowed to evaporate.
Which of the above is/are true?
(a) Only 1
(b) Only 2
(c) 2 and 3
(d) 1, 2 and 3
Ans: (d)
55. Match the term in List I with its definition in List II.
List I List II
A. Sublimation 1. The change of a gas to a solid.
B. Deposition 2. The change of a gas to a liquid.
C. Condensation 3. The change of a liquid to a gas.
D. Vaporisation 4. The change of a solid to a gas.
Codes A B C D
(a) 2 3 4 1
(b) 1 2 3 4
(c) 4 1 2 3
(d) 3 4 1 2
Ans: (c)
56. Note the following balanced chemical equation (2CO + O2 2CO2) Which one of the following statements is significant in relation to the above chemical equation?
(a) One can add to a vessel only 2 mol of CO for each mol of O2 is added
(b) No matter how much of these two reagents are added to a vessel, 1 mol of O2 is consumed
(c) When they react, CO reacts with O2 in a 2 : 1 mol ratio
(d) When 2 mol of CO and 1 mol of O2 are placed in a vessel, they will react to give 1 mol of CO2
Ans: (c)
57. Amorphous materials are in fact considered as
(a) supercooled liquids
(b) supercooled solids
(c) covalent network
(d) molecular crystals
Ans: (a)
58. Consider the following statements
1. As pressure increases, volume increases at constant temperature.
2. As pressure increases, volume decreases at constant temperature.
3. As temperature increases, pressure decreases at constant volume.
4. As temperature increases, pressure increases at constant volume.
Which of the above is a correct statement of Gay-Lussac’s law describing the behaviour of a fixed amount of gas?
(a) Only 1 (b) Only 2
(c) Only 3 (d) Only 4
Ans: (d)
59. In general equation pV /nRT, V is the volume of
(a) n mole of a gas
(b) any amount of gas
(c) one mole of a gas
(d) one gram of a gas
Ans: (a)
60. When a solid a heated, it turns directly into a gas. This process is called
(a) Condensation
(b) Evaporation
(c) Sublimation (d) Diffusion
Ans: (c)
61. Consider the following statements.
1. Evaporation is a surface phenomenon.
2. The rate of evaporation depends upon the surface area exposed to the atmosphere, the temperature, the humidity and the wind speed.
3. Evaporation causes cooling.
Which of the statements given above are correct about evaporation?
(a) 1 and 2 (b) 1 and 3
(c) 2 and 3 (d) 1, 2 and 3
Ans: (c)
62. Phase change from gas to solid is called
(a) sublimation (b) deposition
(c) fusion (d) vaporisation
Ans: (b)
63. Consider the following statements about plasma state
1. Plasma state consists of super energetic and super excited particles.
2. These particles are in the form of ionised gases.
3. The fluorescent tube and neon sign bulbs consist of plasma.
4. The sun and the stars glow because of the presence of plasma in them.
Which of the statement given above are correct?
(a) 1 and 2 (b) 2 and 3
(c) 1, 2 and 3 (d) All of these
Ans: (d)
64. Consider the following statements
1. The forces of attraction between the particles are maximum in solids, intermediate in liquids and minimum in gases.
2. Sublimation is the change of solid state directly into gaseous state without going through liquid state and vice-versa.
Which of the statement(s) given above is/are correct?
(a) Only 1 (b) Only 2
(c) 1 and 2 (d) None of these
Ans: (c)
65. Consider the following statements In gaseous state
1. the molecule are very loosely packed having large empty space between them.
2. molecules move very rapidly in all directions in a random manner.
3. the molecules collide with one another and also with walls of the container with perfectly elastic collisions.
Which of the statements given above are correct?
(a) 1 and 2 (b) 2 and 3
(c) 1 and 3 (d) 1, 2 and 3
Ans: (d)
66. Consider the following statements
1. The particles of nail polish remover pour on your palm, the particles gain energy from your palm or surroundings and evaporate causing the palm to feel cool.
2. After a hot sunny day, people sprinkle water on the roof or open ground because the large latent heat of vaporisation of water helps to cool the hot surface.
Which of the statement(s) given above is/are correct?
(a) Only 1 (b) Only 2
(c) 1 and 2 (d) None of these
Ans: (c)
67. Assertion (A) All molecules of an ideal gas move with the same speed.
Reason (R) There is no attraction between the molecules in an ideal gas.
Codes
(a) Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A
(b) Both A and R are true, but R is not the correct explanation of A
(c) A is true, but R is false
(d) A is false, but R is true
Ans: (c)
68. Creation of something from nothing is against the law of
(a) constant proportions
(b) conservation of mass-energy
(c) multiple proportions
Ans: (b)
Part 2 Atomic Structure
69. Who among the following proposed that atom is indivisible?
(a) Dalton (b) Berzelius
(c) Rutherford (d) Avogadro
Ans: (a)
70. Which of the following is a correct statement about proton?
(a) It is a nucleus of deuterium
(b) It is an ionised hydrogen atom
(c) It is an ionised hydrogen molecule
(d) It is a particle
Ans: (b)
71. Match the List I with List II.
List I List II
A. Proton 1. Rutherford
B. Electron 2. Chadwick
C. Neutron 3. Thomson
D. Nucleus 4. Goldstein
Codes A B C D A B C D
(a) 4 3 2 1 (b) 3 2 1 4
(c) 2 1 4 3 (d) 1 4 3 2
Ans: (a)
72. The absolute value of charge on electron was determined by
(a) JJ Thomson (b) Rutherford
(c) Priestly (d) RA Millikan
Ans: (d)
73. Consider the following statements in respect of hydrogen atom It can attain the stability
1. by losing an electron
2. by gaining an electron
3. by forming an electron pair with other atom
Which of the statements given above are correct?
(a) 1 and 3 (b) 1 and 2
(c) 2 and 3 (d) 1, 2 and 3
Ans: (d)
74. Match the List I and List II and select the correct answer using the codes given below the lists.
List I (Characteristic) List II (Particle)
A. Zero mass 1. Positron
B. Fractional charge 2. Neutrino
C. Fractional spin 3. Quark
D. Integral spin 4. Photon
Codes A B C D A B C D
(a) 2 3 1 4 (b) 3 2 4 1
(c) 2 3 4 1 (d) 3 2 1 4
Ans: (a)
75. Two atoms are said to be isotopes if
(a) they have the same atomic number, but different mass numbers
(b) they have the same number of neutrons, but different mass numbers
(c) the sum of the number of protons and neutrons is the same, but the number of protons is different
(d) they have the same number of neutrons, but different modes of radioactive decay
Ans: (a)
76. Which of the following pair(s) is/are correctly matched?
1. Isotopes Atoms with same atomic number but different atomic mass.
2. Isobars Atoms with same number of neutrons but different atomic number.
3. Isotones Atoms with same mass number but different atomic number. Select the correct answer using the codes given below.
(a) 1, 2 and 3
(b) Only 1
(c) 1 and 2
(d) Only 2
Ans: (b)
77. The number of unpaired electrons in Mn2+is
(a) 1 (b) 3 (c) 4 (d) 5
Ans: (d)
78. Which of the recent developments has proved the existence of atoms?
(a) Scanning tunneling microscopy
(b) X-ray diffraction
(c) Infrared spectroscopy
(d) Mass spectroscopy
Ans: (a)
79. An atom has 7 electrons in its M-shell and contains 18 neutrons in its nucleus. What is its mass number?
(a) 25 (b) 27 (c) 35 (d) 43
Ans: (c)
80. Which of the following orbital diagram violates Pauli’s exclusion principle?
Ans: (b)
81. In an atomic nucleus, neutrons and protons are held together by
(a) gravitational forces
(b) magnetic forces
(c) exchange forces
(d) coulombic forces
Ans: (d)
82. Match the rule given in List I with the statement given in List II.
List I List II
A. Pauli’s exclusion principle 1. In orbitals of equivalent energy electron spins remain unpaired if possible
B. Hund’s rule 2. Transition from the higher shell to K-shell
C. Lyman series 3. The effect of magnetic field on the atomic spectra
D. Zeeman effect 4. No two electrons can have the same four quantum numbers
Codes A B C D A B C D
(a) 1 2 3 4 (b) 4 1 2 3
(c) 2 3 4 1 (d) 3 4 1 2
Ans: (b)
83. The ratio of specific charge of a proton and an α-particle is
(a) 2 : 1 (b) 1 : 1 (c) 1 : 4 (d) 1 : 2
Ans: (d)
84. Which of the following statements with regard to isotopes and isobars is/are correct?
1. Isotopes have same mass number.
2. Isobars have same atomic number. Select the correct answer using the codes given below.
(a) Only 1 (b) Only 2
(c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2
Ans: (d)
85. Which of the following assumes integral values in Bohr’s atomic model?
(a) Linear momentum
(b) Angular momentum
(c) Kinetic energy
(d) None of the above
Ans: (b)
86. The nucleus of a singly ionized carbon atom contains
(a) 6 protons and 6 neutrons
(b) 5 protons and 6 neutrons
(c) 6 protons, 6 neutrons and 6 electrons
(d) 12 protons, 6 neutrons and 6 electrons
Ans: (a)
87. The constituent particles of a nucleus in an atom are
(a) electron and proton
(b) proton and neutron
(c) electron and neutron
(d) electron, proton and neutron
Ans: (b)
88. Which one of the following element has two electrons in the K-shell only?
(a) Hydrogen (b) Helium
(c) Neon (d) Sulphur
Ans: (b)
89. Match List I and List II.
List I List II
A. Thomson’s model 1. Dual nature of electron
B. Rutherford model 2. Nuclear theory
C. Bohr’s model 3. Plum pudding model
D. de-Broglie theory 4. Concept of quantization of energy
Codes A B C D
(a) 3 4 2 1
(b) 2 4 1 3
(c) 2 1 3 4
(d) 3 2 4 1
Ans: (d)
90. In an atom, the order of filling up of the orbitals is governed by
(a) Aufbau’s principle
(b) Heisenberg’s uncertainty principle
(c) Hund’s rule
(d) Pauli’s exclusion principle
Ans: (a)
91. Regarding the atom of a chemical element, the magnetic quantum number refers to
(a) orientation (b) shape
(c) size (d) spin
Ans: (a)
92. Which one of the following statements is correct?
(a) Only electrons reside inside the nucleus of an atom
(b) Both electrons and protons reside inside the nucleus of an atom
(c) Only neutrons reside inside the nucleus of an atom
(d) Both protons and neutrons can reside inside the nucleus of an atom
Ans: (d)
93. Consider the following statements
1. An atom consists of a positively charged sphere and the electrons are embedded in it.
2. The negative and positive charges are equal in magnitude. So, the atom as a whole in electrically neutral.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct about Thomson’s model of an atom?
(a) Only 1 (b) Only 2
(c) 1 and 2 both (d) None of these
Ans: (c)
94. Match the List I (Discovery) with List II (Scientist) and select the correct answer using the codes given below the List.
List I (Discovery) List II (Scientist)
A. Radioactivity 1. Moseley
B. Quantum theory 2. Planck
C. Theory of photo electric effect 3. Becquerel
D. Atomic number 4. Einstein 5. Rutherford
Codes A B C D A B C D
(a) 3 2 4 1 (b) 4 5 3 2
(c) 3 5 4 2 (d) 4 2 3 1
Ans: (a)
95. A monatomic species that has 18 electrons and a net charge of 2–has
(a) the same number of electrons as a neutral argon atom
(b) more protons than electrons
(c) 2 unpaired electrons
(d) 20 protons
Ans: (a)
96. Rutherford’s model of atom is considered unsuitable because
(a) a positively charged nucleus remain separated from negatively charged electrons
(b) an accelerated electron would continuously lose energy in the form of radiation
(c) nuclear mass is not sufficiently heavy to keep the light electron in its orbit
(d) the centre of gravity of the system would be with in the volume of the nucleus
Ans: (b)
97. Match the type of series given in List I with wavelength range given in List II.
List I List II
A. Lyman 1. Ultraviolet
B. Paschen 2. Near infrared
C. Balmer 3. Far infrared
D. Pfund 4. Visible
Codes A B C D A B C D
(a) 2 4 3 1 (b) 1 2 4 3
(c) 4 3 2 1 (d) 3 1 2 4
Ans: (b)
98. Consider the following statements
1. J.J Thomson was the first one to propose a model for the structure of an atom.
2. Rutherford disigned an experiment for the arrangement of electrons with in an atom. In this experiment, fast moving alpha particles were made to fall on a thin gold foil.
Which of the statement(s) given above is/are correct?
(a) Only 1
(b) Only 2
(c) 1 and 2
(d) None of these
Ans: (c)
99. Consider the following statements
1. An electronic emission spectrum will contain more lines than the corresponding absorptions.
2. In any p-orbital there are maximum of six electrons.
3. Absolute value of the charge of the electron was determined by Millikan.
4. Electron in the H-atom in its ground state can absorb energy but can’t emit energy.
Which of the above is/are true?
(a) Only 1
(b) 2 and 3
(c) 1, 3 and 4
(d) All of the above
Ans: (c)
100. Which one among the following statements about an atom is not correct?
(a) Atoms always combine to form molecule
(b) Atoms are the basic units from which molecules and ions are formed
(c) Atoms are always neutral in nature
(d) Atoms aggregate in large numbers to form the matter we can see, feel and touch
Ans: (d)
101. Which one among the following transitions of electron of hydrogen atom emits radiation of the shortest wavelength?
(a) n/2 to n/1 (b) n/3 to n/2
(c) n /4 to n /3 (d) n/5 to n/4
Ans: (a)
102. Which of the following statements does not form a part of Bohr’s model of hydrogen atom?
(a) Energy of the electrons in the orbit is quantised
(b) The electron in the orbit nearest the nucleus has the lowest energy
(c) Electrons revolve in different orbits around the nucleus
(d) The position and velocity of the electrons in the orbital cannot be determined simultaneously
Ans: (d)
103. A body is charged negatively. It implies that
(a) it has lost some of its protons
(b) it has lost some of its electrons
(c) it has gained some electrons from outside
(d) None of the above
Ans: (c)
104. In an X-ray tube, a potential difference of several thousand volts accelerates electrons which then hit the target and X-rays are emitted. Why are the X-rays emitted?
(a) Because of electron transition in an atom
(b) Because of removal of an electron from an atom
(c) Because electrons get decelerated
(d) Because of the heat prodacuced in the collision
Ans: (c)
105. In which one of the following is the valence electronic configuration,ns2 np3 found?
(a) Carbon (b) Oxygen
(c) Nitrogen (d) Argon
Ans: (c)
106. Which of the following are the properties of an electron?
1. Electron is a constituent of cathode ray.
2. Electron is a negatively charged particle.
3. The mass of the electron is equal to the mass of the proton.
4. Electron is deflected by the electric field but not by magnetic field. Select the correct answer using the code given below.
(a) 1 and 2 (b) 1, 2 and 3
(c) 3 and 4 (d) 1 and 4
Ans: (a)
107. Which of the following is the correct statement about proton?
(a) Proton is nucleus of deuterium
(b) Proton is α-particle
(c) Proton is ionized hydrogen molecule
(d) Proton is ionized hydrogen
Ans: (d)
108. Which one of the following is the correct configuration for Fe3+(Z /26)?
(a) 4s23d6
(b) 4s23d3
(c) 3d5
(d) 4s23d4
Ans: (c)
109. p-orbitals in a given shell can accommodate up to
(a) four electrons
(b) two electrons with parallel spin
(c) six electrons
(d) two electrons with opposite spins
Ans: (c)
110. Propagation of light quanta may be described by
(a) photons (b) protons
(c) neutrons (d) electrons
Ans: (a)
111. Which one of the following is the electronic configuration of the bivalent calcium Ca2+?
(a) 3s23p6
(b) 3s23p4
(c) 4s2
(d) 3s23p6
Ans: (a)
112. Match the principle in Column I with discoverer in Column II.
List I (Principle) List II (Discoverer)
A. Exclusion principle 1. Hund
B. Multiplicity rule 2. Heisenberg
C. Uncertainty principle 3. Planck
D. Quantum theory 4. Pauli Select the correct answer using the codes given below the columns. A B C D
(a) 2 3 4 1
(b) 3 4 1 2
(c) 4 1 2 3
(d) 1 2 4 3
Ans: (c)
113. Which involves the emission of least energy in the hydrogen atom?
(a) An electron moving fromn/4 to n/2
(b) An electron moving from n/3 to n/2
(c) An electron moving from n/4 to n/1
(d) An electron moving from n/5 to n/2
Ans: (b)
114. Consider the following four particles
1. Alpha particle 2. Proton
3. Electron 4. Neutron
Which of the following is the correct sequence in which their rest masses increase?
(a) 3-4-2-1 (b) 4-2-3-1
(c) 3-2-4-1
(d) 2-3-1-4
Ans: (c)
115. Rutherford’s experiment, which established the nuclear model of the atom used a beam of
(a) -particles which impinged on a metal foil and got absorbed
(b) -rays, which impinged on a metal foil and ejected electrons
(c) helium atoms, which impinged on a metal foil and got scattered
(d) helium nuclei, which impinged on a metal foil and got scattered
Ans: (d)
116. Consider the following
1. The energy of the electrons in the orbit is quantised.
2. Electrons revolve only in those orbits for which angular momentum is an integral multiple of h / 2.
3. The electrons revolve in different orbits around the nucleus.
4. The electrons emit energy during revolution due to the presence of Coulombic forces of attraction.
Which of the above is/are false about Bohr’s model of atom?
(a) Only 1 (b) 1 and 4
(c) Only 4 (d) 2 and 3
Ans: (b)
117. Some sub-nuclear particles are
1. antiproton
2. -meson
3. -meson
4. neutrino
5. positron Increasing order of year of discovery is (starting from the earliest)
(a) 5 < 2 < 3 < 1 < 4
(b) 5< 4 < 3 < 2 < 1
(c) 1 < 2 < 3 < 4 < 5
(d) 5< 3 < 4 < 2 < 1
Ans: (a)
118. Which one of the following has the longest wavelength?
(a) Ultraviolet radiation
(b) -radiation
(c) Visible radiation
(d) Infrared radiation
Ans: (d)
119. Which one among the following is the most appropriate statement with respect to the atomic weight of an element?
(a) The atomic weight of an element is the sum total of the number of protons and neutrons present in the atom of an element
(b) Unlike mass number, the atomic weight of an element can be a fraction
(c) The atomic weight of an element is a whole number
(d) The atomic weight of all the atoms in an element is the same
Ans: (b)
120. Which one of the following statements is not correct?
(a) Atoms of different elements may have same mass numbers.
(b) Atoms of an element may have different mass numbers.
(c) All the atoms of an element have same number of protons.
(d) All the atoms of an element will always have same number of neutrons.
Ans: (d)
121. Neutron is a fundamental particle carrying
(a) a charge of +1 and mass of 1 unit
(b) no charge and no mass
(c) no charge and a mass of 1 unit
(d) a charge of –1and a mass of 1 unit
Ans: (c)
122. Consider the following statements
1. J.J Thomson proposed that electrons are embedded in a positive sphere.
2. Rutherford’s model of the atom proposed that a very tiny nucleus is present inside the atom and electrons revolve around this nucleus.
3. Neils Bohr’s model proposed that electrons are distributed in different shells with discrete energy around the nucleus. If the atomic shells are complete, then the atom will be stable and less reactive.
Which of the statements given above are correct?
(a) 1 and 2 (b) 2 and 3
(c) 1 and 3 (d) 1, 2 and 3
Ans: (d)
123. Consider the following statements
1. The positive charge is essentially immovable because it contains practically all the mass of the atom.
2. Atom is the smallest indivisible particles of an element which takes part in a chemical reaction.
Which of the above is/are correct?
(a) Only 1 (b) Only 2
(c) 1 and 2 (d) None of these
Ans: (c)
124. An atom of carbon has 6 protons. Its mass number is 12. How many neutrons are present in an atom of carbon?
(a) 12 (b) 6 (c) 10 (d) 14
Ans: (b)
125. Consider the following statements
1. Clusters of atoms that act as an ion are called polyatomic ions.
2. In ionic compounds, the charge on each ion is used to determined the chemical formula of the compound.
Which of the statement(s) given above is/are correct?
(a) Only 1 (b) Only 2
(c) 1 and 2 (d) None of these
Ans: (c)
126. Consider the following statements
1. The neutron was discovered in 1932 by bombarding beryllium with α-rays.
2. The electron and proton have equal but opposite electron charges.
3. The neutron is not charged.
Which of the statements given above are correct?
(a) 1 and 2 (b) 2 and 3
(c) 1 and 3 (d) 1, 2 and 3
Ans: (d)
127. Which one of the following statements is correct?
(a) Rutherford’s alpha-particle scattering experiment led to the discovery of electron.
(b) JJ Thomson suggested that the nucleus of an atomcontains protons.
(c) The atomic number of an element is the same as the number of protons in the nucleus of its atom.
(d) The mass number of an atom is equal to the number of electrons in its shells.
Ans: (c)
128. The mass number of an atom is determined by
(a) adding the number for neutrons and number of electrons
(b) adding the number of protons and number of electrons
(c) the number of protons only
(d) adding the number of neutrons and number of protons
Ans: (d)
129. The most of the mass of the atom can be found in
(a) electrons (b) charges
(c) nucleus (d) electron cloud
Ans: (c)
Part 3 Radioactivity
130. Consider the following statements with reference to X-rays
1. They produce heat when absorbed by matter.
2. They are generated when fast moving electrons strike a metal target.
3. They can penetrate through a thin sheet of aluminium.
Which of the statements given above are correct?
(a) 1, 2 and 3 (b) 1 and 2
(c) 2 and 3
(d) 1 and 3
Ans: (a)
131. Radioactive substance used in dating geological object is
(a) C-12 (b) C-11
(c) C-14 (d) None of these
Ans: (c)
132. Which of the following statements regarding heavy water are correct?
1. It is extensively used as a moderator in nuclear reactors.
2. It cannot be used in exchange reaction to study reactionmechanism.
3. Viscosity of heavy water is relatively smaller than that of ordinary water.
4. The dielectric constant of heavy water is smaller than that of ordinary water. Select the correct answer using the code given below
(a) 1 and 2 (b) 2 and 3
(c) 3 and 4 (d) 1 and 4
Ans: (d)
133. Match the following
List I (Radioisotope) List II (Application)
A. Cobalt-60 1. Leukemia therapy
B. Potassium-40 2. Thyroid therapy
C. Iodine-131 3. Geological dating
D. Phosphorus-32 4. Cancer therapy
E. Carbon-14 5. Archaeological dating
Codes A B C D E
(a) 1 2 3 4 5
(b) 5 4 3 2 1
(c) 4 3 2 1 5
(d) 4 3 2 5 1
Ans: (c)
134. Nuclear fission is caused by the impact of
(a) proton
(b) electron
(c) neutron
(d) None of the above
Ans: (c)
135. Which one of the following is correctly matched?
List I List II
A. Co-60 1. Circulation of blood
B. I-131 2. Treatment of tumours
C. P-32 3. Leukemia
D. Na-24 4. Treatment of goitre
Codes
(a) A-1 (b)B-2 (c) C-3 (d) D-4
Ans: (c)
136. Consider the following statements In a nuclear reactor, self-sustained chain reaction is possible, because
1. more neutrons are released in each of the fission reactions.
2. the neutrons immediately take part in the fission process.
3. the fast neutrons are slowed down by graphite.
4. every neutron released in the fission reaction initiates further fission.
Which of the statements given above are correct?
(a) 1, 2 and 3 (b) 1 and 3
(c) 2 and 4 (d) 2, 3 and 4
Ans: (a)
137. Which one of the following has highest frequency?
(a) Cosmic rays (b) X-rays
(c) Radio waves (d) Microwaves
Ans: (a)
138. Which electromagnetic radiation is emitted by radioactive substances?
(a) -rays (b) Radio waves
(c) Microwaves (d) X-rays
Ans: (a)
139. The function of heavy water in a nuclear reactor is to
(a) slow down the speed of neutrons
(b) increase the speed of neutrons
(c) cool down the reactor
(d) stop the nuclear reaction
Ans: (a)
140. Which of the following isotopes of carbon is/are used in carbon dating?
(a) 6C12 only (b) 6C13 only
(c) 6C14 only (d) 6C12 and 6C14
Ans: (c)
141. Which one of the following is used as a moderator in the nuclear reactor?
(a) Thorium
(b) Graphite
(c) Radium
(d) Ordinary water
Ans: (b)
142. Consider the following substances
1. Heavy water 2. Graphite
Which of the substances given above is/are used as a moderator in a nuclear reactor?
(a) Only 1 (b) Only 2
(c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2
Ans: (c)
143. Which of the following has the least penetrating power?
(a) Alpha particles
(b) Beta particles
(c) Gamma rays
(d) All have the same penetrating power
Ans: (a)
144. In an atomic explosion, enormous energy is released which is due to the
(a) conversion of neutrons into protons
(b) conversion of chemical energy into heat energy
(c) conversion of chemical energy into nuclear energy
(d) conversion of mass into energy
Ans: (d)
145. What is the correct ascending order for frequencies of the following radiations?
1. Visible 2. X-rays
3. Ultraviolet 4. Radio waves
Codes
(a) 1, 3, 2, 4 (b) 3, 2, 4, 1
(c) 4, 1, 3, 2 (d) 4, 3, 1, 2
Ans: (c)
146. By which one of the following an old written material which cannot be read easily, can be read?
(a) -rays (b) X-rays
(c) IR-rays
(d) Radio frequency waves
Ans: (c)
147. Which of the following is used as a coolant in nuclear reactors?
(a) Heavy water (b) Cadmium
(c) Liquid sodium (d) Graphite
Ans: (c)
148. In spontaneous beta particle (–1) emission, what is the source of emitted electron?
(a) The nucleus (b) The 1s-orbital
(c) The outermost occupied orbital
(d) A random orbital
Ans: (a)
149. Consider the following statements X-rays
1. can pass through aluminium.
2. can be deflected by magnetic field.
3. move with a velocity less than the velocity of ultraviolet rays in vacuum.
Which of the statement(s) given above is/are correct?
(a) 1, 2 and 3 (b) Only 1
(c) 2 and 3 (d) 1 and 2
Ans: (b)
150. Which of the following is good nuclear fuel?
(a) Uranium-238 (b) Neptunium-239
(c) Thorium-236 (d) Plutonium-239
Ans: (a)
151. X-rays comprise of
(a) electrons only (b) protons only
(c) neutrons only
(d) electromagnetic radiations
Ans: (d)
152. Which one of the following is not radioactive?
(a) Astatine (b) Francium
(c) Tritium (d) Zirconium
Ans: (d)
153. Consider the following statements
1. Carbon-14 dating can determine the age of an artifact, that is up to 40000 year old.
2. After burning a small piece of an artifact, scientists compare the amount of Carbon-14 to the amount of Carbon-12 to determine the age of the object.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a) Only 1 (b) Only 2
(c) 1 and 2 (d) None of these
Ans: (c)
154. Enriched uranium used in a nuclear reactor is
(a) uranium freed of all impurities
(b) uranium alloyed with aluminum
(c) uranium treated with radiation
(d) uranium with a high percentage of a particular isotope
Ans: (d)
155. The function of heavy water in a nuclear reactor is to
(a) slowing down the speed of neutrons
(b) increase the speed of neutrons
(c) cooling down the reactor
(d) stop the nuclear reaction
Ans: (a)
156. Which one of the following is heavy water used in nuclear reactor?
(a) Water having molecular weight 18 u
(b) Water having molecular weight 20 u
(c) Water at 4°C but having molecular weight 19 u
(d) Water below the ice in a frozen sea
Ans: (b)
157. Radio carbon dating is used to estimate the age of
(a) rocks (b) old monuments
(c) fossils (d) living trees
Ans: (c)
158. A nuclear explosion for peaceful purposes is used for
(a) power generation
(b) making tunnels and roads
(c) production of radio isotopes
(d) jet propulsion
Ans: (b)
159. The α-particle carries two positive charges. Its mass is very nearly equal to that of
(a) two protons
(b) an atom of helium
(c) sum of masses of two positrons and two neutrons
(d) two positions as each positron carries a single positive charge
Ans: (b)
160. The age of earth can be estimated by
(a) radio carbon dating
(b) radio uranium dating
(c) by its magnetic field
(d) by its precession movement
Ans: (b)
161. Study the following statements.
1. Successive emission of 1αand 2-particles results in the formation of isotopes.
2. -rays are not affected in magnetic or electric field.
3. -rays have least penetrating power.
4. Nuclear-fusion chain initiation is endothermic but further reaction is exothermic.
Which of the below is/are true?
(a) Only 1 (b) 1 and 2
(c) 3 and 4 (d) All of these
Ans: (b)
162. The phenomenon of radioactivity was discovered by
(a) Marie Curie (b) Pierre Curie
(c) Henri Becquerel (d) J.J Thomson
Ans: (c)
163. In which categories did Marie Curie win her two different Nobel prizes?
(a) Physics and Chemistry
(b) Chemistry and Medicine
(c) Physics and Medicine
(d) Chemistry and Peace
Ans: (a)
164. The difference between a nuclear reactor and atomic bomb is that
(a) no chain reaction takes place in nuclear reactor is not controlled.
(b) the chain reaction in nuclear reactor is controlled.
(c) the chain reaction in nuclear reactor is not controlled.
(d) no-chain reaction takes place in atomic bomb while it takes place in nuclear reactor.
Ans: (b)
165. Enriched uranium means
(a) uranium with high concentration of U-233
(b) uranium with high concentration of U-235
(c) uranium with high concentration of U-238
(d) uranium exposed to neutron radiation
Ans: (b)
166. Which one of the following elements is essential for construction in nuclear reactors?
(a) Cobalt (b) Nickel
(c) Zirconium
(d) Tungsten
Ans: (c)
167. The energy produced in stars by
(a) nuclear fission (b) nuclear fusion
(c) exothermic chemical reactions
(d) radioactive decay
Ans: (b)
168. Radioactivity is a natural disintegration of nuclei of heavy elements because only heavy elements
(a) contain alpha particles
(b) can have unstable nuclei with neutron : proton ratio being quite uneven
(c) contain excess of neutrons
(d) can produce lead as the end product
Ans: (b)
169. Which radioactive pollutant has recently drawn the attention of the public, due to its occurrence in the building material?
(a) Radium (b) Plutonium
(c) Radon (d) Thorium
Ans: (d)
170. Which one among the following is the mean life of radioactive elements?
(a) Equal to half-life
(b) Less than half-life
(c) 0.693 t 1 2
(d) 1.44 t 1 2
Ans: (d)
171. Match List I and List II and select the correct answer using the code given below the List.
List I (Nuclear reactor components) List II (Substance used)
A. Moderator 1. Sodium
B. Control rods 2. Uranium
C. Fuel rods 3. Graphite
D. Coolant 4. Boron
Codes A B C D
(a) 3 4 2 1
(b) 1 2 4 3
(c) 3 1 2 4
(d) 2 4 1 3
Ans: (a)
172. Consider the following statements
1. Radioisotopes are unstable isotopes which decay and give out radioactive emissions.
2. Radioisotopes detecting leaks in underground pipeline.
3. Nuclear medicine is a branch of medicine that uses radiation to provide information about the function of the specific organs of a patient or to treat disease.
Which of the statements given above are correct?
(a) 1 and 2 (b) 1 and 3
(c) 2 and 3 (d) 1, 2 and 3
Ans: (d)
173. A moderator is used in nuclear reactors in order to
(a) increase the number of neutrons
(b) decrease the number of neutrons
(c) slow down the speed of neutrons
(d) accelerate the neutrons
Ans: (c)
174. Match List I (Particle) with List II (Property) and select the correct answer using the codes given below the List. List I List II
A. Neutrino 1. Carries positive charge
B. Neutron 2. Has speed of light
C. Gamma ray 3. Gets emitted in beta decay
D. Alpha particle 4. Is unstable particle
Codes A B C D A B C D
(a) 4 3 2 1 (b) 3 4 1 2
(c) 3 4 2 1 (d) 4 3 1 2
Ans: (a)
175. Consider the following statements
1. Nuclear reactions involve changes in the nucleus of an atom.
2. The rate of a nuclear reaction is increased by the addition of a catalyst.
3. A nuclear reaction is unaffected by the chemical state of the atoms involved.
4. Nuclear reactions of the same element vary according to which isotope involved.
Which of the statement(s) about nuclear reactions given above is/are correct?
(a) Only 1 (b) 1 and 2
(c) 1, 3 and 4 (d) 2, 3 and 4
Ans: (c)
176. In an atomic explosion, release of large amount of energy is due to conversion of
(a) chemical energy into nuclear energy
(b) nuclear energy into heat
(c) mass into energy
(d) chemical energy into heat
Ans: (c)
177. The ratio of velocity of X-rays to that of gamma rays is
(a) < 1
(b) > 1
(c) 1
(d) depends upon the ratio of their frequencies.
Ans: (c)
178. REM is a unit of
(a) radiation dosage
(b) binding energy
(c) packing fraction
(d) radioactivity
Ans: (a)
179. When X-rays are produced
(a) heat is generated at the target
(b) heat is absorbed at the target
(c) the temperature of the target remains constant
(d) brilliant light is seen at the target
Ans: (a)
180. Consider the following statements
1. Radioactive decay is the process by which unstable atomic nuclei emit subatomic particle or radiation.
2. When a radioactive nucleus decays, its nucleus breaks up, emits an alpha particle or beta particle and energy, and forms a new atom of a different element.
Which of the statement(s) given above is/are correct?
(a) Only 1
(b) Only 2
(c) 1 and 2
(d) None of the above
Ans: (c)
181. Select the correct statement
(a) MRI uses radio waves to stimulate certain nuclei in the presence of magnetic field
(b) P-32 is used for leukemia therapy
(c) I-123 is used in imaging the brain
(d) All of the above
Ans: (d)
182. Which of the properties of radio isotopes make them useful as traces in medical or agricultural applications?
1. Their chemical behaviour is the same as non-radioactive isotope.
2. They emit various types of radiation.
3. The nuclear reaction is unaffected by the chemical state of isotope.
(a) Only 1
(b) 1 and 3
(c) 1 and 2
(d) All of these
Ans: (d)
183. Consider the following statements Loss of -particle is equivalent to
1. increase in one proton only
2. decrease in one neutron only
Which of the statement(s) given above is/are correct?
(a) Only 1 (b) Only 2
(c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2
Ans: (c)
184. A radioactive decay process has a half life of 4 yr. The amount of the reactant remaining after 12 yr is
(a) 10% (b) 12.5%
(c) 25% (d) 87.5%
Ans: (b)
185. Which one of the following reactions is the main cause of the energy radiation from the sun?
(a) Fusion reaction
(b) Fission reaction
(c) Chemical reaction
(d) Diffusion reaction
Ans: (a)
186. Which one of the following is correct about -rays?
(a) They are emitted before αand -rays.
(b) They are emitted after αand -rays.
(c) They are emitted simultaneously with αand rays.
(d) They are emitted cither along with α-rays or along with
Ans: (b)
187. Match List I with List II and select the correct answer using the codes given below the List.
List I (Type of electromagnetic radiation) List II (Approximate wavelength in metre)
A. Infrared radiation 1. 10–12
B. X-rays 2. 10–5
C. Ultraviolet radiation 3. 10–10
D. Gamma rays 4. 10–8
Codes A B C D A B C D
(a) 2 3 4 1 (b) 1 4 3 2
(c) 1 3 4 2 (d) 2 4 3 1
Ans: (a)
188. Which one of the following is not electromagnetic in nature?
(a) Cathode-rays (b) X-rays
(c) Gamma-rays (d) Infrared-rays
Ans: (a)
189. Consider the following statements
1. Radioactivity tracers are commonly used in the medical field and also in the study of plants and animals.
2. Radiation is used and produced in nuclear reactors, which controls fission reactions to produce energy and new substances from the fission products.
3. Radiation is also used to sterilize medical instrument and food.
Which of the statements given above are correct?
(a) 1 and 2 (b) 1 and 3
(c) 2 and 3 (d) 1, 2 and 3
Ans: (d)
190. Which one of the following pairs of rays is electromagnetic in nature?
(a) Beta rays and gamma rays
(b) Cathode rays and X-rays
(c) Alpha rays and beta rays
(d) X-rays and gamma rays
Ans: (d)
191. Assertion (A) In beta decay, the direction of the recoiling daughter nucleus is opposite to that of the beta particle emitted.
Reason (R) In beta decay, beta particles are not emitted with a fixed energy.
Codes
(a) Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A
(b) Both A and R are true, but R is not the correct explanation of A
(c) A is true, but R is false
(d) A is false, but R is true
Ans: (b)
192. The α-particle carries two positive charges. Its mass is very nearly equal to that of
(a) two protons (b) an atom of helium
(c) sum of masses of two positrons and two neutrons
(d) two positrons as each position carries a single positive charge
Ans: (b)
193. Assertion (A) All compounds contain more than one element.
Reason (R) All compounds are heterogeneous mixtures.
(a) Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A
(b) Both A and R are true, but R is not the correct explanation of A
(c) A is true, but R is false
(d) A is false, but R is true
Ans: (c)
194. Age of fossil may be found out by determining the ratio of two isotopes of Carbon. The isotopes are
(a) C-12 and C-13
(b) C-13 and C-14
(c) C-12 and C-14
(d) C-12 and carbon black
Ans: (c)
195. Assertion (A) X-rays are used for studying the structure of crystals.
Reason (R) The difference between the atoms of crystals is of the order of wavelength of X-rays.
Codes
(a) Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A
(b) Both A and R are true, but R is not the correct explanation of A
(c) A is true, but R is false
(d) A is false, but R is true
Ans: (a)
196. Emission of -particle from an atom
(a) increases the number of protons in the atom
(b) increases the number of neutrons in the atom
(c) decreases the number of proton in the atom
(d) does not change the number of neutrons and protons in an atom
Ans: (a)
197. Assertion (A) The nuclear fusion reaction releases less energy than the fission reaction.
Reason (R) The nuclear fusion reaction takes place in the sun and other stars.
Codes
(a) Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A
(b) Both A and R are true, but R is not the correct explanation of A
(c) A is true, but R is false
(d) A is false, but is R true
Ans: (d)
198. Assertion (A) U235 nucleus, by absorbing a slow neutron undergoes fission with the evolution of a significant quantity of heat.
Reason (R) During nuclear fission a part of original mass of U235 is lost and gets converted into heat.
Codes
(a) Both A and R are individually true and R is the correct explanation of A
(b) Both A and R are individually true, but R is not the correct explanation of A
(c) A is true, but R is false
(d) A is false, but R is true
Ans: (a)
Part 4 Chemical Bonding
199. Consider the following statements
1. H2Oexists in liquid state whereas H2S in gaseous state because hydrogen bond exist in water and does not exist in H2S.
2. The dipole moment helps to predict whether a molecule in polar or non-polar.
3. Alcohol is a polar solvent.
4. Ionic compounds are insoluble in non-polar solvent.
Which of the statements given above are correct?
(a) 1, 2, 3 and 4
(b) 1, 2 and 3
(c) 1 and 2
(d) 2 and 3
Ans: (a)
200. The origin of intermolecular forces is because of
(a) attraction between polar molecules
(b) forces between permanent dipole and induced dipole
(c) dispersion forces due to distortion of electron clouds under the influences of nuclear of atoms
(d) All of the above
Ans: (d)
201. The octet rule is not valid for which one of the following molecule?
(a) CO2 (b) H S 2
(c) NH3 (d) BF3
Ans: (d)
202. The bond which is present between water molecules is
(a) electrovalent bond
(b) covalent bond
(c) hydrogen bond
(d) vander Waals, bond
Ans: (c)
203. Consider the following statements
1. Alcohol is polar solvent
2. Ionic compounds are soluble in polar solvent.
3. Ionic compounds do not conduct electricity in solid state.
Which of the Statement given above are correct?
(a) 1 and 2 (b) 2 and 3
(c) 1 and 3 (d) 1, 2 and 3
Ans: (d)
204. What are the types of bonds present in CuSO4 5H2O ?
(a) Electrovalent and covalent
(b) Electrovalent and coordinate
(c) Electrovalent, covalent, coordinate and hydrogen bond
(d) Covalent and coordinate covalent
Ans: (c)
205. In the covalent valency
(a) electrons are equally shared by the atoms
(b) electrons are one atom are shared with two atoms
(c) hydrogen bond is formed
(d) None of the above
Ans: (a)
206. The number of valence electrons in the O2- ion is
(a) 4 (b) 6 (c) 8 (d) 10
Ans: (c)
207. An atom of sodium loses one electron and chlorine atom accepts one electron. This result the formation of sodium chloride molecule. This type of molecule will be
(a) coordinate (b) covalent
(c) electrovalent (d) metallic bond
Ans: (c)
208. A coordinate bond is formed when an atom in a molecule has
(a) electric charge on it
(b) all its valenc electrons shared
(c) a single unshared electron
(d) one or more unshared electron
Ans: (a)
209. The incorrect statement about strengths of bond is
(a) pi bond is weaker than a sigma bond
(b) triple bond is stronger than a double bond
(c) double bond is weaker than a single bond
(d) coordinate covalent bond is weaker than a covalent bond
Ans: (c)
210. The four bonds of CCl4 are directed in space at an angle of
(a) 90°(b) 120°(c) 109°5(d) 128°09
Ans: (c)
211. With reference to ionic compounds, consider the following statements.
1. Ionic compounds are insoluble in alcohol.
2. Ionic compounds in the solid state are good conductor of electricity.
Which of the statements is/are correct?
(a) Only 1
(b) Only 2
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
Ans: (a)
212. With reference to lattice energy, consider the following statements.
1. Lattice energy is defined as the amount of energy released when free ions in gaseous combine to form one mole of a crystalline solid.
2. Lattice energy depends on the size of the ions and their charge.
Which of the statements is/are correct?
(a) Only 1 (b) Only 2
(c) 1 and 2 (d) None of these
Ans: (c)
213. Example of ionic bond are
(a) NaCl, KCl,MgF2, CaCl2
(b) H2, Cl2, O2, N2, CH2
(c) SO2, SO3, O3 (d) H2O , NH3
Ans: (a)
214. Consider the following statements about ionic bond.
1. Ionic bond comes into existence by the transference of electrons between the participating atoms.
2. The atomlosing electron changes into cation while the other atom gaining electron converted into anion.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a) Only 1 (b) Only 2
(c) 1 and 2
(d) None of the above
Ans: (c)
215. A metallic bond is
(a) ionic
(b) polar covalent
(c) non-polar covalent
(d) electrostatic in nature
Ans: (d)
216. Match List I with List II and select the correct answer using the codes given below the List.
List I (Covalent compound) List II (Geometrical shape)
A. Water 1. Angular
B. Ammonia 2. Pyramid
C. Carbon dioxide 3. linear
D. Methane 4. Tetrahedral
Codes A B C D A B C D
(a) 1 2 3 4 (b) 2 3 4 1
(c) 3 4 1 2 (d) 4 1 2 3
Ans: (a)
217. The shape of carbon dioxidemolecule is
(a) octahedral (b) tetrahedral
(c) linear (d) trigonal
Ans: (c)
218. When two isomeric liquid compounds ‘A’ and ‘B’ form H-bonding are heated, compound ‘A’ boils at lower temperature than ‘B’. Which of the following is correct for ‘A’ and ‘B’?
(a) Intermolecular H-bonding present in ‘A’.
(b) Intramolecular H-bonding present in ‘A’.
(c) Intramolecular H-bonding present in ‘B’.
(d) None of the above
Ans: (b)
219. Which of the following element combinations will from ionic compounds?
1. Ca (Z /20) and Ti (Z /22)
2. Si (Z /14) and Cl (Z /17)
3. Mg (Z /12) and Cl (Z /17) Select the correct answer using the codes given below
(a) Only 2 (b) Only 3
(c) 2 and 3 (d) 1, 2 and 3
Ans: (b)
220. Consider the following statements.
1. Probability of finding the electron in the bonding molecular orbital is more than combining atomic orbitals.
2. Bonding molecular orbitals are formed when different sign of orbitals are overlapped.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a) Only 1
(b) Only 2
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
Ans: (a)
221. The methane molecule has
(a) double bond
(b) triple bond
(c) single covalent bond
(d) None of the above
Ans: (c)
222. The shape of the ethylene molecule is
(a) linear
(b) coplanar triangular
(c) tetrahedral (d) hectahedral
Ans: (b)
223. With reference to hydrogen bonding, consider the following statements.
1. The organic compounds like alkanes, alkenes, alkynes are soluble in water due to absence of H-bonding.
2. Alcohols, organic acids, amines are soluble in water due to the presence of H-bonding.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a) Only 1
(b) Only 2
(c) 1 and 2
(d) None of the above
Ans: (b)
224. Consider the following statements.
1. All single bonds are sigma bonds.
2. Multiple bonds contain one sigma bond only, the other bonds are pi bonds.
3. Pi bonds is never formed alone.
Which of the statements given above are correct?
(a) 1, 2 and 3 (b) 1 and 2
(c) 1 and 3 (d) 2 and 3
Ans: (a)
225. Ionic solids
(a) are hard and brittle
(b) are generally high melting points
(c) can be melted to form liquids that are electrical conductors
(d) All of the above
Ans: (d)
226. Match List I with List II and select the correct answer using the codes given below the List.
List I List II
A. Ionic bond 1. NaCl
B. Covalent bond 2. Diamond
C. Molecular bond 3. Iodine
D. Hydrogen bond 4. NH3
Codes A B C D A B C D
(a) 1 2 3 4 (b) 2 3 4 1
(c) 3 4 1 2 (d) 4 1 2 3
Ans: (a)
227. Carbon tetrachloride has no net dipole moment because of
(a) its planar structure
(b) its regular tetrahedral structure
(c) similar sizes of carbon and chlorine atoms
(d) similar electron affinities of carbon and chlorine
Ans: (b)
228. Consider the following statements.
1. Hydrogen bond is the strongest of the intermolecular bonds.
2. All hydrogen bonding molecule have dipole interactions.
Which of the above are correct?
(a) Only 1 (b) Only 2
(c) 1 and 2 (d) None of these
Ans: (c)
229. Which of the following bonds is the weakest?
(a) Coordinate bond
(b) Hydrogen bond
(c) van der Waals’ forces
(d) Covalent bond
Ans: (c)
230. When a chemical bond is formed, there is decrease in
(a) kinetic energy (b) potential energy
(c) repulsive force (d) attractive force
Ans: (b)
231. Cation is formed when
(a) atom gains electrons
(b) atom losses electrons
(c) proton is lost by the atom
(d) atom shared by electrons
Ans: (b)
232. In ammonia, H—N—Hbond angle is
(a) 106.7°(b) 109°(c) 104°(d) 180°
Ans: (a)
233. The bond between two identical non-metallic atom has a pair of electron?
(a) Unequally shared between two atoms
(b) Transferred completely from one atom to another
(c) With identical spins
(d) Equally shared between them
Ans: (d)
234. In double covalent bond there is a sharing of
(a) two electrons (b) four electrons
(c) six electrons (d) three electrons
Ans: (b)
235. Electrovalent compound’s
(a) melting points are low
(b) boiling points are low
(c) conduct current in fused state
(d) insoluble in polar solvent
Ans: (c)
236. Covalent compounds are generally
(a) soluble in water
(b) insoluble in water
(c) ionise in water
(d) hydrolyse in water
Ans: (b)
237. Electrovalent bond formation depends on
(a) ionisation energy
(b) electron affinity
(c) lattice energy
(d) All of these
Ans: (d)
238. The electrovalent compound is made up of
(a) electrically charged molecules
(b) neutral molecules
(c) neutral atoms
(d) electrically charged atoms or groups of atoms.
Ans: (d)
239. Consider the following statements.
1. The number of -bond in H2 molecule is one.
2. The number of -bond in N2 molecule is two.
3. The maximum number of hydrogen bonds in a H2Omolecule is four.
Which of the above are correct?
(a) 1 and 2 (b) 1 and 3
(c) 2 and 3 (d) 1, 2 and 3
Ans: (d)
240. Match List I with List II and select the correct answer using the Codes given below the List.
List I List II
A. CaCl2 1. Ionic bond
B. C2H4 2. Double bond
C. CHCl3 3. Covalent bond
D. NH4Cl 4. Coordinate bond
Codes A B C D
(a) 1 2 3 4
(b) 2 3 4 1
(c) 3 4 1 2
(d) 4 1 2 3
Ans: (a)
241. Consider the following statements.
1. Formation of cations occurs by loss of electrons.
2. Formation of anions occurs by gain of electrons.
Which of the statement given above are correct?
(a) Only 1 (b) Only 2
(c) Both 1 and 2 (d) None of these
Ans: (c)
242. Study the following statements.
1. A bond formed by the transfer of electrons between atoms of the element is called ionic bond.
2. A bond formed by sharing of electrons between atoms of the elements is called covalent bond.
Which of the statement given above is/are correct?
(a) Only 1 (b) Only 2
(c) 1 and 2
(d) None of these
Ans: (c)
243. Assertion (A) Double bond cause more repulsion than single bonds.
Reason (R) Triple bonds cause more repulsion than a double bond.
Codes
(a) Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A
(b) Both A and R are true, but R is not the correct explanation of A
(c) A is true, but R is false
(d) A is false, but R is true
Ans: (b)
244. Molten NaCl is a good conductor of electricity is due to
(a) free electrons (b) free ions
(c) free molecules (d) None of these
Ans: (b)
245. Assertion (A) An ionic bond is formed when a metal atom transfer one or more electrons to a non-metal atom.
Reason (R) The metal atom becomes cation and the non-metal the anion.
Codes
(a) Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A
(b) Both A and R are true, but R is not the correct explanation of A
(c) A is true, but R is false
(d) A is false, but R is true
Ans: (a)
246. Consider the following statements.
1. Metallic bond are malleable and ductile.
2. Covalent compounds are generally non-conductor of electricity.
3. Ionic compounds are good conductor of electricity in molten or liquid state.
Which of the statements given above are correct?
(a) 1 and 2 (b) 1 and 3
(c) 2 and 3 (d) 1, 2 and 3
Ans: (d)
247. Consider the following Statements:
1. The dipole moment helps to predict whether a molecule in polar or non-polar.
2. The melting point and boiling point of coordinate compounds are higher than covalent compound but lesser than the ionic compounds.
Which of the statement given above is/are correct?
(a) Only 1
(b) Only 2
(c) 1 and 2
(d) None of the above
Ans: (c)
248. Consider the following Statements.
1. Strength of certain acid and bases can be explained on the basis of hydrogen bonding.
2. Alcohol and amines are soluble in water due to H-bonding.
Which of the Statement given above is/are correct?
(a) None of these (b) 1 and 2
(c) Only 1 (d) Only 2
Ans: (b)
249. Assertion (A) The covalent bond is formed by the sharing of pairs of electrons between atoms.
Reason (R) Covalency is greatest between atoms of different electronegativities.
(a) Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A
(b) Both A and R are true, but R is not the correct explanation of A
(c) A is true, but R is false
(d) A is false, but R is true
Ans: (c)
Part 5 Surface Chemistry
250. Azeotropic mixtures are
(a) mixture of two solids
(b) those which boil at different temperatures
(c) those which can be fractionally distilled
(d) constant boiling mixture
Ans: (d)
251. Colloidal solution commonly used in the treatment of eye disease is
(a) colloidal silver (b) colloidal gold
(c) colloidal antimony
(d) colloidal sulphur
Ans: (c)
252. If glycerol and methanol were sold at the same price in market, which would be cheaper for preparing an anti-freeze solution for the radiator of an automobile?
(a) Glycerol (b) Methanol
(c) Both are equal (d) None of these
Ans: (b)
253. Which of the following colloidal solution is commonly used as germ killer?
(a) Colloidal sulphur
(b) Colloidal gold
(c) Colloidal silver
(d) Colloidal antimony
Ans: (a)
254. Water is a good solvent. This is due to high
(a) dielectric constant of water
(b) surface tension of water
(c) specific heat of water
(d) heat of fusion of water
Ans: (a)
255. An emulsion is a colloid of a
(a) gas in a liquid
(b) liquid in a liquid
(c) liquid in a gas
(d) gas in a solid
Ans: (b)
256. Butter is a colloid formed when
(a) fat is dispersed in water
(b) fat globules are dispersed in water
(c) water is dispersed in fat
(d) suspension of casein in water
Ans: (c)
257. Fog is an example of
(a) gas dispersed in gas
(b) liquid dispersed in gas
(c) solid dispersed in gas
(d) solid dispersed in liquid
Ans: (b)
258. A syringe is a hollow glass tube with lower end tapered to a nozzle. Due to which one of the following liquid can be drawn into a syringe?
(a) Partial vacuum produced inside the glass tube
(b) Diffusion
(c) Surface tension effect
(d) Capillary action
Ans: (a)
259. Match the List I with the List II.
List I List II
A. Molarity
(M)
1. is the concentration unit for ionic compounds which dissolve in a polar solvent to give pair of ions.
B. Molality
(m)
2. is number of gram equivalents of substance dissolve per litre of the solution
C. Formality
(F)
3. is the number of moles of the solute dissolved in 1000 of the solvent
D. Normality
(N)
4. is the number of moles of solute present in 1 L of the solution
Codes A B C D A B C D
(a) 3 1 2 4 (b) 1 2 4 3
(c) 2 4 3 1 (d) 4 3 1 2
Ans: (d)
260. Which of the following properties are characteristics of lyophobic sols?
1. Low viscosity
2. High viscosity
3. Reversibility
4. Coagulation by electrolytes at low concentrations Select the correct answer using the code given below.
(a) 1, 3 and 4 (b) 2 and 3 only
(c) 1 and 4 only (d) 1 and 3 only
Ans: (c)
261. Match the List I with the List II.
List I List II
A. Rain cloud 1. Sol
B. Milk of magnesia 2. Foam
C. Whipped cream 3. Micelles
D. Soap in water 4. Aerosol
Codes A B C D A B C D
(a) 4 1 2 3 (b) 1 2 3 4
(c) 2 3 4 1 (d) 3 4 1 2
Ans: (a)
262. Match List I (Colloidal dispersion) with List II (Nature of the dispersion) and select the correct answer using the codes given below the List.
List I List II
A. Milk 1. Solid in liquid
B. Clouds 2. Liquid in gas
C. Paints 3. Solids in solids
D. Jellies 4. Liquids in liquids 5. Liquid in solid
Codes A B C D A B C D
(a) 4 2 1 5 (b) 1 5 3 2
(c) 4 5 1 2 (d) 1 2 3 5
Ans: (a)
263. The solubility of a gas in liquid increases with
(a) increase in temperature
(b) reduction in gas pressure
(c) decrease in temperature and increase in gas pressure
(d) amount of liquid taken
Ans: (c)
264. Which one of the following is not the result of surface tension?
(a) Vapour formation above the liquid surface
(b) Convex shape of liquid meniscus
(c) Liquid rising in a capillary
(d) Spherical shape of mercury fallen on the floor
Ans: (a)
265. Match the List I with the List II.
List I List II
A. Dialysis 1. Precipitate converts to colloidal solution
B. Peptization 2. Precipitation of colloidal solution
C. Flocculation 3. Protective power
D. Gold number 4. Purification of colloidal solution
Codes A B C D A B C D
(a) 2 3 4 1 (b) 1 2 3 4
(c) 4 1 2 3 (d) 3 4 1 2
Ans: (c)
266. Match the List I with the List II. List I List II
A. Tyndall effect 1. Dispersion of finely divided droplets in another liquid
B. Brownian movement 2. Flocculation and settling down of the discharged sol particles.
C. Coagulation 3. Zig-zag movement executed by a colloidal particle in the dispersion medium.
D. Emulsion 4. Scattering of light by the particles.
Codes A B C D
(a) 1 4 3 2
(b) 4 3 2 1
(c) 3 4 2 1
(d) 2 1 4 3
Ans: (b)
267. Isotonic solutions have the same
(a) normality
(b) molar concentration
(c) strength (d) density
Ans: (b)
268. Consider the following statements
1. Liquid drops are spherical due to surface tension forces.
2. Surfactants are surface active agents which decrease surface tension e.g.,Soaps and detergents.
3. Surface tension of a liquid is measured with the help of apparatus called stalgmometer.
Which of the statements given above are correct ?
(a) 1 and 2 (b) 2 and 3
(c) 1 and 3 (d) 1, 2 and 3
Ans: (d)
269. Consider the following At constant pressure, boiling point of a solution is greater than the boiling point of its pure liquid solvent because
1. solute is non-electrolyte.
2. solute is non-volatile.
3. chemical potential of solvent in solution is less than the chemical potential of solvent in its pure state at constant pressure.
Which of the above are correct?
(a) 1, 2 and 3 (b) 1 and 2 only
(c) 1 and 3 only (d) 2 and 3 only
Ans: (d)
270. An ideal solution is formed when its components
1. can be converted into gases
2. obey Raoult’s law
3. have no change of volume
4. have zero heat of mixing
Which of the above statement(s) is/are correct?
(a) Only 1 (b) 2, 3 and 4
(c) Only 2 (d) 3 and 4
Ans: (b)
271. Match the List I with the List II.
List I List II
A. Cod liver 1. Liquid in a gas
B. Vanishing cream 2. Solid dispersed in gas
C. Fog 3. Aqueous emulsion
D. Smoke 4. Water in oil emulsion
Codes A B C D
(a) 1 2 4 3 (b) 3 1 2 4
(c) 4 3 1 2 (d) 2 4 3 1
Ans: (c)
272. Which of the following statements are valid for a solution containing a non-volatile solute?
1. The solution exhibits a lower vapour pressure than that of the pure solvent.
2. The solution exhibits a higher vapour pressure than that of the solvent.
3. The freezing point of the solution in less than that of the solvent.
4. The freezing point of the solution is more than that of the solvent. Select the correct answer using the codes given below.
(a) 1 and 4 (b) 1 and 3
(c) 2 and 3 (d) 2 and 4
Ans: (b)
273. Muddy water is purified by adding alum due to
(a) osmosis (b) emulsification
(c) coagulation (d) dialysis
Ans: (c)
274. When blood cells are placed in a solution of KCl whose osmotic pressure is greater than that of the cell fluid, there occurs
(a) shrinking in size of the cell
(b) increase in size of the cell
(c) no change in size
(d) first shrinking and then regaining of original size
Ans: (a)
275. The solution of rubber is an example of
(a) lyophobic colloid
(b) multimolecular colloid
(c) associated colloid
(d) macromolecular colloid
Ans: (d)
276. The pH value of the solution obtained by complete neutralisation of hydrochloric and and sodium hydroxide solution will be
(a) exactly 7 (b) zero
(c) more than 7 (d) less than 7
Ans: (a)
277. Consider the following statements
1. Azeotropic mixtures are constant temperature boiling mixture.
2. Azeotropic mixtures are those which boils at different temperatures.
3. Azeotropic mixture of two solids
Which of the above is/are true?
(a) Only 1 (b) Only 2
(c) Only 3
(d) 1, 2 and 3
Ans: (a)
278. Which one of the following will not function as buffer solution?
(a) Borax +Boric acid
(b)NaH PO 2 4 +Na HPO 2 4
(c) NaCl +NaOH
(d)NH Cl + NH OH 4 4
Ans: (c)
279. When oil floats on water, the surface tension of water
(a) vanishes immediately
(b) decreases considerably
(c) increases considerably
(d) remains unaffected
Ans: (d)
280. Consider the following statements.
1. The water drop in vacuum is perfectly spherical.
2. The shape of water drop is distorted due to action of gravity.
3. Soaps and detergents drastically decrease the surface tension of water.
4. As temperature increases, surface tension also increases and becomes maximum at critical temperature.
Which of the above are correct?
(a) 1, 2, 3, 4 (b) 2, 3, 4
(c) 1, 2, 3 (d) 1, 3
Ans: (c)
281. Assertion (A) Molarity and normality of a solution change with temperature but molality and mole fraction do not.
Reason (R) Volume of a solution changes with temperature but weight does not.
Codes
(a) Both A and R are individually true and R is the correct explanation of A
(b) Both A and R are individually true, but R is not the correct explanation of A
(c) A is true, but R is false
(d) A is false, but R is true
Ans: (a)
282. Surface tension of a liquid decreases with
1. increase in temperature of the liquid.
2. mixing of detergent in the liquid.
3. decrease in temperature.
Which of the statement(s) given above is/are correct?
(a) 2 and 3 (b) 1 and 2
(c) Only 2
(d) Only 1
Ans: (b)
283. Assertion (A) Surface tension decreases on increasing temperature.
Reason (R) Intermolecular attractive forces are comparatively smaller at higher temperature.
Codes
(a) Both A and R are individually true and R is the correct explanation of A
(b) Both A and R are individually true, but R is not the correct explanation of A
(c) A is true, but R is false
(d) A is false, but R is true
Ans: (a)
284. If detergent is added
(a) surface tension decreases
(b) surface tension increases
(c) surface tension can increase or decrease
(d) No effect
Ans: (a)
285. A hard shell of an egg was dissolved in
HCl. The egg was then placed in a concentration solution of NaCl. What will happen?
(a) The egg will shrink
(b) The egg will swell
(c) The egg will become harder
(d) There will be hardly any visible change
Ans: (a)
286. A solution which contains the maximum amount of the solute that can be dissolved in a given amount of solvent at a particular temperature is called
(a) saturated solution
(b) unsaturated solution
(c) supersaturated solution
(d) None of the above
Ans: (a)
287. Match the List I with the List II.
List I List II
A. Lyophilic 1. Movement of colloidal particle under the influence of electric field
B. Dialysis 2. Formation of colloid from suspension
C. Peptization 3. Separating a crystalloid from a colloid by filtration
D. Electrophoresis 4. Solvent loving colloids
Codes A B C D
(a) 4 3 2 1 (b) 3 2 1 4
(c) 2 1 4 3 (d) 1 4 3 2
Ans: (a)
288. Blood has been found isotonic with
(a) saturated solution of NaCl
(b) saturated solution of KCl
(c) saturated solution of 1:1 mixture of NaCl and KCl
(d) normal sodium chloride solution
Ans: (d)
289. The process of separating of cream from milk is called
(a) electro-osmosis (b) emulsion
(c) emulsification
(d) demulsification
Ans: (d)
290. Colloidal medicines are more effective because
(a) the germs move towards them
(b) they are cheap
(c) they are easily assimilated and adsorbed
(d) they are easy to prepare
Ans: (c)
291. Artificial rain is caused by spraying
(a) similar charged colloidal dust over a cloud
(b) neutral charged colloidal dust over a cloud
(c) Both (a) and (b)
(d) opposite charged colloidal dust over a cloud
Ans: (d)
292. Blood cells do not shrink in blood because blood is
(a) isotonic (b) hypertonic
(c) hypotonic (d) equimolar
Ans: (a)
293. Assertion (A) In osmosis, solvent molecules pass through a semi-permeable membrane from a more dilute solution to a more concentrated one, when these two are separated by the semi-permeable membrane.
Reason (R) The vapour pressure of the solvent over the dilute solution is less than that over the concentrated solution.
Codes
(a) Both A and R are individually true and R is the correct explanation of A
(b) Both A and R are individually true, but R is not the correct explanation of A
(c) A is true, but R is false
(d) A is false, but R is true
Ans: (c)
294. Medicines are more effective, if they are used in
(a) gaseous state
(b) colloidal state
(c) solid state
(d) solution state
Ans: (b)
295. Consider the following statements.
1. During the pressure of osmosis, the solvent travels from the concentrated solution to the dilute solution.
2. In the reverse osmois, external pressure is applied to the dilute solution.
Which of the statement(s) given above is/are correct?
(a) Only 1
(b) 2 Only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
Ans: (d)
296. Assertion (A) Surface tension is zero at critical temperature.
Reason (R) At critical temperature surface disappears.
Codes
(a) Both A and R are individually true and R is the correct explanation of A
(b) Both A and R are individually true, but R is not the correct explanation of A
(c) A is true, but R is false
(d) A is false, but R is true
Ans: (a)
297. Which one of the following colloidal systems in represented by soda water?
(a) Liquid in gas
(b) Gas in liquid
(c) Solid in gas
(d) Liquid in liquid
Ans: (b)
298. Which one of the following statements is not correct?
(a) The boiling point of an aqueous solution is highter than that of pure water
(b) Addition of solutes to a solution causes an increase in its water potential
(c) The vapour pressure of the water in a solution is lower than that of pure water
(d) When a solution is separated from water by a semi-permeable membrane water movement
Ans: (b)
Part 6 Chemical Kinetics
299. Consider the following statements
1. First order chemical reaction takes infinite time to complete.
2. Fractional life period of first order chemical reaction does not depend on reactant concentration. Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above two statements?
(a) Both the statements are true and Statement II is the correct explanation of Statement I
(b) Both the Statements are true, but Statement II is not the correct explanation of Statement I
(c) Statement I is true, but Statement II is false
(d) Statement I is false, but Statement II is true
Ans: (a)
300. Two reactions with different activation energies have the same rate at room temperature. Which statement correctly describes the rates of these reactions at the same higher temperatures?
(a) The reaction with the greater activation energy will be faster
(b) The reaction with the smaller activation energy will be faster
(c) The two reactions will have the same rates
(d) A prediction cannot be made without more information
Ans: (b)
301. Which of the following statements in connection with the properties of water is /are correct?
1. Water has higher specific heat in comparison with other liquid.
2. Water has no dipole moment.
3. Water has low heat of vaporisation. Select the correct answer using the codes given below
(a) Only 1 (b) 2 and 3
(c) 1 and 3 (d) Only 3
Ans: (a)
302. Which of the following is/are the example/examples of chemical change?
1. Crystallisation of sodiumchloride
2. Melting of ice 3. Souring ofmilk Select the correct answer using the codes given below
(a) 1 and 2 (b) Only 3
(c) 1, 2 and 3 (d) None of these
Ans: (b)
303. Which one of the following is an example of chemical change ?
(a) Burning of paper
(b) Magnetisation of soft iron
(c) Dissolution of cane sugar in water
(d) Preparation of ice cubes fromwater
Ans: (a)
304. Which one among the following has been producing/can produce light by a chemical change?
(a) Sun
(b) Moon
(c) Electric bulb
(d)Lightning and thunder
Ans: (a)
305. Which one among the following is an example of chemical change?
(a) The melting of an ice cube
(b) The boiling of gasoline
(c) The frying of an egg
(d) Attraction of an iron nail to a magnet
Ans: (c)
306. Which of the following represent a chemical change?
1. Magnetisation of iron.
2. Condensation of liquid.
3. Burning of fuel.
4. Rusting of iron. Select the correct answer using the codes given below
(a) 1 and 2
(b) 2 and 3
(c) 3 and 4
(d) 1 and 4
Ans: (c)
307. Which one of the following is a chemical process?
(a) Distillation of sea (salty) water
(b) Crystallisation of impure salt (NaCl)
(c) Production of iodine (I2) from sea-weeds
(d) Sublimation of iodine (I2)
Ans: (c)
308. Match List I with List II.
List I (Process) List II (Catalyst)
A. Alcoholic fermentation 1. Pt
B. Glucose or fructose into C2H5OH 2. H+ , mineral acid and enzymes
C. Ostwald process for manufacture of HNO3 3. Zymase
D. Hydrolysis of cane sugar 4. Yeast Select the correct answer using the codes given below A B C D
(a) 4 3 1 2 (b) 3 1 2 4
(c) 1 2 4 3 (d) 2 4 3 1
Ans: (a)
309. Which among the following is a chemical change?
(a) A wet towel dries in the sun
(b) Lemon juice added to tea causing its colour to change
(c) Hot air rises over a radiator
(d) Coffee is brewed by passing steam through ground coffee
Ans: (b)
310. Which of the following statements regarding the property of hard water is/are correct?
1. Temporary hardness of water is due to the presence of soluble magnesium and calcium hydrogen carbonate.
2. Temporary hardness of water can be removed by boiling.
3. Calgon’s method is applied to remove temporary hardness of water.
4. Permanent hardness of water is removed by clark’s method. Select the correct answer using the codes given below
(a) 1 and 2 (b) 1, 2 and 3
(c) 3 and 4 (d) Only 2
Ans: (b)
311. Consider the following statements
1. Reactions in which heat is released along with the formation of products are called exothermic chemical reactions.
2. Reactions in which energy is absorbed are known as endothermic reactions.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a) Only 1 (b) Only 2
(c) 1 and 2 (d) None of these
Ans: (c)
312. Assertion (A) Collodial solutions scatter light while true solutions do not.
Reason (R) The particles in the colloidal solutions move much slower than that of the true solution.
Codes
(a) Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A
(b) Both A and R are true, but R is not the correct explanation of A
(c) A is true, but R is false
(d) A is false, but R is true
Ans: (a)
313. Which one of the following is not a chemical change ?
(a) Ripening of fruits
(b) Curdling of milk
(c) Freezing of water
(d) Digestion of food
Ans: (c)
314. What is the role of positive catalyst in a chemical reaction?
(a) It increases the rate of reaction.
(b) It decreases the rate of reaction.
(c) It increases the yield of the products.
(d) It provides better purity of the products.
Ans: (c)
315. If the reaction rate at a given temperature become slower then
(a) the free energy of activation is higher
(b) the free energy of activation is lower
(c) the entropy changes
(d) the initial concentration of the reactants remains constant
Ans: (a)
316. The activation energy of a reaction is zero. The rate constant for the reaction
(a) decreases with decrease of temperature
(b) increases with increase of temperature
(c) decreases with increase of temperature
(d) is nearly independent of temperature
Ans: (d)
317. Which of the following is a model of enzyme action?
(a)Lock and key model
(b)Hand and glove model
(c) Induced fit model
(d) All of the above
Ans: (d)
318. Assertion (A) Lower is the activation energy faster is the reaction.
Reason (R) If the activation energy of reaction is zero, temperature will have no effect on the rate constant.
Codes
(a) Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A
(b) Both A and R are true, but R is not the correct explanation of A
(c) A is true, but R is false
(d) A is false, but R is true
Ans: (b)
319. It is recommended that liquor ammonia bottles be opened after cooling them in ice for sometime. This is because liquor ammonia
(a) bring tears to eyes
(b) is a mild explosive
(c) is a corrosive liquid
(d) has a high vapour pressure
Ans: (d)
320. An example of an autocatalytic reaction is
(a) hydrogenation of oil
(b) decomposition of nitroglycerine
(c) oxidation of Na AsO 2 3 in presence of Na SO 2 3
(d) thermal decomposition of KClO3 in presence ofMnO2
Ans: (b)
321. Enzyme catalysis is an example of
(a) induced catalysts
(b) auto catalysts
(c) heterogeneous catalysts
(d) homogeneous catalysts
Ans: (c)
322. In which one of the following situations a chemical reaction does not occur?
(a) Common salt is exposed to air
(b) Coal is burnt in air
(c) Sodium is placed in water
(d) Iron is kept in moist air
Ans: (a)
323. Assertion (A) A chemical reaction becomes faster at higher temperatures.
Reason (R) At higher temperatures molecular motion becomes more rapid.
Codes
(a) Both A and R are individually true and R is the correct explanation of A
(b) Both A and R are individually true, but R is not the correct explanation of A
(c) A is true, but R is false
(d) A is false, but R is true
Ans: (a)
Part 7 Thermochemistry
324. Consider the following statements
1. Kinetic energy is the energy of motion.
2. Potential energy is stored energy.
3. Fuel gases (as LPG) contain potential energy in their chemical bonds.
Which of the above is/are correct?
(a) Only 1
(b) Only 2
(c) 1, 2 and 3
(d) None of the above
Ans: (c)
325. If a refrigerator’s door is kept open, then
(a) room will be cooled
(b) room will be heated
(c) room may get cooled or heated depending upon the weather
(d) No effect
Ans: (b)
326. An increase in temperature increases which of the following?
1. The rate constant of a reaction
2. The ionic product of water
3. The equilibrium constant of an exothermic reaction. Select the correct answer using the code given below.
(a) 1 and 2 only
(b) 2 and 3 only
(c) 1 and 3 only
(d) All of the above
Ans: (a)
327. Which of the following is a closed system?
(a) Jet engine
(b) Tea placed in steel kettle
(c) Pressure cooker
(d) Rocket engine during propulsion
Ans: (b)
328. A fan produces a feeling of comfort during hot weather, because
(a) our body radiates more heat in air
(b) fan supplies cool air
(c) conductivity of air increases
(d) our perspiration evaporates rapidly
Ans: (d)
329. In the pressure cooker, cooking is faster because the increase in vapour pressure
(a) increases the specific heat
(b) decreases the specific heat
(c) decreases the boiling point
(d) increases the boiling point
Ans: (d)
330. Match List I with List II.
List I List II
A. Endothermic 1. Variation of enthalpy of a reaction with temperature.
B. Exothermic 2. A process or reaction which consumes heat.
C. Activation energy 3. A process or reaction that releases heat.
D. Arrhenius equation 4. The amount of energy which must be invested in a reaction to get it started. Select the correct answer using the codes given below. A B C D A B C D
(a) 2 3 4 1 (b) 3 4 1 2
(c) 4 1 2 3 (d) 1 2 3 4
Ans: (a)
331. If a system A is in thermal equilibrium with B and B is in thermal equilibrium with C, then A and C are in equilibrium with each other. “This is a statement of”
(a) cyclic rule
(b) zeroth law of thermodynamics
(c) first law of thermodynamics
(d) second law of thermodynamics
Ans: (b)
332. If a reaction is carried out at constant pressure, which of the following statement is correct?
(a) The reaction is likely to be endothermic.
(b) The heat change is equal to the enthalpy change.
(c) The reaction is likely to be exothermic.
(c) The heat change is equal to the change in temperature.
Ans: (b)
333. A gas which cannot be collected over water is
(a) N2 (b) O2 (c) SO2 (d) PH3
Ans: (c)
334. An intensive property in thermodynamics means a property which depends
(a) on the amount of the substance only
(b) on the nature of the substance only
(c) both on the amount as well as nature of the substance
(d) neither on the amount nor on the nature
Ans: (b)
335. Match List I (Thermodynamic Relation/Law) with List II (Related Term/Concept) and select the correct answer using the codes given below the List.
List I List II
A. First law of thermodynamics 1. Universal gas constant
B. Equation of state of an ideal gas 2. Coefficient of thermal expansion
C. Thermodynamic disorder 3. Conservation of energy
4. Entropy
Codes A B C A B C
(a) 3 4 1 (b) 2 1 4
(c) 3 1 4 (d) 2 4 1
Ans: (c)
336. Entropy change of a system and its surroundings in equilibrium
(a) increases (b) decreases
(c) remains constant
(d) either increases or decreases
Ans: (c)
337. Statement I A thermally insulated vessel contains some water. If the vessel is shaken vigorously, the temperature of the water will rise.
Statement II In this process energy is given to the water. Which one of the following is correct with reference to the above statements?
(a) Both statement I and statement II are true and Statement II is the correct explanation of Statement I
(b) Both Statement I and Statement II are true, but Statement II is not the correct explanation of Statement I
(c) Statement I is true, but Statement II is false
(d) Both Statement I and Statement II are false
Ans: (a)
338. In which of the following, the entropy decreases?
(a) Crystallisation of sucrose from solution
(b) Rusting of iron (c) Melting of ice
(d) Vaporization of camphor
Ans: (a)
339. During the evaporation of a liquid
(a) the enthalpy decreases
(b) the enthalpy increases
(c) the Internal energy decreases
(d) the enthalpy remains unchanged
Ans: (b)
340. Assertion (A) As solid changes to liquid and then to vapour state, entropy increases.
Reason (R) As going from solid to liquid and then to vapour state, disorder increases.
Codes
(a) Both A and R are individually true and R is the correct explanation of A
(b) Both A and R are individually true, but R is not the correct explanation of A
(c) A is true, but R is false
(d) A is false, R but is true
Ans: (a)
341. Which law of the thermodynamics introduces the concept of entropy?
(a) Second law (b) Zeroth law
(c) Third law (d) First law
Ans: (a)
342. During isothermal expansion of an ideal gas, its
(a) enthalpy reduces to zero
(b) enthalpy decreases
(c) internal energy increases
(d) enthalpy remains unaffected
Ans: (d)
343. When ammonium chloride is dissolved in water, the solution becomes cold. The change is
(a) endothermic
(b) exothermic
(c) super cooling
(d) None of the above
Ans: (a)
344. Combustion of a candle is
(a) physical change
(b) reduction reaction
(c) endothermic reaction
(d) exothermic reaction
Ans: (a)
345. Which statement is correct about the fusion of copper?
(a) A solid is formed
(b) Heat is required
(c) The process is exothermic
(d) Heat is released
Ans: (b)
346. The entropy of perfectly crystalline solid at absolute zero is
(a) positive
(b) negative
(c) zero
(d) not definite
Ans: (c)
347. Consider the following statements
1. An ideal fuel should have high calorific value, low ignition temperature, regulated and controlled.
2. Born-Haber cycle is used to determine lattice energy.
Which of the statement(s) given above is/are correct?
(a) Only 1
(b) Only 2
(c) 1 and 2
(d) None of these
Ans: (c)
Part 8 Electrochemistry
348. Assertion (A) When H2O is added to CaO, heat is liberated.
Reason (R) Reaction between CaO and H2O is exothermic.
Codes
(a) Both A and R are individually true and R is the correct explanation of A
(b) Both A and R are individually true, but R is not the correct explanation of A
(c) A is true, but R is false
(d) A is false, but R is true
Ans: (b)
349. The life span of a Daniell cell may be increased by
(a) larger Zn electrode
(b) larger Cu electrode
(c) lowering the temperature
(d) lowering the concentrations
Ans: (a)
350. Consider the following statements
1. Water and ethanol have unusually large entropies of vaporisation.
2. The compound with negative heat of formation is known as exothermic compound.
Which of the statement(s) given above is/are correct?
(a) Only 1
(b) Only 2
(c) 1 and 2
(d) None of the above
Ans: (c)
351. Sacrificial anode protects iron or ships, underground pipelines etc. from rusting, a process known as cathodic protection. Which one of the following metals cannot be used as a sacrificial anode?
(a) Tin (b) Zinc
(c) Magnesium (d) Aluminium
Ans: (a)
352. In a hydrogen-oxygen fuel cell, combustion of hydrogen occurs to
(a) generate heat
(b) create potential difference between the two electrodes
(c) produce high purity water
(d) remove adsorbed oxygen from electrode surfaces
Ans: (b)
353. The depolarisation in a primary cell is used for the purpose of
(a) increasing the life of the cell
(b) increasing the emf of the cell
(c) removing the hydrogen collected at one of the plates
(d) removing the dipoles from the electrolytes
Ans: (b)
354. The depolariser used is dry cell is
(a) MnO2 (b) NH4Cl
(c) Carbon (d) ZnCl2
Ans: (a)
355. Consider the following statements
1. The conductivity of electrolyte increases with rise in temperature.
2. Voltameter is used in the process of electrolysis.
3. Electrolysis of water is also called hydrolysis.
Which of these statement(s) is/are correct?
(a) 1, 2 and 3
(b) 1 and 2
(c) 2 and 3 (d) Only 3
Ans: (a)
356. A smuggler could not carry gold by depositing iron on the gold surface, because
(a) gold has lower standard reduction potential than iron
(b) gold has higher standard reduction potential than iron.
(c) iron rusts (d) gold in denser
Ans: (b)
357. When two plates of different metals are placed in an electrolyte, the developed emf between them depends on
(a) the type of electrolyte
(b) distance between the plates
(c) position of the two metals in the electrochemical series.
(d) All of the above
Ans: (b)
358. The electrochemical cell stops working after sometime because
(a) electrode potential of both the electrodes becomes zero
(b) one of electrodes completely vanishes
(c) electrode potential of both electrodes equalizes
(d) the reaction reverses its direction
Ans: (c)
359. Consider the following statements regarding a motor car battery.
1. The voltage is usually 12 V.
2. Electrolyte used is hydrochloric acid.
3. Electrodes are lead and copper.
4. Capacity is expressed in amperehour.
Which of the above statement are correct?
(a) 1 and 2 (b) 2 and 3
(c) 3 and 4 (d) 1 and 4
Ans: (d)
360. The conduction of electricity through the electrolyte solution is due to
(a) movement of molecule of electrolyte
(b) movement of ions of electrolyte
(c) movement of separate atom
(d) movement of particles of the solvent
Ans: (b)
361. When an acid cell is charged, then
(a) voltage of cell increases
(b) resistance of cell increases
(c) electrolyte of cell dilutes
(d) None of the above
Ans: (a)
362. Consider the following statements
1. Galvanic cell converts chemical energy into electrical energy.
2. In a galvanic cell, the electron flow from anode to cathode through the external circuit.
3. Galvanic cell converts metal from its elemental state to the combined state.
Which of the above is/are correct?
(a) Only 1 (b) Only 2
(c) 1 and 2 (d) 1, 2 and 3
Ans: (c)
363. The internal resistance of a dry cell is
(a) equal to that of electrolytic cell
(b) smaller than that of electrolytic cell
(c) higher than that of electrolytic cell
(d) zero
Ans: (c)
364. The advantage of using fuel cell in a motor car could be
(a) low initial cost
(b) emission less operation
(c) light weight
(d) freedom from refueling
Ans: (b)
365. To protect iron against corrosion, the durable metal plating on it, is
(a) tin plating (b) copper plating
(c) zinc plating (d) nickel plating
Ans: (c)
366. Which one among the following metals is more reactive than hydrogen?
(a) Mercury (b) Copper
(c) Silver (d) Tin
Ans: (d)
367. Which of the following statements about the commonly used automobile battery are true?
1. It is usually a lead-acid battery.
2. It has six cells with a potential of 2V each.
3. Its cells work as galvanic cells while discharging power.
4. Its cells work as electrolytic cells while recharging. Select the correct answer using the codes given below.
(a) 1 2, 3 and 4 (b) 1, 2 and 3
(c) 2 and 4 (d) 3 and 4
Ans: (a)
368. The source of electrical energy on the Apollo moon flights was
(a) a generator set (b)H2 O2 –fuel cell
(c) Ni-Cd cell
(d) lead storage batteries
Ans: (b)
369. As ser tion (A) For a gal vanic cell, ox i da tion takes place at an ode and re duc tion at cath ode.
Rea son (R) Elec trons in the ex ter nal cir cuit move from an ode to cath ode.
(a) Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A
(b) Both A and R are true, but R is not the correct explanation of A
(c) A is true, but R is false
(d) A is false, but R is true
Ans: (b)
370. Match the List I with the List II.
List I List II
A. Primary battery 1. Reaction between Zn and Cu ions to produce an electric current
B. Secondary battery 2. Change of chemical energy to electrical energy
C. Electrochemical cell 3. Lead storage battery
D. Daniell cell 4. Leclanche cell
Codes A B C D A B C D
(a) 4 3 2 1 (b) 3 2 1 4
(c) 2 1 4 3 (d) 1 4 3 2
Ans: (a)
371. When items or jewellery made of metals such as copper or nickel are placed in a solution having a salt of gold, a thin film of gold is deposited by
(a) cooling to below 0°C
(b) heating above 100°C
(c) passing an electric current
(d) just keeping it for 10 min
Ans: (c)
372. Consider the following statements The electrochemical series helps
1. in extraction of metals
2. in protecting the metal from corrosion
3. in comparing the reactivity of metals
Which of the above is/are true?
(a) Only 1
(b) Only 2
(c) 2 and 3
(d) 1, 2 and 3
Ans: (d)
373. When a lead storage battery is discharged
(a) SO2 is evolved
(b) lead is formed
(c) lead sulphate is formed
(d) sulphuric acid is consumed
Ans: (c)
374. In an electrochemical cell that functions as a voltaic cell
(a) electrons move from the cathode to the anode
(b) electrons move through a salt-bridge
(c) electrons can move either from the cathode to the anode or from the anode to the cathode
(d) reduction occurs at the cathode
Ans: (d)
375. On the basis of position in the electrochemical series, the metal which does not displace hydrogen from water and acid is
(a) Al (b) Pb
(c) Ba (d)Hg
Ans: (d)
376. Anode mud is a
(a) mixture of impure metals like Fe
(b) SO2 gas
(c) mixture of Ag, Au, Pt
(d) None of the above
Ans: (c)
377. A conductivity cell is platinised
(a) to prolong its service
(b) to avoid temperature effect
(c) to avoid polarisation effect
(d) None of the above
Ans: (c)
378. Corrosion is basically an
(a) interaction
(b) union between two light metals and a heavy metal
(c) altered reaction in presence of H O 2
(d) electrochemical phenomenon
Ans: (d)
379. Which one of the following pairs of materials serves as electrodes in chargeable batteries commonly used in devices such as torchlights, electric shavers etc?
(a) Nickel and cadmium
(b) Zinc and carbon
(c) Lead peroxide and lead
(d) Iron and cadmium
Ans: (a)
380. As ser tion (A) Cop per metal with HCl lib er ates hy dro gen.
Rea son (R) Hy dro gen is pres ent above Cu in the re ac tiv ity se ries.
Codes
(a) Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A
(b) Both A and R are true, but R is not the correct explanation of A
(c) A is true, but R is false
(d) A is false, but R is true
Ans: (d)
381. Aluminium surfaces are of ten ‘anodised’. This means the deposition of a layer of
(a) chromium oxide
(b) aluminium oxide
(c) nickel oxide
(d) zinc oxide
Ans: (b)
382. Galvanized iron sheets are protected from rusting due to presence of a layer of
(a) lead
(b) chromium
(c) zinc
(d) tin
Ans: (c)
383. Which one among the following metals is prominently uses in mobile phone batteries?
(a) Copper (b) Zinc
(c) Nickel (d) Lithium
Ans: (d)
Part 9 Periodic Classification
384. Consider the following statements
1. Albo iron does not rust in vacuum because air is necessary for rusting.
2. Rust is faster in sea water because of dissolved salts.
Which of the statement(s) given above is/are correct?
(a) Only 1 (b) Only 2
(c) 1 and 2 (d) None of these
Ans: (c)
385. Consider the following statements
1. In Modern Periodic Table, the number of periods is 7.
2. In Modern Periodic Table, the number of groups is 18.
3. The long form of Periodic Table was developed by Range andWerner.
Which of the following is/are correct?
(a) Only 1 (b) 2 and 3
(c) 1 and 2 (d) 1, 2 and 3
Ans: (c)
386. With reference to ‘fuel cells’ in which hydrogen-rich fuel and oxygen are used to generate electricity, consider the following statements
1. If pure hydrogen is used as a fuel, the fuel cell emits heat and water as by products.
2. Fuel cells can be used for powering buildings and not for small devices like laptop computers.
3. Fuel cells produce electricity in the form of Alternating Current (AC).
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a) Only 1 (b) 2 and 3
(c) 1 and 3 (d)1,2 and 3
Ans: (a)
387. Which one of the following is not a periodic property i.e., does not show any trend on moving from one side to the other in the Periodic Table?
(a) Atomic size (b) Valency
(c) Radioactivity (d) Electronegativity
Ans: (c)
388. Consider the following statements with reference to the Periodic Table of chemical element
1. Ionisation potential gradually decreases along a period.
2. In a group of element, electron affinity decreases as the atomic weight increases.
3. In a given period, electronegativity decrease as the atomic number increases.
Which of these statement(s) is/are correct?
(a) Only 1 (b) Only 2
(c) 1 and 3 (d) 2 and 3
Ans: (b)
389. How many elements are there in the 5th Period of Modern Periodic Table?
(a) 2 (b) 8
(c) 18 (d) 36
Ans: (c)
390. Which group of Periodic Table contains no metal?
(a) I A (b) III A (c) VII A (d) VII B
Ans: (c)
391. In a period, the elements are arranged in the order of
(a) constant charges in the nucleus
(b) equal charges in the nucleus
(c) decreasing charges in the nucleus
(d) increasing charges in the nucleus
Ans: (d)
392. Transition metals are often paramagnetic owing to
(a) high mp and bp
(b) the presence of vacant orbitals
(c) the presence of unpaired electrons
(d) malleability and ductility
Ans: (c)
393. Match List I and List II.
List I List II
A. Elements in group I A 1. Inert gas
B. Elements in group zero 2. Alkali metal
C. Elements of d-block 3. Inner-transition element
D. Elements of f-block 4. Transition element
Codes A B C D A B C D
(a) 2 1 4 3 (b) 1 4 3 2
(c) 4 3 2 1 (d) 3 2 1 4
Ans: (a)
394. All the elements in a group in the Periodic Table have the same
(a) atomic weight
(b) number of valence electrons
(c) atomic number
(d) None of the above
Ans: (b)
395. Which one of the following is an element which never exhibits positive oxidation state in any of its compounds?
(a) Oxygen (b) Chlorine
(c) Fluorine (d) Carbon
Ans: (c)
396. Which one of the following properties changes with valency?
(a) Atomic weight
(b) Equivalent weight
(c) Molecular weight
(d) Density
Ans: (b)
397. Which of the following has maximum density?
(a) Chloroform
(b) Water
(c) Benzene (d) Ice
Ans: (b)
398. The ionisation potential of nitrogen is
(a) same as that of oxygen
(b) less than that of oxygen
(c) greater than that of oxygen
(d) None of the above
Ans: (c)
399. Which one among the following metals is more reactive than hydrogen?
(a) Mercury (b) Copper
(c) Silver (d) Tin
Ans: (d)
400. Match List I with List II.
List I List II
A. Modern periodic law 1. Groups
B. Father of Periodic Table 2. Moseley
C. Vertical lines in Modern Periodic Table 3. Periods
D. Horizontal lines in Modern Periodic Table 4. Mendeleef
Codes A B C D A B C D
(a) 3 4 2 1 (b) 4 1 3 2
(c) 2 4 1 3 (d) 2 1 3 4
Ans: (c)
401. The most reactive among the halogens is
(a) fluorine (b) chlorine
(c) bromine (d) iodine
Ans: (a)
402. Assertion (A) Ionisation energy decreases on moving down the group.
Reason (R) Force of attraction between electrons and nucleus decreases on moving down the group.
Codes
(a) Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A
(b) Both A and R are true, but R is not the correct explanation of A
(c) A is true, but R is false
(d) A is false, but R is true
Ans: (a)
403. The long form of Periodic Table is based on
(a) electronegativity
(b) mass of the atom
(c) shape of the atom
(d) atomic number
Ans: (d)
404. Assertion (A) Noble gases have the lowest ionization enthalpies in their respective periods.
Reason (R) Noble gases have stable electronic configuration.
Codes
(a) Both A and R are individually true and R is the correct explanation of A
(b) Both A and R are individually true, but R is not the correct explanation of A
(c) A is true, but R is false
(d) A is false, but R is true
Ans: (d)
405. Consider the following statements
1. Technetium was the first element to be made artificially.
2. The non-metals are poor conductors of heat and electricity.
3. Hydrogen has a single positive charge, like the alkali metals, but at room temperature, it is a gas that doesn’t act labeled a metal. Therefore hydrogen usually is a non-metal.
Which of the statements given above are correct?
(a) 1 and 2 (b) 2 and 3
(c) 1 and 3 (d) 1, 2 and 3
Ans: (d)
406. Match List I with List II.
List I List II
A. Element with smallest atomic radius 1. Cs
B. Element with largest atomic radius 2. F
C. Element with highest electron affinity 3. Br
D. Element with negative electron affinity 4. Cl
Codes A B C D A B C D
(a) 3 2 1 4 (b) 2 1 4 3
(c) 1 4 3 2 (d) 4 3 2 1
Ans: (b)
407. Which is the most reactive metal?
(a) Sodium (b) Calcium
(c) Iron (d) Potassium
Ans: (d)
408. The arrangement of Na, Rb, K, Cs in the increasing order of atomic radius is
(a) Rb < K < Cs < Na
(b) K < Na < Cs < Rb
(c) Na < Cs < K < Rb
(d) Na < K < Rb < Cs
Ans: (d)
409. What is the correct increasing order of electronegativity for the most common oxidation states among the following elements?
(a) F < O < N < C (b) O < N < C < F
(c) C < N < F < O
(d) C < N < O < F
Ans: (d)
410. The total number of lanthanide elements is
(a) 8 (b) 32 (c) 14 (d) 10
Ans: (c)
411. The alkali metals have relatively low melting point. Which one of the following alkali metals is expected to have the highest melting point?
(a) Li (b) Na (c) K (d) Rb
Ans: (a)
412. In Periodic Table, metallic elements appear
(a) in the left-hand columns
(b) in the top rows
(c) in the right-hand columns
(d) in the bottom rows
Ans: (a)
413. Which one among the following is the correct order of reactivity of the elements?
(a) Cu>Mg > Zn>Na
(b) Na > Zn>Mg >Cu
(c) Cu> Zn>Mg >Na
(d) Na >Mg > Zn>Cu
Ans: (d)
414. Match List I with List II. List I List II
A. Most reactive alkali metal 1. F
B. Chemically most active non-metal 2. Cs
C. Metal with maximum density 3. Hg
D. Transition metal is in liquid state 4. Os
Codes A B C D A B C D
(a) 4 3 2 1 (b) 1 4 3 2
(c) 2 1 4 3 (d) 3 2 1 4
Ans: (c)
415. Specific gravity of silver is 11 and specific gravity of iron is 8. Which one among the following is the approximate relative density of silver with respect to iron?
(a) 1.4
(b) 0.7
(c) 3.0 (d) 2.8
Ans: (a)
416. The elements of a group in the Periodic Table
(a) have similar chemical properties
(b) have consecutive atomic numbers
(c) are isobars
(d) are isotopes
Ans: (a)
417. In terms of magnetic properties, oxygen belongs to
(a) magnetic materials
(b) ferromagnetic materials
(c) paramagnetic materials
(d) diamagnetic materials
Ans: (c)
418. Match List I with List II.
List I List II
A. Recently named by IUPAC 1. Fe
B. Variable valency 2. Ds
C. Maximum electronegativity 3. Cl
D. Maximum electron affinity 4. F
Codes A B C D A B C D
(a) 3 2 1 4 (b) 4 3 2 1
(c) 1 4 3 2 (d) 2 1 4 3
Ans: (d)
419. Match List I and List II.
List I List II
A. First element produced artificially 1. Liquid NH3
B. Chemical used for cooling in refrigerator 2. Technetium
C. Laughing gas 3. Aluminium
D. Most abundant metal in the earth’s crust 4. Nitrous oxide
Codes A B C D
(a) 1 4 3 2
(b) 2 1 4 3
(c) 4 3 2 1
(d) 3 2 1 4
Ans: (b)
420. Consider the following statements about d – block elements
1. They are all metals.
2. All of them are not coloured.
3. They show variable valency.
4. Most of them form simple salts.
Which of the statements given above are correct?
(a) 1 and 2 (b) 1, 2 and 3
(c) 2 and 3 (d) 3 and 4
Ans: (b)
Part 10 Metals
421. Which is the purest form of iron?
(a) Pig iron (b) Cast iron
(c) Wrought iron (d) Steel
Ans: (c)
422. Which one of the following metals occurs in nature in free state?
(a) Gold (b) Sodium
(c) Aluminium (d) Copper
Ans: (a)
423. When an alkali-metal reacts with water, which one of the following gases is produced?
(a) Hydrogen (b) Oxygen
(c) Hydrogen peroxide
(d) Ozone
Ans: (a)
424. Statement I Chlorine radicals Cl+ initiate the chain reaction for ozone depletion.
Statement II Gaseous hypochlorous acid and chlorine are photolysed by sunlight.
Codes
(a) Both the statements are true and Statement II is the correct explanation of Statement I
(b) Both the statements are true, but Statement II is not the correct explanation of statement I
(c) Statement I is true, but statement II is false
(d) Statement I is false, but statement II is true
Ans: (a)
425. Which one of the following consists only the ores of magnesium?
(a) Magnesite, carnallite, cassiterite, dolomite, epsom salt
(b) Magnesite, carnallite, dolomite, kieserite, epsom salt
(c) Magnesite, carnallite, dolomite, galena, malachite
(d) Magnesite, cassiterite, kieserite, galena, malachite
Ans: (b)
426. Solder is an alloy of
(a) tin and lead (b) tin and copper
(c) tin, copper and zinc
(d) tin, lead and zinc
Ans: (a)
427. Neutral refractory material used in furnace is
(a) graphite
(b) SiO2
(c) CaO (d) MgO
Ans: (a)
428. Consider the following statements Coke is one of the materials of the charge added to blast furnace for the production of steel/iron. Its function is to
1. act as a reducing agent.
2. remove silica associated with the iron ore.
3. function as fuel, to supply heat.
4. act as an oxidizing agent. Of these statements
(a) 1 and 2 are correct
(b) 2 and 4 are correct
(c) 1 and 3 are correct
(d) 3 and 4 are correct
Ans: (c)
429. Consider the following statements
1. Bronze is an alloy of copper and tin.
2. White gold is an alloy of gold containing platinum and lead.
Which of the statement(s) given above is/are correct?
(a) Only 1 (b) Only 2
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
Ans: (a)
430. Statement I All compounds contain more than one element.
Statement II All compounds are heterogeneous mixtures
Codes
(a) Both the statements are true and Statement II is the correct explanation of Statement I
(b) Both the statements are true, but Statement II is not the correct explanation of statement I
(c) Statement I is true, but statement II is false
(d) Statement I is false, but statement II is true
Ans: (d)
431. The most abundant metal in the earth’s crust is
(a) Si (b)Fe (c) Al (d) Cu
Ans: (c)
432. Which one of the following elements is alloyed with iron to produce steel which can resist high temperatures and also have high hardness and abrasion resistance?
(a) Aluminium (b) Chromium
(c) Nickel (d) Tungsten
Ans: (b)
433. Match List I with List II and select the correct answer using the codes given below the lists.
List I List II
A. Li 1. Time keeper in atomic clocks
B. Na 2. Batteries
C. k 3. Transfer of nerve impulses
D. Cs 4. Control of the water content in the blood
Codes A B C D A B C D
(a) 2 3 4 1 (b) 1 2 3 1
(c) 2 4 3 1 (d) 1 3 2 4
Ans: (a)
434. Consider the following elements
1. Cobalt 2. Phosphorus
3. Zinc
Which of the above elements are required for maintaining the healthy human body?
(a) 1 and 2 (b) 2 and 3
(c) 1 and 3 (d) 1, 2 and 3
Ans: (d)
435. Match List I with List II and select the correct answer using the codes given below the Lists.
List I (Alloy) List II (Constituent)
A. Solder 1. Iron and carbon
B. Brass 2. Copper and zinc
C. Bronze 3. Copper and tin
D. Steel 4. Lead and tin
Codes A B C D A B C D
(a) 1 2 3 4 (b) 4 2 3 1
(c) 1 3 2 4 (d) 4 3 2 1
Ans: (b)
436. Consider the following statements
1. The carat is a unit of purity for gold alloys.
2. 18 carat gold is 24 parts gold and 6 parts another metal.
Which of the statement(s) given above is/are correct?
(a) Only 1 (b) Only 2
(c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2
Ans: (a)
437. Which one of the following elements cannot displace hydrogen gas from a dilute acid?
(a) Zinc (b) Copper
(c) Magnesium (d) Iron
Ans: (b)
438. Which one of the following is an important ore of magnesium?
(a) Cassiterite
(b) Malachite
(c) Carnalite
(d) Galena
Ans: (c)
439. An example of an oxide ore is
(a) bauxite (b) malachite
(c) zinc blende (d) galena
Ans: (a)
440. “925 fine silver” means an alloy of
(a) 7.5% Ag and 92.5% Cu
(b) 92.5% Ag and 7.5% Cu
(c) 80% Ag and 20% Cu
(d) 90% Ag and 10% Cu
Ans: (b)
441. The colour imparted by Co(II) compounds to glass is
(a) green (b) deep blue
(c) yellow (d) red
Ans: (b)
442. Match List I (Alloys) with List II (Constituents).
List I List II
A. Nicrome 1. 70% Cu +30% Zn
B. Brass 2. 66% Ni +33% Cu
C. Monel 3. 60% Ni +20% Fe +20% Cr
D. Coinage metal 4. 75% Cu +25% Ni
Codes A B C D A B C D
(a) 4 3 1 2 (b) 2 4 3 1
(c) 3 1 2 4 (d) 1 2 4 3
Ans: (c)
443. Which alloy contains Cu, Sn and Zn?
(a) Gun metal (b) Solder
(c) Type metal (d) Bronze
Ans: (a)
444. Stainless steel does not rust because
(a) chromium and nickel combine with iron
(b) chromium forms an oxide layer and protects iron from rusting
(c) nickel present in it, does not rust
(d) iron forms a hard chemical compound with chromium present in it
Ans: (b)
445. Coinage alloy has the following composition
(a) Ag + Cu + Ni (b) Cu + Ag + Au
(c) Au + Zn + Ag (d) Ag + Fe + Cu
Ans: (a)
446. Match List I with List II.
List I List II
A. Copper 1. Corundum, bauxite
B. Iron 2. Malachite, azurite
C. Lead 3. Galena, lanarkite
D. Aluminium 4. Haematite, limonite
Codes A B C D A B C D
(a) 2 4 3 1 (b) 4 3 1 2
(c) 3 1 2 4 (d) 1 2 4 3
Ans: (a)
447. Which one of the following materials is very hard and very ductile?
(a) Carborundum (b) Tungsten
(c) Cast iron (d) Nichrome
Ans: (d)
448. Consider the following statements
1. In electro-refining, the impure metal is made anode.
2. In metallurgy, flux is a substance used to convert fusible impurities to infusible impurities.
3. Copper is extracted by thermal reduction process.
Which of the above is/are true?
(a) Only 1 (b) 1 and 3
(c) 2 and 3 (d) 1, 2 and 3
Ans: (b)
449. Which one of the following is a transition metal?
(a) Aluminium (Al) (b) Manganese (Mn)
(c) Magnesium (Mg)(d)Calcium (Ca)
Ans: (b)
450. Which one of the following is known as salt peter?
(a) NaCl (b) KNO3
(c) Na2CO3 (d) NaHCO3
Ans: (b)
451. Match List I with List II.
List I (Elements) List II (Colour on Flame)
A. Barium 1. Yellow
B. Sodium 2. Greenish
C. Silver 3. Turns black
D. Lead 4. Apple green
Codes A B C D A B C D
(a) 1 3 4 2 (b) 4 1 3 2
(c) 3 2 4 1 (d) 2 4 1 3
Ans: (b)
452. Bronze is often used to make statues and medals whereas brass is used in making utensils, scientific apparatus and cartridges. Both brass and bronze are copper containing alloys, yet they differ in their chemical composition for additionally containing.
(a) zinc in brass and tin in bronze
(b) chromium in brass and nickel in bronze
(c) nickel in brass and tin in bronze
(d) iron in brass and nickel in bronze
Ans: (a)
453. Which among the following elements (metals) pollutes the air of a city having large number of automobiles?
(a) Cadmium (b) Lead
(c) Chromium (d) Nickel
Ans: (b)
454. Which one of the following is the softest metal?
(a) Sodium (b) Aluminium
(c) Iron (d) Copper
Ans: (a)
455. Match List I with List II and select the correct answer using the codes given below the Lists.
List I (Alloy) List II (Component)
A. Elinver 1. Lead +tin
B. Solder 2. Iron +nickel +chromium
C. German silver 3. Magnesium +aluminium
D. Magnalium 4. Zinc +copper +nickel
Codes A B C D A B C D
(a) 2 1 4 3 (b) 2 3 4 1
(c) 4 3 2 1 (d) 4 1 2 3
Ans: (a)
456. The pair of metals, which evolves hydrogen, when treated with caustic soda solution, is
(a) Cu, Zn (b) Hg, Au
(c) Al, Zn (d) Ni, Al
Ans: (c)
457. The ultra pure metal is obtained by
(a) calcination (b) sublimation
(c) zone refining (d) None of these
Ans: (c)
458. Which one of the following is not an ore?
(a) Bauxite (b) Pig iron
(c) Malachite (d) Zinc blende
Ans: (b)
459. Which of the following is a true statement regarding calcination?
(a) The ore is heated strongly in the absence of any blast of air
(b) The ore is heated with calcium
(c) The ore is heated with carbon
(d) The mineral is melted with limestone
Ans: (a)
460. Which one among the following metals is used for making boats because it does not corrode by sea water?
(a) Tungsten (b) Antimony
(c) Nickel (d) Titanium
Ans: (d)
461. Which is used in storage batteries?
(a) Cu (b) Lead
(c) Tin (d) Zinc
Ans: (b)
462. Why are stainless steel cooking pans fabricated with copper bottom?
(a) Copper is cheaper
(b) Conductivities of copper is more than the stainless steel
(c) Copper increases durability of the cooking pan
(d) Copper is a good reflector of heat
Ans: (b)
463. Consider the following statements.
1. Mercury is found in liquid state at room temperature.
2. The property of metals by which they can beaten into thin sheets is called malleability.
3. The property of metals by which it can be drawn into wires is called ductility.
Which of the statements given above are correct?
(a) 1 and 2 (b) 1 and 3
(c) 2 and 3 (d) 1, 2 and 3
Ans: (d)
464. Match List I with List II
List I (Mineral) List II (Industries in which largely used)
A. Limestone 1. Cement
B. Copper 2. Electrical goods
C. Bauxite 3. Manufacture of aeroplanes
D. Manganese 4. Steel
Codes A B C D A B C D
(a) 1 2 3 4 (b) 2 3 4 1
(c) 3 4 1 2 (d) 4 1 2 3
Ans: (a)
465. Wrought iron is
(a) iron mixed with 0.1 to 0.2% carbon
(b) cast iron (c) alloy of steel
(d) impure sulphide mineral
Ans: (a)
466. The iron obtained from blast furnace is
(a) soft iron (b) pig iron
(c) steel (d) wrought iron
Ans: (b)
467. When metal is obtained in the molten state from its ore, the process may be called
(a) rusting (b) smelting
(c) calcination
(d) thermal dissociation
Ans: (b)
468. Stainless steel contains
(a) Fe +Cr +Ni (b) Fe +Ni +Cu
(c) Fe +Cr +Cu (d) Fe +C +Ni
Ans: (a)
469. Dead burnt is
(a) anhydrous Na SO 2 4
(b) Na CO 2 3 which is useful for softening.
(c) CaSO4 which is not useful for softening.
(d) anhydrous CuSO4
Ans: (c)
470. Consider the following statements
1. Iron is manufactured from the ore haematite.
2. Iron rusts in the presence of O2 and moisture.
3. Iron present in haemoglobin of blood.
Which of the above is/are correct about iron?
(a) Only 1 (b) 2 and 3
(c) 1 and 3 (d) 1, 2 and 3
Ans: (d)
471. Match List I with List II.
List I (Metal) List II (Ore)
A. Aluminium 1. Galena
B. Lead 2. Bauxite
C. Copper 3. Pyrolusite
D. Manganese 4. Chalcopyrite
Codes A B C D A B C D
(a) 3 2 1 4 (b) 4 3 2 1
(c) 1 4 3 2 (d) 2 1 4 3
Ans: (d)
472. Which of the following is used in making ointment for curing skin disease?
(a) ZnCO3 (b) ZnSO4
(c) ZnO (d) ZnS
Ans: (a)
473. In the metallurgy of iron, when CaCO3 is added to blast furnace, calcium ion appears as
(a) CaO (b) metallic Ca
(c) gangue (d) slag
Ans: (d)
474. Which of the following is not an ore?
(a) Malachite (b) Calamine
(c) Stellite (d) Cerussite
Ans: (c)
475. Aluminium is more reactive than iron but aluminium is less easily corroded than iron, because
(a) oxygen forms a protective oxide layer
(b) it is a noble metal
(c) iron undergoes reaction easily with water
(d) iron form ions
Ans: (a)
476. Consider the following statements Roasting is carried out to
1. convert sulphide to oxide and sulphate.
2. remove water of hydration.
3. melt the ore
4. remove arsenic and sulphur impurities
(a) 1, 2, 3 are correct
(b) 1 and 4 are correct
(c) 1, 2 and 4 are correct
(d) 2, 3 and 4 are correct
Ans: (c)
477. Chemical leaching is useful in the concentration of
(a) copper pyrites (b) bauxite
(c) galena (d) cassiterite
Ans: (b)
478. Which one of the following metals is extracted through alloy formation?
(a) Manganese (b) Silver
(c) Nickel (d) Lead
Ans: (b)
479. Refining of silver is done by
(a) liquation
(b) poling
(c) cupellation
(d) van Arkel method
Ans: (c)
480. Blister copper is about
(a) 60%Cu (b) 90%Cu
(c) 98%Cu (d) 100%Cu
Ans: (c)
481. Flux is used to remove
(a) basic impurities
(b) acidic impurities
(c) all type of impurities
(d) acidic and basic both impurities
Ans: (d)
482. Calcium is obtained by the
(a) roasting of limestone
(b) electrolysis of solution of calcium chloride in H2O
(c) electrolysis of molten anhydrous calcium chloride
(d) reduction of calcium chloride with carbon
Ans: (c)
483. Lead pencil contains
(a) graphite (b) softened lead
(c) galena (d) anglesite
Ans: (a)
484. Black tin is
(a) an alloy ofSn
(b) an allotrope of Sn
(c) 60-70%SnO2
(d) 100% SnO2
Ans: (c)
485. In electro-refining of copper, some gold is deposited as
(a) cathode (b) electrode
(c) cathode mud
(d) anode mud
Ans: (d)
486. Which ore contains both iron and copper?
(a) Cuprite
(b) Chalcocite
(c) Chalcopyrite
(d) Malachite
Ans: (c)
487. By annealing, steel
(a) becomes soft
(b) becomes liquid
(c) becomes hard and brittle
(d) is covered with a thin film of Fe O 3 4
Ans: (a)
488. The hardest naturally occurring substance is
(a) iron (b) graphite
(c) diamond (d) astatine
Ans: (c)
489. Consider the following statements
1. Pig iron is obtained from the bottom of blast furnace in the metallurgy of iron.
2. Pig iron contains approximately 4.3% carbon.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a) Only 1 (b) Only 2
(c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2
Ans: (c)
490. Match List I with List II.
List I List II
A. Blue vitriol 1. Sodium bicarbonate
B. Epsom salt 2. Sodium hydroxide
C. Baking soda 3. Magnesium sulphate
D. Caustic soda 4. Copper sulphate
Codes A B C D A B C D
(a) 2 4 3 1 (b) 4 3 1 2
(c) 3 1 2 4 (d) 1 2 4 3
Ans: (b)
491. Match List I with List II.
List I List II
A. Potassium bromide 1. Fertilizer
B. Potassium nitrate 2. Photography
C. Potassium sulphate 3. Bakery
D. Monopotassium tartarate 4. Gun powder
Codes A B C D A B C D
(a) 3 2 4 1 (b) 1 3 2 4
(c) 2 4 1 3 (d) 4 1 3 2
Ans: (c)
492. German silver is an alloy of
(a) gold and silver
(b) copper and silver
(c) copper, zinc and silver
(d) copper, zinc and nickel
Ans: (d)
493. Consider the following statements
1. Liquid sodium is employed as a coolant in nuclear reactors.
2. Calcium carbonate is an ingredient of toothpaste.
3. Bordeaux mixture consists of sodium sulphate and lime.
4. Zinc amalgams are used as a dental filling.
Which of the above is correct?
(a) 1, 2, 4 (b)2 (c) 3 (d) 4
Ans: (a)
494. Salts of which of the following elements provide colours to fireworks?
(a) Zinc and sulphur
(b) Potassium and mercury
(c) Strontium and barium
(d) Chromium and nickel
Ans: (c)
495. Assertion (A) Froth-floatation process is used to concentrate sulphide ores.
Reason (R) There is difference in the wettability of different minerals.
Codes
(a) Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A
(b) Both A and R are true, but R is not the correct explanation of A
(c) A is true, but R is false
(d) A is false, but R is true
Ans: (a)
496. Consider the following statements
1. Vanadium is a toxic very hard silverywhite metallic element.
2. Thorium is a dark grey radioactive metallic element of the actinide series.
Which of the statement(s) given above is/are correct?
(a) Only 1 (b) Only 2
(c) 1 and 2 (d) None of these
Ans: (c)
497. Hard steel contains
(a) 2 to 5% carbon
(b) 0.5 to 1.5% carbon
(c) 0.1 to 0.4% carbon
(d) 0.01 to 0.04% carbon
Ans: (b)
498. Match List I with List II.
List I List II
A. Horn silver 1. ZnSO4 7H2O B. Lunar caustic 2. AgNO3
C. Blue vitriol 3. AgCl
D. White vitriol 4. CuSO4 5H2O Codes A B C D A B C D
(a) 3 2 4 1 (b) 2 4 1 3
(c) 4 1 3 2 (d) 1 3 2 4
Ans: (a)
499. Which can be reduced to metal on heating in a stream of hydrogen?
(a) Al2O3 (b) CaO
(c) CuO (d) K2O
Ans: (c)
500. Why do alkali metals impart colour to the flame?
(a) They are electropositive elements
(b) They have low ionisation energies
(c) They belong to IA group
(d) They form ionic compounds
Ans: (b)
501. Which of the following alkaline earth metal is used in manufacture of aeroplane parts?
(a) Se (b)Ca
(c) Mg (d) Be
Ans: (c)
502. Study the following statements
1. Cadmium is used in atomic reactors.
2. Cinnabar is an ore of mercury (Hg).
3. Mercury is transported in metal containers made of iron.
4. Dolomite contains both calcium and magnesium.
Which of the above are true?
(a) 1 and 2 (b) 2 and 3
(c) 1, 2 and 3 (d) All of the these
Ans: (d)
503. Consider the following statements
1. Copper pyrites (CuFeS2) are concentrated by froth-floatation method.
2. Iron ore is concentrated by magnetic treatment.
3. The oil used in the froth floatation method for the purification of ores is pine oil.
Which of the above is/are correct?
(a) Only 1 (b) Only 2
(c) 1, 2 and 3 (d) 1 and 3
Ans: (c)
504. Match List I with List II.
List I List II
A. German silver 1. Tin
B. Solder 2. Nickel
C. Bleaching powder 3. Sodium
D. Hypo 4. Chlorine
Codes A B C D A B C D
(a) 2 1 4 3 (b) 1 4 3 2
(c) 4 3 2 1 (d) 3 2 1 4
Ans: (a)
505. Match List I with List II.
List I List II
A. Haematite 1. Aluminium
B. Cassiterite 2. Tin
C. Cryolite 3. Silver
D. Argentite 4. Iron
Codes A B C D A B C D
(a) 4 2 1 3 (b) 2 1 3 4
(c) 1 3 4 2 (d) 3 4 2 1
Ans: (a)
506. Barium in a suitable form is administered to patients before an X-ray examination of the stomach, because
(a) barium allows X-rays to pass through the stomach on account of its transparency to X-rays.
(b) barium compound, like magnesium sulphate helps in cleaning the stomach before X-rays examination.
(c) barium is a good absorber of X-rays and this helps the stomach to appear clearly in contrast with the other regions in the picture.
(d) barium salts are white in colour and this helps the stomach to appear clearly in contrast with other regions in the picture.
Ans: (c)
507. Consider the following statements
1. Gold is the most ductile metal.
2. The best conductors of heat are silver and copper.
3. Alkali metals (lithium, sodium, potassium) are so soft that they can be cut with a knife.
Which of the statements given above are correct?
(a) 1 and 2 (b) 1 and 3
(c) 2 and 3 (d) 1, 2 and 3
Ans: (d)
508. Consider the following statements
1. Ore is heated generally in the absence of air then process is called calcination.
2. Ore is heated generally in the presence of air, then process is called roasting.
3. Reduction of oxide with carbon at high temperature is called smelting.
Which of the above are true?
(a) 1 and 2 (b) 2 and 3
(c) 1 and 3 (d) 1, 2 and 3
Ans: (d)
509. Consider the following statements
1. Silver articles become black after sometime when exposed to air because they reacts with sulphur in the air to form a coating of silver sulphide.
2. Copper reacts with moist carbon dioxide in the air and loses its shiny brown surface and gains a green coat of copper carbonate.
3. Iron when exposed to moist air for a long time acquires a coating of a brown flaky substance called rust.
Which of the statements given above are correct?
(a) 1 and 2 (b) 1 and 3
(c) 2 and 3 (d) 1, 2 and 3
Ans: (d)
510. Consider the following statements
1. Galvanisation is the method of protecting steel and iron from rusting by coating them with a thin layer of zinc.
2. Pure iron is very soft but if it is mixed with a small amount of carbon, it becomes hard and strong.
3. When iron is mixed with nickel and chromium, we get stainless steel, which is hard and does not rust.
Which of the statements given above are correct?
(a) 1 and 2 (b) 1 and 3
(c) 2 and 3 (d) 1, 2 and 3
Ans: (d)
511. Match List I with List II and select the correct answer.
List I List II
A. Slaked lime 1. Na2HCO3
B. Caustic soda 2. Na2CO3
C. Washing soda 3. NaOH
D. Baking powder 4. Ca(OH)2 5. C,O
Codes A B C D
(a) 4 3 2 1
(b) 5 3 2 1
(c) 4 2 3 1
(d) 5 2 1 3
Ans: (a)
512. Solvay process converts which of the following into soda ash?
(a) Brine (b) Caustic soda
(c) Sodium bicarbonate
(d) Sodium oxide
Ans: (c)
513. Which one of the following pairs of metals constitutes the lightest metal and the heaviest densest metal, respectively?
(a) Lithium and mercury
(b) Lithium and osmium
(c) Aluminium and mercury
(d) Aluminium and osmium
Ans: (b)
514. The first metal used by man was
(a) gold (b) silver
(c) copper (d) iron
Ans: (c)
515. Monazite is an ore of
(a) zircorium (b) thorium
(c) titanium (d) iron
Ans: (b)
516. Match List I with List II and select the correct answer.
List I List II
A. Diamond 1. Calcium
B. Marble 2. Silicon
C. Sand 3. Aluminum
D. Ruby 4. Carbon
Codes A B C D
(a) 3 1 2 4
(b) 4 2 1 3
(c) 2 1 3 4
(d) 4 1 2 3
Ans: (d)
517. Glass is attacked by which of the following
(a) HCl (b) HF
(c) H SO 2 4 (d) HNO3
Ans: (c)
518. Iron sheet kept in moist air covered with rust. Rust is
(a) an element
(b) a compound
(c) a mixture of iron and dust
(d) a mixture of iron, oxygen and water
Ans: (b)
519. Which one of the following is the chemical name for baking soda?
(a) Sodium bicarbonate (Sodium hydrogen carbonate)
(b) Sodium carbonate
(c) Potassium bicarbonate (Potassium hydrogen carbonate)
(d) Potassium carbonate
Ans: (a)
520. ‘German silver’ is used to make decorative articles, coinage metal, ornaments etc.The name is given because
(a) It is an alloy of copper and contains silver as one of its components.
(b) Germans were the first to use silver
(c) Its appearance is like silver
(d) it is an alloy of silver
Ans: (c)
521. The rusting of iron nail
(a) decreases its weight
(b) increases its weight
(c) does not affect weight but iron is oxidised
(d) does not affect weight but iron is reduced
Ans: (b)
522. Which one of the following elements will not react with dilute HCl to produce H 2?
(a) Hg (b) Al (c) Mg (d) Fe
Ans: (a)
523. Food cans are coated with tin but not with zinc because?
(a) zinc is costlierthan tin
(b) zinc has a higher melting point than tin
(c) zinc is more reactive than tin
(d) tin is more reactive than zinc
Ans: (c)
524. Which one the following is as philosopher’s wool?
(a) Zinc bromide (b) Zinc nitrate
(c) Zinc chloride (d) Zinc oxide
Ans: (d)
525. Which one of the following does not contain silver?
(a) Horn silver (b) German Silver
(c) Ruby silver (d) Lunar caustic
Ans: (b)
526. Which are the materials generally employed as solder in soldering operation in electronics?
(a) Iron and tin (b) Lead and tin
(c) Aluminium and lead
(d) Aluminium and iron
Ans: (b)
527. Which one among the following metals is used in fireworks to make a brilliant white light?
(a) Sodium (b) Magnesium
(c) Aluminium (d) Silver
Ans: (d)
Part 11 Non-Metals
528. What is the colour of oxygen in solid state?
(a) Pale yellow (b) Pale blue
(c) Light green (d) Greenish yellow
Ans: (b)
529. Red phosphorus is used in the manufacture of safety matches. This is due to the fact that
(a) it show phosphorescence
(b) at ordinary temperature, it is less reactive than other varieties of phosphorus
(c) it cannot be converted to white phosphorus on heating
(d) it does not react with halogen on heating
Ans: (a)
530. Following statements are made in connection with carbon dioxide (CO2).
1. CO2 is a poisonous gas.
2. CO2 is an acidic oxide.
3. CO2 turns lime water milky.
Which of the statement(s) given above is/are correct?
(a) 1 and 2 (b) 2 and 3
(c) Only 3 (d) 1 and 3
Ans: (b)
531. Which one of the following is used for writing on glass?
(a) Silicon
(b) Graphite
(c) Hydrogen fluoride
(d) Hydrogen iodide
Ans: (c)
532. Which one among the following statements is not correct about graphite?
(a) It is themost stable allotrope of carbon
(b) It is an electrically conducting material
(c) Crystalline spherical beads of graphite have very good lubricating property under dry conditions
(d) It is the higher grade of coal
Ans: (d)
533. Which one of the following is the correct order in which the gases H2, Ne, O2 and N2 are evolved on fractional distillation of liquid air?
(a) H2, Ne, O2, N2 (b)H2, Ne, N2, O2
(c) N2, O2, Ne , H2 (d)O2, N2, H2, Ne
Ans: (b)
534. Match List I with List II.
List I List II
A. Oil of vitriol 1. H2SO5
B. Caro’s acid 2. H2SO4
C. Bleaching powder 3. Ca(H2PO4) 2
D. Superphosphate of lime 4. CaOCl 2
Codes A B C D A B C D
(a) 1 4 3 2 (b) 2 1 4 3
(c) 4 3 2 1 (d) 3 2 1 4
Ans: (b)
535. Consider the following statements
1. Acid rain is caused by emission of carbon dioxide, sulphur dioxide and nitrogen oxides.
2. The most important gas which leads to acidification is sulphur dioxide.
Which of the statement(s) given above is/are correct?
(a) Only 1
(b) Only 2
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
Ans: (c)
536. Consider the following statements
1. The non-metals are either solids or gases except bromine which is a liquid.
2. Iodine is a non-metal but it is lustrous.
3. Diamond, an allotrope of carbon, is the hardest natural substance.
Which of the statements given above are correct?
(a) 1 and 2
(b) 1 and 3
(c) 1, 2 and 3
(d) None of the above
Ans: (c)
537. Which of the following are some important pollutants released by steel industry in India?
1. Oxides of sulphur
2. Oxides of nitrogen
3. Carbon monoxide
4. Carbon dioxide Select the correct answer using the codes given below
(a) 1, 3 and 4 (b) 2 and 3
(c) 1 and 4 (d) 1, 2, 3 and 4
Ans: (d)
538. Why is nitrogen molecule chemically less active?
(a) It has small atomic radius
(b) It has high electronegativity
(c) It has high dissociation energy
(d) It has stable electronic configuration
Ans: (c)
539. Which among the following is an element?
(a) Alumina (b) Brass
(c) Graphite (d) Silica
Ans: (c)
540. Match List I with List II.
List I List II
A. Purification of bauxite 1. Haber’s process
B. Synthesis of ammonia 2. van Arkel process
C. Purification of titanium 3. Hoop’s process
D. Manufacture of caustic soda 4. Castner-Kellner process
Codes A B C D A B C D
(a) 3 1 2 4 (b) 1 2 4 3
(c) 2 4 3 1 (d) 4 3 1 2
Ans: (a)
541. Helium is preferred to hydrogen in air balloons because it
(a) is cheaper
(b) is less dense
(c) has greater lifting power
(d) does not form an explosive mixture with air
Ans: (d)
542. Consider the following statements
1. Nitrogen combines with metal to form nitride.
2. NO is formed on lightning.
3. HNO3 cannot be used as nitrogenous fertiliser.
Which of the statement(s) given above statements is/are correct?
(a) Only 1 (b) 2 and 3
(c) 1 and 3 (d) All of these
Ans: (d)
543. Which one of the following noble gases is not found in the atmosphere?
(a) Argon (b) Krypton
(c) Radon (d) Xenon
Ans: (c)
544. Consider the following statements regarding diamond
1. It is an allotrope of silicon.
2. It is a bad conductor of heat and electricity.
3. It is the hardest substance.
4. It burns to produce carbon dioxide.
Which of the statements given above are correct?
(a) 1, 2, 3 and 4 (b) 2, 3 and 4
(c) 1 and 2 (d) 1, 3 and 4
Ans: (b)
545. Calgon (Sodium metaphosphate) finds application as
(a) artificial jewel (b) paint
(c) a resin (d) washing powder
Ans: (d)
546. Consider the following statements
1. Non-metals are neither malleable nor ductile.
2. Non-metals are bad conductors of heat and electricity except for graphite, which conducts electricity.
3. Non-metals form negatively charged ions by gaining electrons when reacting with metals.
Which of the statements given above are correct?
(a) 1 and 2 (b) 1 and 3
(c) 2 and 3 (d) 1, 2 and 3
Ans: (d)
547. Match List I with List II.
List I List II
A. Hydrogen was discovered by 1. Priestley
B. The name hydrogen was proposed by 2. Bernard
C. Hydrogen peroxide was discovered by 3. Lavosier
D. Oxygen was discovered by 4. Cavendish
Codes A B C D A B C D
(a) 4 3 2 1 (b) 3 2 1 4
(c) 2 1 4 3 (d) 1 4 3 2
Ans: (a)
548. White Phosphorus glows in the dark due to
(a) amorphous character
(b) slow oxidation
(c) high ignition temperature
(d) good conducting property of electricity
Ans: (b)
549. Which one of the following is also called stranger gas?
(a) Argon (b) Neon
(c) Xenon (d) Nitrous oxide
Ans: (c)
550. Consider the following statements
1. Nitric acid is used in the production of fertilizers.
2. Sulphuric acid is used in the production of explosives.
Which of the statement(s) given above is/are correct?
(a) Only 1 (b) Only 2
(c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2
Ans: (c)
551. The most reactive among the halogen is
(a) fluorine (b) chlorine
(c) bromine (d) iodine
Ans: (a)
552. Which one of the following formed from sea water?
(a) Halogen (b) Chlorine
(c) Oxygen (d) Sulphur
Ans: (a)
553. Bleaching powder is obtained by the action of chlorine gas and
(a) dry CO
(b) dil. solution of Ca(OH)2
(c) dry slaked lime
(d) conc. solution of Ca(OH)2
Ans: (c)
554. Which noble gas was discovered in chromosphere of the sun?
(a) Helium (b) Neon
(c) Xenon (d) Radon
Ans: (a)
555. Match List I with List II.
List I List II
A. Hydrofluoric acid 1. Etching of glass
B. I2 dissolved in alcohol 2. Antiseptic
C. Chlorine 3. Disinfectant
D. Polyvinyl chloride 4. Plastic
Codes A B C D A B C D
(a) 1 2 3 4 (b) 2 3 4 1
(c) 3 4 1 2 (d) 4 1 2 3
Ans: (a)
556. The radioactive noble gas is
(a) He (b)Xe (c) Rn (d) Ne
Ans: (c)
557. Dry ice is
(a) H2O (s) (b)NH3(g)
(c) CO2(s) (d) PH3 (g)
Ans: (c)
558. Consider the following statements
1. Boric acid is a mild antiseptic and is used as a food preservative.
2. Borax and other borates are used in water-treatment, timber preservation, glass manufacture.
3. Sodium peroxoborate is an important constituent of washing powder. Select the correct statements.
(a) 1 and 2 (b) 2 and 3
(c) 1 and 3 (d) 1, 2 and 3
Ans: (d)
559. Which one of the following is not an allotrope of carbon?
(a) Soot (b) Graphite
(c) Diamond (d) Carborundum
Ans: (d)
560. Carbon monoxide is a poisonous gas the antidote used for this poisoning is
(a) pure oxygen (b) carbonic acid
(c) carborundum
(d) carbogen
Ans: (d)
561. Match List I with List II. List I List II
A. Sodium silicate 1. Potash glass
B. Potassium silicate 2. Soda glass
C. Boric acid 3. Buffer
D. Borax 4. Mild antiseptic
Codes A B C D A B C D
(a) 2 1 4 3 (b) 1 4 3 2
(c) 4 3 2 1 (d) 3 2 1 4
Ans: (a)
562. Which one of following is water gas?
(a) Mixture of carbon monoxide and hydrogen
(b) Mixture of carbon monoxide and nitrogen
(c) Mixture of carbon dioxide and water vapour
(d) Mixture of carbon monoxide and water vapour
Ans: (a)
563. Percentage of lead in lead pencil is
(a) 30 (b) 20
(c) 10 (d) zero
Ans: (d)
564. Which gas is used in aerated water?
(a) CO2 (b) SO2
(c) CO (d) Water vapours
Ans: (a)
565. The colour of blue glass is due to the presence of oxide of
(a) chromium (b) cobalt
(c) gold (d) silver
Ans: (b)
566. Glass is best described as a
(a) solid (b) liquid
(c) supercooled liquid
(d) colloidal sol
Ans: (c)
567. Which among the following elements is abundant on the lunar surface and holds the potential to put an end to the energy crisis of the earth?
(a) Helium I (b) Helium II
(c) Helium III (d) Helium IV
Ans: (c)
568. Consider the following statements Laughing gas (N2O)
1. finds use as a propellant for whipped ice-cream.
2. used as an anaesthetic.
3. used for the preparation of N3H.
4. used as fuel for rockets.
Which of the above is/are correct?
(a) Only 1 (b) Only 2
(c) 1, 2 and 3 (d) All of these
Ans: (c)
569. Consider the following statements
1. Euchlorine is a mixture of Cl2and CO2.
2. Bromine gas turns starch iodine paper red.
3. Photographic plates are coated with a film of AgBr.
Which of the above is/are true?
(a) Only 1 (b) 1 and 2
(c) 1 and 3 (d) 1, 2 and 3
Ans: (c)
570. Which one of the following is a mixed fertilizers?
(a) Urea
(b) CAN
(c) Ammonium sulphate
(d) NPK
Ans: (d)
571. Match List I and List II.
List I List II
A. Coloured discharge tubes for advertisement 1. Freon
B. Radioactive disintegration of radium (226) 2. Neon
C. Electric bulbs 3. Radon
D. Refrigerant gas 4. Argon
Codes A B C D
(a) 1 2 3 4
(b) 4 1 2 3
(c) 3 4 1 2
(d) 2 3 4 1
Ans: (d)
572. Dihydrogen can be prepared on a commercial scale by the action of steam on hydrocarbons, when a mixture of CO and H 2 gas is formed. It is known as
(a) water gas (b) producer gas
(c) industrial gas (d) fuel gas
Ans: (a)
573. On burning hydrogen in air, the colour of flame is
(a) green (b) light bluish
(c) yellow (d) None of these
Ans: (b)
574. Pure water can be obtained from sea water by
(a) centrifugation
(b) plasmolysis
(c) reverse osmosis
(d) sedimentation
Ans: (c)
575. Fuel used for rocket propulsion is a mixture of
(a) hydrazine and hydrogen peroxide
(b) hydrazine and TNT
(c) hydroxyl amine and TNT
(d) hydroxyl amine and hydrogen peroxide
Ans: (c)
576. Water gas is produced by
(a) passing steam over red hot coke
(b) passing steam and air over red hot coke
(c) burning coke in excess of air
(d) burning coke in limited supply of air
Ans: (a)
577. Consider the following statements
1. White phosphorus has garlic like smell.
2. White phosphorus kept in the light it turns yellow and thus it is called as yellow phosphorus.
3. White phosphorus produces yellowish green light when kept inside the dark and this phenomenon is called phosphorescence.
Which of the statements given above are correct?
(a) 1 and 2 (b) 2 and 3
(c) 1 and 3 (d) 1, 2 and 3
Ans: (d)
578. Tincture of iodine is
(a) CHI 3 in alcohol (b) I 2 in alcohol
(c) I 2 in KI (d) CHI 3 in KI
Ans: (b)
579. Assertion (A) Carbon can form more compounds than any other element.
Reason (R) Carbon can exist in various allotropes.
Codes
(a) Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A
(b) Both A and R are true, but R is not the correct explanation of A
(c) A is true, but R is false
(d) A is false, but R is true
Ans: (b)
580. Which one of the following statements is not correct?
(a) Hydrogen is an element.
(b) Hydrogen is the lightest element.
(c) Hydrogen has not isotopes.
(d) Hydrogen and oxygen form and explosive mixture.
Ans: (c)
581. Assertion (A) To dilute sulphuric acid, acid is added to water and not water to acid.
Reason (R) Specific heat of water is quite large.
Codes
(a) Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A
(b) Both A and R are true, but R is not the correct explanation of A
(c) A is true, but R is false
(d) A is false, but R is true
Ans: (b)
582. Which one of the following oxides of nitrogen is known as ‘anhydride’ of nitric acid?
(a) N O 2 (b)N O 2 3
(c) NO2 (d)N O 2 5
Ans: (d)
583. Water softner is
(a) borax (b) zeolite
(c) Both a and b (d) None of these
Ans: (c)
584. Consider the following statements
1. Borax is used as a flux in brazing and in silver soldering.
2. Borax is used in making enamel.
3. Borax is used in leather tanning.
Which of the above is/are true about borax?
(a) Only 1 (b) 1 and 2
(c) 2 and 3 (d) 1, 2 and 3
Ans: (d)
585. Diamond is a
(a) good conductor and soft
(b) non-conductor and soft
(c) non-conductor and hard
(d) good conductor and hard
Ans: (c)
586. Consider the following statements
1. Ozone is used as germicide, air and water purifiers, in making artificial, silk etc.
2. Bitterness in the onions is due to presence of sulphur compounds.
3. Helium is used in filling the tyres of the aircraft.
Which of the statements given above are correct?
(a) 1 and 2 (b) 2 and 3
(c) 1 and 3 (d) 1, 2 and 3
Ans: (d)
587. Consider the following statements
1. In laboratory, sulphur dioxide is prepared by Cu +H2SO4.
2. Carnalite is a source of sulphur.
3. Brinstone is another name of sulphur.
Which of the above is/are true about sulphur?
(a) Only 1 (b) 1 and 3
(c) 2 and 3 (d) 1, 2 and 3
Ans: (b)
588. Why are noble gases so called?
(a) They react quickly with other compound.
(b) Due to their chemical inertness.
(c) They react onlywith carbon compound.
(d) They can produce oxygen.
Ans: (b)
589. Synthetic gas is a mixture of
(a) steam and carbon monoxide
(b) carbon monoxide and nitrogen
(c) hydrogen and methane
(d) hydrogen and carbon monoxide
Ans: (d)
590. Consider the following statements
1. Phosgene is obtained by the reaction of carbon monoxide and chlorine.
2. Chemically phosgene gas is carbonyl chloride.
3. Ordinary glass is calcium and sodium silicate.
4. Chief constituent of water glass is sodium silicate.
Which of the above are correct?
(a) 1 and 2 (b) 2 and 3
(c) 1, 2 and 3 (d) All of these
Ans: (d)
591. When CO2 is passed through an aqueous solution of bleaching powder, the gas evolved is
(a) chlorine (b) oxygen
(c) ozone (d) chlorine dioxide
Ans: (a)
592. Graphite is used in atomic piles
(a) as a lubricant (b) as a fuel
(c) as an insulator (d) as a moderator
Ans: (d)
593. Assertion (A) Phosgene is a poisonous compound forms from chloroform in the presence of UV-rays and O2.
Reason (R) It is used for the synthesis of precursor for the poly urethane polymer.
Codes
(a) Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A.
(b) Both A and R are true and R is not the correct explanation of A.
(c) A is true but R is false.
(d) A is false but R is true.
Ans: (b)
594. Consider the following statements
1. Sea weeds are important source of I2.
2. Bleaching powder is obtained by the interaction of Cl2 and dry slaked lime.
3. Chlorine is mixed in water so that bacteria are killed.
4. Hydrofluoric acid is not preserved in glass bottle because it reacts with silica of glass.
Which of the above is/are true?
(a) 1, 2, 3 and 4 (b) 1 and 2
(c) 2 and 3 (d) 1, 2 and 3
Ans: (a)
595. Consider the following statements
1. Dry ice is the solid form of CO2.
2. Dry ice is used primarily as a cooling agent.
3. Water ice is colder than dry ice.
Which of the statement(s) given above is/are correct?
(a) Only 1 (b) Only 2
(c) 1 and 2 (d) 1, 2 and 3
Ans: (c)
596. Activated charcoal is employed to remove colouring matter from pure substance, it works by
(a) bleaching (b) oxidation
(c) reduction (d) adsorption
Ans: (d)
597. Which one of the following is produced during the formation of photochemical smog?
(a) Hydrocarbons (b) Nitrogen oxide
(c) Ozone (d) Methane
Ans: (b)
598. Study the following statements
1. Bromine is a reactive non-metal.
2. Hydrochloric acid is also called as maratic acid.
3. Chlorine is used in the production of phosgine, mustard gas etc.
Which of the statements above are correct?
(a) All of these (b) 1 and 2
(c) 1 and 3 (d) 2 and 3
Ans: (a)
599. Match List I with List II.
List I List II
A. Tear gas 1. Cl3NO3
B. Litharge 2. PbO
C. Red lead 3. Pb3O4
D. Carborundum 4. SiC
Codes A B C D
(a) 4 1 2 3 (b) 3 4 1 2
(c) 2 3 4 1 (d) 1 2 3 4
Ans: (d)
600. Consider the following statements.
1. Chlorine is manufactured by Deacon’s process.
2. Bromine is obtained on a commercial scale from carnallite.
3. Chlorine acts as bleaching agent only in the presence of moisture.
Which of the above are false?
(a) 1 and 2 (b) 2 and 3
(c) 1 and 3 (d) None of these
Ans: (d)
601. Which one of the following is not true for diamond?
(a) Each carbon atom is linked to four other carbon atoms.
(b) Three-dimensional network, structure of carbon atoms is formed.
(c) It is used as an abrasive for sharpening hard tools.
(d) It can be used as a lubricant.
Ans: (d)
Part 12 Hydrocarbons
602. The element which liberated O2 from water is
(a) P (b) N (c) F (d) I
Ans: (c)
603. Study the following statements
1. Diazonium salts play principal role in dye industry.
2. Perspex glass is commonly used for constructing residential and commercial aquariums.
3. Gamaxene is a ring compound used as pesticide. It is also called benzene hexachloride (BHC).
Which of the statements given above are correct?
(a) 1 and 2 (b) 1 and 3
(c) 2 and 3 (d) 1, 2 and 3
Ans: (d)
604. The gas which turns limewater milky is
(a) carbon dioxide
(b) carbon monoxide
(c) ammonia
(d) nitrogen dioxide
Ans: (a)
605. Consider the following statements about nitrobenzene
1. Nitrobenzene is highly toxic and readily absorbed through the skin.
2. Nitrobenzene is consumed in the production of aniline.
3. It is also used in shoe and floor polishes.
Which of the statements given above are correct?
(a) 1 and 2 (b) 1 and 3
(c) 2 and 3 (d) 1, 2 and 3
Ans: (d)
606. Consider the following statements
1. Trinitrotoluene (TNT) is one of the most common explosives for military and industrial application.
2. The main use of aniline in the dye industry.
3. Azodyes play an important role as colouring agents in the textile, food and pharmaceutical industry.
Which of the statements given above are correct?
(a) 1 and 2 (b) 1 and 3
(c) 2 and 3 (d) 1, 2 and 3
Ans: (d)
607. Match List I with List II and select the correct answer using the codes given below the List.
List I List II
A. Natural rubber 1. Buna-S
B. Synthetic rubber 2. Latex
C. Natural fibre 3. Wool
D. Synthetic fibre 4. Nylon
Codes A B C D A B C D
(a) 2 1 3 4 (b) 1 3 4 2
(c) 3 4 2 1 (d) 4 2 1 3
Ans: (a)
608. Consider the following statements
1. Lassaigne’s test is used for the detection nitrogen, sulphur and halogens.
2. In organic compound, halogens are estimated by Carius method.
3. Kjeldahl’s method is used for the estimation of nitrogen.
Which of the statements given above are correct?
(a) 1 and 2 (b) 1 and 3
(c) 2 and 3 (d) 1, 2 and 3
Ans: (d)
609. Compounds having same number and kind of atoms but different arrangement of atoms in their molecules are called
(a) allotropes (b) isotopes
(c) isomers
(d) polymers
Ans: (c)
610. To weld metals together, high temperature required such a high temperature is obtained by burning
(a) acetylene in oxygen
(b) LPG in oxygen
(c) methane in oxygen
(d) acetylene in nitrogen
Ans: (a)
611. Match List I with List II and select the correct answer using the codes given below the list.
List I List II
A. Tollen’s reagent 1. Ammoniacal silver nitrate
B. Schiff’s reagent 2. Magenta solution decolourised with sulphurous acid
C. Fehling’s solution 3. Nitrochloroform
D. Chloropicrin 4. Copper sulphate and Rochelle salt +NaOH
Codes A B C D A B C D
(a) 1 2 4 3 (b) 2 4 3 1
(c) 4 3 1 2 (d) 3 1 2 4
Ans: (a)
612. Which of the following has highest knocking property?
(a) Aromatic hydrocarbon
(b) Olefins
(c) Branched chain paraffins
(d) Straight chain paraffins
Ans: (d)
613. Hinsberg’s reagent is
(a) benzene sulphonyl chloride
(b) benzene sulphuryl chloride
(c) benzene sulphonic acid
(d) benzene sulphonamide
Ans: (a)
614. Consider the following statements
1. A sample of chloroform before using as an anaesthetic is tested by ammonical silver nitrate solution.
2. Sodium acetamide smell like reminiscent of mice.
3. The reverse of esterification is called as hydrolysis.
Which of the statements given above are correct?
(a) 1 and 2 (b) 1 and 3
(c) 2 and 3 (d) 1, 2 and 3
Ans: (d)
615. Which is a tribasic acid?
(a) Succinic acid (b) Lactic acid
(c) Citric acid (d) Valeric acid
Ans: (c)
616. The pure form of amorphous carbon is
(a) diamond (b) graphite
(c) charcoal (d) fullerene
Ans: (c)
617. Which of the following elements is found in all organic compounds?
(a) Carbon (b) Calcium
(c) Nitrogen (d) Oxygen
Ans: (a)
618. Which one of the following substances is made from natural raw materials?
(a) Rayon (b) Nylon
(c) Polyester (d) Polystyrene
Ans: (a)
619. The first organic compound synthesised in the laboratory is
(a) urea (b) methane
(c) ethylene
(d) acetic acid
Ans: (a)
620. The polymeric fibres used as a substitute for wool in making synthetic blankets, sweaters, etc is
(a) nylon (b) teflon
(c) orlon (d) bakelite
Ans: (c)
621. The handle of pressure cookers is made of plastic because it should be made non-conductor of heat. The plastic used there is the first man-made plastic, which is
(a) Polythene (b) Terylene
(c) Nylon (d) Bakelite
Ans: (d)
622. Study the following statements
1. Two immiscible liquids are separated by separating funnel.
2. Latest technique for purification, isolation and separation of organic compound is chromatography.
3. Oils are purified by steam distillation.
Which of the statements given above are correct?
(a) 1 and 2 (b) 2 and 3
(c) 1 and 3 (d) 1, 2 and 3
Ans: (d)
623. Statement I Petroleum is a mixture of many different hydrocarbons of different densities.
Statement II The grade of petroleum, depends mainly on the relative proportion of the different hydrocarbons. Codes
(a) Both the Statements are individually true and Statement II is the correct explanation of Statement I.
(b) Both the Statements are individually true but Statement II is not the correct explanation of Statement I.
(c) Statement I is true but Statement II is false.
(d) Statement I is false but Statement II is true.
Ans: (b)
624. Study the following statements
1. The common name of propanone is dimethyl ketone.
2. An isomer of ethanol is dimethyl ether.
3. When water vapours are passed over aluminium carbide, we get methane.
Which of the statements given above are correct?
(a) 1, 2 and 3 (b) 1 and 2
(c) 1 and 3 (d) 2 and 3
Ans: (a)
625. The excess use of ethyl alcohol damages the human organ which is
(a) kidney (b) liver
(c) heart
(d) intestine
Ans: (b)
626. Which one of the following is the correct sequence in increasing order of molecular weights of the hydrocarbons?
(a) Methane, ethane, propane and butane
(b) Propane, butane, ethane and methane
(c) Butane, ethane, propane and methane
(d) Butane, propane, ethane and methane
Ans: (a)
627. Consider the following statements
1. The medicine urotropin utilized in the urinal diseases is prepared from formaldehyde.
2. The medicine chlorotone utilize to keep the mental balance of the sailor or mountainers is basically extracted from acetone.
Which of the statement(s) given above is/are correct?
(a) Only 1 (b) Only 2
(c) Both 1 and 2 (d) None of these
Ans: (c)
628. Study the following statements
1. The antifreeze is a mixture of ethy lene glycol and water.
2. The last product of the alcoholic fermentation is ethyl alcohol.
3. The terylene is obtained by the reaction of terephthalic acid and ethylene glycol.
Which of the statements given above are correct?
(a) 1, 2 and 3 (b) 1 and 2
(c) 1 and 3 (d) 2 and 3
Ans: (a)
629. Study the following statements
1. The oil of mirbane is also known by the name of nitrobenzene.
2. The chemical name of the tear gas is α-chloro acetophenone.
3. Sodium benzoyate is employed to examine the adulteration of the foodstuffs.
Which of the above are correct?
(a) 1 and 2 (b) 1 and 3
(c) 2 and 3 (d) 1, 2 and 3
Ans: (d)
630. The father of the aromatic organic compounds is
(a) methane (b) benzene
(c) phenol (d) aniline
Ans: (b)
631. The chloroform is kept in the coloured bottel or container because it directly reacts with air and light and forms a toxicated substance
(a) phosphine (b) phosgene
(c) mustard gas (d) CO
Ans: (b)
632. The teflon plastic is prepared by the polymerisation of
(a) ethylene (b) acetylene
(c) benzene
(d) tetrafluoro ethylene
Ans: (d)
633. The qualitative diagnostic of gasoline is detected by
(a) iodine value (b) cetane number
(c) octane number (d) mass density
Ans: (c)
634. Consider the following statements
1. The carbon tetrachloride is also known as pyrrole.
2. The toxic gas lewisite used in the war is prepared by acetylene.
3. The gas utilised in the weldings of the metallic joints is acetylene.
Which of the statements given above are correct?
(a) 1 and 2 (b) 1 and 3
(c) 2 and 3 (d) 1, 2 and 3
Ans: (d)
635. Match List I with List II and select the correct answer using the codes below the lists.
List I (Example) List II (Separation method)
A. Methanol and acetone can be separated by 1. Fractional distillation
B. Aniline is separated from a mixture by 2. Steam distillation
C. Naphathalene and benzoic acid can be separated by 3. Chromatography
D. Camphor and benzoic acid can be separated by 4. Chemical method
Codes A B C D
(a) 1 2 3 4 (b) 2 3 4 1
(c) 3 4 1 2 (d) 4 1 2 3
Ans: (a)
636. The vaseline is extracted through the
(a) plant gum (b) coaltar
(c) pern wax (d) petroleum
Ans: (d)
637. In the heavy vehicles, diesel is used as fuel because
(a) it has more mileage and the safe for the engine
(b) it is less costly and useful for the fuel savings point of view
(c) it has high power and economic savings
(d) it is cheaper with comparison to the petrol
Ans: (c)
638. Which of the following gases is used in cigarette lighters?
(a) Butane (b) Methane
(c) Propane (d) Radon
Ans: (b)
639. The normal butane and isobutane are
(a) optional isomer (b) chain isomer
(c) positional isomer (d) functional isomer
Ans: (b)
640. To prevent from knocking the substance employed in the car engine is
(a) ethyl alcohol (b) butane
(c) tetraethyl lead (d) white petrol
Ans: (c)
641. Consider the following statements
1. Waxes of bees of honey contains myricyl palmitate.
2. Spermy waxes obtained from the sperms of whale and in it cetyl palmitate is found.
3. Paraffin waxes obtained from petroleum.
Which of the statements given above are correct?.
(a) 1 and 2 (b) 1 and 3
(c) 2 and 3 (d) 1, 2 and 3
Ans: (d)
642. Consider the following statements
1. Gasoline is used as fuel in the motor vehicles is a mixture of petrol and alcohol.
2. Petroleumis also known as liquid gold.
3. The various components of the petroleum substance are separated through fractional distillation.
Which of the statements given above are correct?
(a) 1 and 2 (b) 1 and 3
(c) 2 and 3 (d) 1, 2 and 3
Ans: (d)
643. Consider the following statements
1. The alcohol which is 100% pure is called absolute alcohol.
2. Ethyl alcohol which cannot be used for the beverage purpose is called denatured alcohol.
3. The mixture of purified spirit, benzene and petrol is called power alcohol.
Which of the statements given above are correct?
(a) 1 and 2 (b) 1 and 3
(c) 2 and 3 (d) 1, 2 and 3
Ans: (d)
644. Match List I with List II and select the correct answer using the codes given below the lists.
List I (Polymer) List II (Monomer)
A. Polythene 1. Styrene
B. Polystyrene 2. Ethylene
C. Teflon 3. Tetrafluoro ethylene
D. Polyvinyl chloride (PVC) 4. Vinyl chloride
Codes A B C D A B C D
(a) 2 1 3 4 (b) 1 3 4 2
(c) 3 4 2 1 (d) 4 2 1 3
Ans: (a)
645. Consider the following statements
1. Methyl alcohol is also called wood spirit because in early stage it was prepared by the destructive distillation of wood.
2. Ethyl alcohol is also called grain alcohol because it is obtained by the starch enriched substance.
3. Rectified spirit is also called commercial alcohol.
Which of the statements given above are correct?
(a) 1 and 2 (b) 1 and 3
(c) 2 and 3 (d) 1, 2 and 3
Ans: (d)
646. Match List I with List II and select the correct answer using the codes given below thie lists.
List I (Organic compound) List II (Functional group)
A. Alcohol 1. — CHO
B. Aldehyde 2. — OH
C. Carboxylic acid 3. C == O
D. Ketone 4. — COOH
Codes A B C D A B C D
(a) 2 1 4 3 (b) 1 4 3 2
(c) 4 3 2 1 (d) 3 2 1 4
Ans: (a)
647. Consider the following statements
1. Acetylene is utilised in the form of anaesthesia, in the welding and cutting the metallic bodies, in the ripening of fruits etc.
2. Chlorofluorocarbon (CFC) is used in the form of solvent, coolent, preservator.
3. Benzene is used in dry cleaning of woolen garments, in the manufacturing of explosive.
Which of the statements given above are correct?
(a) 1 and 2 (b) 1 and 3
(c) 2 and 3 (d) 1, 2 and 3
Ans: (d)
648. Match List I with List II and select the correct answer using codes given below the lists. List I (Organic acid) List II (Natural source)
A. Citric acid 1. Lemon
B. Benzoic acid 2. In leaves, urine
C. Oxalic acid 3. In the tree of sarel
D. Acetic acid 4. In juices of fruits
Codes A B C D A B C D
(a) 2 3 4 1 (b) 1 2 3 4
(c) 3 4 1 2 (d) 4 1 2 3
Ans: (b)
649. The example of the fermentation is
(a) formation of wine through the juice of sugarcane.
(b) appearance of the sourness the moist flour.
(c) appearance of the sourness in themilk.
(d) All of the above
Ans: (d)
650. The process of transformation of the complex higher hydrocarbons of volatile and high boiling point into the simpler hydrocarbons of less boiling point is called
(a) polymerisation (b) condensation
(c) cracking (d) fermentation
Ans: (c)
651. The vinegar is the solution of
(a) 5% acetic acid solution in water
(b) 25% acetic acid solution in water
(c) 50% acetic acid solution in water
(d) 40% acetic acid solution in water
Ans: (a)
652. What is the number of mole(s) of H2 (g) required to saturate one mole benzene?
(a) 1 (b) 2
(c) 3 (d) 4
Ans: (c)
653. Which of the following acid is utilised in the photography?
(a) Formic acid (b) Oxalic acid
(c) Citric acid (d) Acetic acid
Ans: (b)
654. The muscle fatique appears due the accumulation of the which of the following
(a) Pyrubic acid (b) Lactic acid
(c) Oxalo acetic acid
(d) Uric acid
Ans: (b)
655. Which one among the following fuels is used in gas welding?
(a) LPG (b) Ethylene
(c) Methane (d) Acetylene
Ans: (d)
656. Consider the following statements
1. Methane is also known as marsh gas.
2. The main component of the natural gas is methane.
3. Themain component of the gobar gas is methane.
Which of the statements given above are correct?
(a) 1 and 2 (b) 1 and 3
(c) 2 and 3 (d) 1, 2 and 3
Ans: (d)
657. The offending substance in the liquor tragedies leading to blindness etc. is
(a) ethyl alcohol (b) alcohol
(c) benzyl alcohol (d) methyl alcohol
Ans: (d)
658. Which allotropy of carbon is in rigid three-dimensional structure?
(a) Graphite (b) Fullerene
(c) Diamond (d) Carbon black
Ans: (c)
659. Which one of the following carbon compounds will not give a story flame?
(a) Benzene (b) Hexane
(c) Napthalene (d) Anthracene
Ans: (b)
660. Match List I (Industrial process) with List II (Industry with which associated) and select the correct answer using the codes given below the lists.
List I List II
A. Cracking 1. Rubber
B. Smelting 2. Petroleum
C. Hydrogenation 3. Copper
D. Vulcanization 4. Edible fats
Codes A B C D A B C D
(a) 3 2 1 4 (b) 2 3 4 1
(c) 2 3 1 4 (d) 3 2 4 1
Ans: (b)
661. Consider the following statements about acetylene gas
1. It is used in welding industry.
2. It is a raw material for preparing plastics.
3. It is easily, obtained by mixing silicon carbide and water. Of these statements
(a) 1 and 2 are correct
(b) 1 and 3 are correct
(c) 2 and 3 are correct
(d) 1, 2 and 3 are correct
Ans: (a)
662. Which one of the following polymers is used for making bullet proof glass?
(a) Polyvinyl chloride
(b) Polystyrene
(c) Lexan
(d) Nomex
Ans: (c)
663. Study the following statements
1. The gas supplied in cylinders for cooking is mixture of C H 3 8 and C H 4 10.
2. The thermal decomposition of alkanes is known as cracking.
3. Paraffin wax is saturated hydrocarbons.
Which of the statements given above are correct?
(a) 1 and 2 (b) 1 and 3
(c) 2 and 3 (d) 1, 2 and 3
Ans: (d)
664. Assertion (A) The main constituent of the liquified petroleum gas in methane.
Reason (R) Methane can be used directly for burning in homes and factories where it can be supplied through pipelines.
Codes
(a) Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A
(b) Both A and R are true, but R is not the correct explanation of A
(c) A is true, but R is false
(d) A is false, but R is true
Ans: (d)
665. Match List I with List II and select the correct answer using the codes given below the list.
List I (Organic compound) List II (Use)
A. Butane 1. In the production of saccharin
B. Toluene 2. LPG fuel
C. Benzene 3. In dry cleaning
D. Urotropin 4. In the treatment of urological disease
Codes A B C D A B C D
(a) 3 1 4 2 (b) 2 3 1 4
(c) 1 4 2 3 (d) 4 2 3 1
Ans: (b)
666. Liquid hydrocarbon is converted into a mixture of gaseous hydrocarbon by
(a) cracking (b) hydrolysis
(c) oxidation (d) distillation
Ans: (a)
667. Which one of the following petroleum refinery products has the lowest boiling point?
(a) Kerosene (b) Diesel
(c) Gasoline (d) Lubricating oil
Ans: (c)
668. Synthetic ethanol is produced by reacting ethene (in the presence of phosphoric acid) with
(a) hydrogen
(b) potassium dichromate
(c) oxygen (d) water (steam)
Ans: (d)
669. Which is the primary component of natural gas?
(a) Methane (b) Butane
(c) Propene (d) Ethane
Ans: (a)
670. In which among the following molecules is the distance between two adjacent carbon atoms largest?
(a) Benzene (b) Ethane
(c) Ethene (d) Ethyne
Ans: (b)
671. Consider the following statements
1. Carbon black is obtained when methane is heated in absence of air.
2. Kerosene is a mixture of aliphatic hydrocarbons.
3. Most of hydrocarbons from petroleum are obtained by fractional distillation.
Which of the statements given above are correct?
(a) 1 and 2 (b) 1 and 3
(c) 2 and 3 (d) 1, 2 and 3
Ans: (d)
672. Which of the following is an active component of oil of clove?
(a) Menthol (b) Eugenol
(c) Methanol (d) Benzaldehyde
Ans: (b)
673. Match List I with List II and select the correct answer using the codes given below the lists.
List I (Haloalkane/Arene) List II (Application)
A. Iodoform 1. CF4
B. BHC 2. Antiseptic
C. Freon-14 3. Moth repellent
D. Haloethanes 4. Inhalative anaesthetic
E. p-dichlorobenzene 5. Termite pesticide
Codes A B C D E
(a) 2 4 5 3 1
(b) 2 5 1 4 3
(c) 3 4 2 1 5
(d) 1 3 5 2 4
(e) 5 4 3 2 1
Ans: (b)
674. Acetylene is used as an anaesthetic under the name of
(a) narcylene (b) pyrene
(c) neopyrene (d) pyroline
Ans: (a)
675. Match List I with List II and select the correct answer using the codes given below the List.
List I List II
A. Chloropicrin 1. Poisonous gas
B. Methane 2. Marsh gas
C. Acrolin 3. Tear gas
D. LSD 4. Dreamy drug
Codes A B C D
(a) 1 2 3 4
(b) 2 3 4 1
(c) 3 4 1 2
(d) 4 1 2 3
Ans: (a)
676. In cold countries, ethylene glycol is added in the water used in the radiators of cars during winter. This results in
(a) lowering in freezing point
(b) reducing the viscosity
(c) reducing the specific heat
(d) making water a better conductor of electricity
Ans: (a)
677. Match List I with List II and select the correct answer using the codes given below the lists.
List I (Organic acid) List II (Natural source)
A. Formic acid 1. In milk
B. Lactic acid 2. In red ants
C. Tartaric acid 3. In tamarind
D. Glumatic acid 4. In wheat
Codes A B C D A B C D
(a) 2 1 3 4 (b) 1 3 4 2
(c) 3 4 2 1 (d) 4 2 1 3
Ans: (a)
678. Study the following statements
1. Denatured spirit is a mixture of ethyl alcohol, methyl alcohol, pyridine and acetone etc.
2. Diesel is obtained by the fractional distillation of petroleum.
3. Ultra Low Sulphur Diesel (ULSD) or city diesel is an extremely pure form of diesel.
Which of the statements given above are correct?
(a) 1 and 2 (b) 1 and 3
(c) 2 and 3 (d) 1, 2 and 3
Ans: (d)
679. Acidic hydrogen is present in
(a) ethyne (b) ethene
(c) benzene (d) ethane
Ans: (a)
680. Match List I (Fuel gases) with List II (Major constituents) and select the correct answer using the codes given below the lists.
List I List II
A. CNG 1. Carbon monoxide, Hydrogen
B. Coal gas 2. Butane, propane
C. LPG 3. Methane, ethane
D. Water gas 4. Hydrogen,methane,CO
Codes A B C D A B C D
(a) 2 1 3 4 (b) 3 4 2 1
(c) 2 4 3 1 (d) 3 1 2 4
Ans: (b)
681. Consider the following statements
1. Liquefied Natural Gas (LNG) is liquefied under extremely cold temperatures and high pressure to facilitate storage of transportation in specially designed vessels.
2. First LNG terminal in India was built in Hassan.
3. Natural Gas Liquids (NGL) are separated from LPG and these include ethane, propane, butane and natural gasoline.
Which of the statement(s) given above is/are correct?
(a) Only 1 (b) 1 and 3
(c) 2 and 3 (d) 1, 2 and 3
Ans: (b)
682. Methyl Isocyanate gas, which was involved in the disaster in Bhopal in December 1984, was used in the Union Carbide factory for production of
(a) Dyes (b) Detergents
(c) Explosives (d) Pesticides
Ans: (d)
683. Which one of the following polymers is widely used for making bulletproof material?
(a) Polyvinyl chloride
(b) Polyamides (c) Polyethylene
(d) Polycarbonates
Ans: (d)
684. Assertion (A) Formic acid is stronger than acetic acid.
Reason (R) Formic acid is an organic acid.
Codes
(a) Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A
(b) Both A and R are true, but R is not the correct explanation of A
(c) A is true, but R is false
(d) A is false, but R is true
Ans: (b)
685. Consider the following chemicals.
1. Benzene 2. Carbon tetrachloride
3. Sodium carbonate
4. Trichloroethylene
Which of the above is/are used as dry cleaning chemicals?
(a) Only 1 (b) Only 2
(c) 1, 2 and 4
(d) 1, 2, 3, and 4
Ans: (c)
686. Assertion (A) BHC is also called gammexane or 666.
Reason (R) BHC is prepared by the reaction of benzene with Cl2 in the presence of light.
Codes
(a) Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A
(b) Both A and R are true, but R is not the correct explanation of A
(c) A is true, but R is false
(d) A is false, but R is true
Ans: (b)
687. Which one of the following statements regarding ester is incorrect?
(a) Ester is formed by the reaction of acids and alcohols.
(b) The conversion of an acid into an ester is termed as esterification.
(c) The reaction betwen an ester and an acid is termed as saponification.
(d) Nitroglycerine, an important explosive, is an ester.
Ans: (c)
688. Consider the following statements and select the correct code.
1. Shellac is an example of natural plastic.
2. Celluloid was first plastic made by man.
3. Bakelite is prepared from starch and formalin.
Codes
(a) 1, 2 and 3 (b) 1 and 2
(c) 1 and 3 (d) 2 and 3
Ans: (b)
689. Which one of the following statements is in about ketosis?
(a) An excessive accumulation of ketone bodies in the tissues, blood and urine.
(b) Accumulation of ketone occurs due to incomplete oxidation of carbohydrate.
(c) The breath has a fruity odour in ketosis.
(d) Weakness, headache, nausea and vomiting are common in ketosis.
Ans: (b)
690. Match List I with List II and select the correct answer using the codes given below the lists.
List I List II
A. Acetone 1. Fire extinguisher
B. Carbon tetrachloride 2. Dressing wounds
C. Iodoform 3. Nail polish
D. Ester 4. Fruit essence
Codes A B C D A B C D
(a) 2 3 1 4 (b) 3 1 2 4
(c) 1 4 2 3 (d) 4 2 3 1
Ans: (b)
691. Which one of the following is correct about ebonite?
(a) It is hard synthetic plastic formed by polymerisation.
(b) It is a compound containing one-third sulphur and two-third rubber.
(c) It is an allotrope of amorphous phosphorus.
(d) It is non-toxic to mammals.
Ans: (b)
692. Which one of the following is burned in oxygen, producing a very hot flame, used for welding and cutting metals?
(a) Butane (b) Methane
(c) Ethylene (d) Acetylene
Ans: (d)
693. Which one of the following types of coal contains a higher percentage of carbon than the rest?
(a) Bituminous coal (b) Lignite
(c) Peat (d) Anthracite
Ans: (d)
694. Assertion (A) Coal based thermal power stations contribute to acid rain.
Reason (R) Oxides of carbon are emitted when coal burns.
Codes
(a) Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A
(b) Both A and R are true, but R is not the correct explanation of A
(c) A is true, but R is false
(d) A is false, but R is true
Ans: (b)
695. Study the following statements
1. Benzene and toluene are aromatic organic compound.
2. In benzene, six carbon atoms are arranged in a closed chain with alternate double and single bonds.
Which of the above is/are correct?
(a) Only 1 (b) Only 2
(c) 1 and 2
(d) None of these
Ans: (c)
696. Match List I with List II and select the correct answer using the codes given below the lists.
List I (Types of coal) List II (Percentage of carbon)
A. Anthracite coal 1. 90% carbon
B. Bituminous coal 2. 70% carbon
C. Lignite coal 3. 40% carbon
D. Peat coal 4. 10 to 15% carbon
Codes A B C D A B C D
(a) 1 2 3 4 (b) 2 3 4 1
(c) 3 4 1 2 (d) 4 1 2 1
Ans: (a)
697. Which of the following is not an explosive?
(a) TNT
(b) TNG
(c) Cyclo trimethylene trinitrotremine
(d) Nitro chloroform
Ans: (d)
698. The process of vulcanisation was introduced by
(a) Charles Goodyear (b) Kulbe
(c) Wohler (d) Zelgler
Ans: (a)
699. Assertion (A) Hydrocarbons are very good fuels.
Reason (R) The main sources of hydrocarbons are natural gas, petroleum and coal.
Codes
(a) Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A
(b) Both A and R are true, but R is not the correct explanation of A
(c) A is true, but R is false
(d) A is false, but R is true
Ans: (b)
700. The explosive nitroglycerine is a
(a) salt
(b) nitrohydrocarbon
(c) complex hydrocarbon
(d) ester
Ans: (d)
701. The substance employed for the food processing is
(a) sodium carbonate (b) acetylene
(c) sodium nitrate (d) benzoic acid
Ans: (d)
702. Through the reaction of benzene and chlorine in the presence of catalyst say iron. Which of the following would be obtained?
(a) Benzene hexachloride
(b) Benzylchloride
(c) Chloro benzene
(d) Benzoyl chloride
Ans: (c)
703. Study the following statements
1. Petroleum is a major source of aliphatic hydrocarbons.
2. Coal is a source of aromatic hydrocarbons.
3. Petroleum is commonly called liquid gold.
Which of the statements given above are correct?
(a) 1 and 2 (b) 1 and 3
(c) 2 and 3 (d) 1, 2 and 3
Ans: (d)
704. The natural rubber is a polymer of
(a) ethylene (b) acetylene
(c) vinyl chloride (d) isoprin
Ans: (d)
705. Assertion (A) Cellulose is used in making shatter proof glass.
Reason (R) Polysaccharides are not soluble in water.
Codes
(a) Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A
(b) Both A and R are true, but R is not the correct explanation of A
(c) A is true, but R is false
(d) A is false, but R is true
Ans: (b)
706. Study the following statements
1. Liquefied Petroleum Gas (LPG) is a mixture of hydrocarbons with three to four carbon atoms.
2. LPG is used as fuel for households.
3. Compressed Natural Gas (CNG) is new being used in automobile as a substitute of petrol or diesel.
4. CNG is highly compressed form of natural gas.
Which of the statements given above are correct?
(a) 1 and 2 (b) 2 and 3
(c) 1, 2 and 3 (d) 1, 2, 3 and 4
Ans: (d)
707. The natural substance from which energy can be harnessed, which is essentially made up of mainly one element is
(a) petroleum (b) coal (c) water (d) air
Ans: (b)
708. Study the following statements
1. Liquefied Natural Gas (LNG) is first natural gas cooled to an extremely low temperature and at very high pressure.
2. First LNG plant in Gujarat was established by petronet.
3. Natural gas liquids are separated from natural gas and not from LPG.
Which of the statements given above are correct?
(a) 1 and 2 (b) 2 and 3
(c) 1 and 3 (d) 1, 2 and 3
Ans: (d)
709. A mixture of carbon monoxide and hydrogen, which is a starting material for manufacturing a number of organic compounds is
(a) producer gas (b) natural gas
(c) synthesis gas (d) Oil gas
Ans: (c)
710. It is dangerous to have coal or charcoal burning in a closed room because
(a) it produces the poisonous gas carbon monoxide
(b) burning consumes all the oxygen and breathing becomes difficult
(c) the amount of heat produced is intolerable
(d) there is serious risk of fire
Ans: (a)
711. Which one of the following is a source of methane emission into the atmosphere?
(a) Automobile exhaust fume
(b) Industrial chimney
(c) Mining (d) Wet land
Ans: (d)
712. Study the following statements
1. Cooking gas contains more than 90% of methane gas.
2. Cooking gas supplied in cylinders by gas agencies is liquid.
Which of the statements given above are correct?
(a) Only 1 (b) Only 2
(c) 1 and 2 (b) None of these
Ans: (b)
713. The gas produced through the pouring water on the calcium carbide is
(a) methane (b) ethane
(c) ethylene (d) acetylene
Ans: (d)
714. The gas emerged through the cigarette lighter is
(a) butane (b) methane
(c) propane (d) redon
Ans: (b)
715. Of the following chemical compounds, which one may soon be used as a fuel for driving vehicles?
(a) Ethanol (b) Ethene
(c) Ethylene (d) Ethane
Ans: (a)
716. During the first world war, which of the following gas was utilised as the chemical weapon?
(a) Carbon monoxide
(b) Hydrogen cyanide
(c) Mustard gas (d) Burning vapour
Ans: (c)
717. In the complete combustion of butane, the end products are
(a) water and carbon
(b) carbon dioxide and water
(c) carbon dioxide and hydrogen
(d) butanoic acid and water
Ans: (b)
718. Tetraethyl Lead (TEL) is added to petrol to
(a) increase flash point
(b) to increase anti-knocking rating
(c) it acts as antifreezer
(c) it increases combustion
Ans: (b)
719. Assertion (A) Natural rubber has poor elasticity.
Reason (R) It has almost no cross linkages.
Codes
(a) Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A
(b) Both A and R are true, and R is not the correct explanation of A
(c) A is true, but R is false
(d) A is false, but R is true
Ans: (a)
720. Match List I with List II and select the correct answer using the codes given below the lists.
List I List II
A. Butadiene 1. Match industry
B. Lead tetraethyl 2. Dye industry
C. Phosphsrous 3. Rubber industry
D. Aniline 4. Petroleum
Codes A B C D A B C D
(a) 2 1 3 4 (b) 3 4 1 2
(c) 1 2 3 4 (d) 3 2 1 4
Ans: (b)
721. The wine is prepared by the process of
(a) fermentation (b) catalysation
(c) conjugation (d) displacement
Ans: (a)
722. The methanol is also known by the name of
(a) rubing alcohol
(b) grain alcohol
(c) wood alcohol
(d) deformed alcohol
Ans: (c)
723. Match List I with List II and select the correct answer using the codes given below the lists.
List I (Organic compound) List II (Use)
A. Naphthalene 1. Moth repellant
B. 0.2% solution of phenol 2. Antiseptic
C. 2, 4, 6 – Trinitrophenol 3. Acid dye
D. Hexachloroethane 4. Substitute for camphor
Codes A B C D A B C D
(a) 1 2 3 4 (b) 2 3 4 1
(c) 3 4 1 2 (d) 4 1 2 3
Ans: (a)
724. Which of the following acid is appeared in the vinegar?
(a) Hydrochloric acid
(b) Citric acid
(c) Oxalic acid
(d) Acetic acid
Ans: (d)
725. The antiseptic action of dettol is due to presence of
(a) chlorobenzol (b) chloroxylenol
(c) chloroquine (d) chloroamphenicol
Ans: (b)
726. Ethyl alcohol is commonly made unfit for drinking by the addition of
(a) potassium cyanide
(b) methyl alcohol (c) chloroform
(d) potassium chloride
Ans: (b)
727. Assertion (A) Isomers are same compounds with different molecular formula.
Reason (R) isomers have different arrangement of their constituent atoms in the space.
Codes
(a) Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A
(b) Both A and R are true, but is not the correct explanation of A
(c) A is true, but R is false
(d) A is false, but R is true
Ans: (d)
728. Consider the following statements
1. Acetone is used for making chloroform, artificial leather.
2. Benzene Hexachloride (BHC) is powerful insectiside.
3. Carbon tetrachloride used as a fire extinguisher under the name pyrene.
Which of the statements given above are correct?
(a) 1 and 2 (b) 1 and 3
(c) 2 and 3 (d) 1, 2 and 3
Ans: (d)
729. Assertion (A) Compounds derived from benzene are called aromatic compounds.
Reason (R) Aromatic compounds have some odour.
Codes
(a) Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A
(b) Both A and R are true but R is not the correct explanation of A
(c) A is true but R is false
(d) A is false but R is true
Ans: (b)
730. Different chromatographic techniques are used
1. to separate all sorts of mixture
2. only volatile components
3. only solid components
4. only isomers
Which of the above is/are correct?
(a) Only 1 (b) 1 and 4
(c) 2 and 3 (d) 3 and 4
Ans: (a)
731. Consider the following statements
1. Dynamite is prepared by mixing nitroglycerine with saw dust and ammonium nitrate.
2. Liquor poisoning is due to the presence of methyl alcohol.
3. Ethanol is generally present in tonics.
Which of the above are correct?
(a) 1 and 2 (b) 1 and 3
(c) 2 and 3
(d) 1, 2 and 3
Ans: (d)
732. Consider the following statements
1. The simplest hydrocarbon is methane (CH)4 .
2. Hydrocarbons support life directly as carbohydrates, proteins, nucleic acids.
3. Benzene is unsaturated cyclic hydrocarbon.
Which of the statements given above are correct?
(a) 1 and 2 (b) 1 and 3
(c) 2 and 3 (d) 1, 2 and 3
Ans: (d)
733. Methylated spirit is
(a) 100% alcohol
(b) 95.6% alcohol +4.4% water
(c) 90% alcohol +9% methanol + pyridine
(d) power alcohol
Ans: (c)
Part 13 Acids, Bases, Salts
734. Consider the following statements about oxidation It is the process which involves
1. removal of oxygen
2. addition of hydrogen
3. removal of an electropositive element.
4. addition of an electronegative element.
Which of the above is/are false about reduction?
(a) Only 1 (b) 1 and 2
(c) 3 and 4 (d) All of these
Ans: (c)
735. On the labels of the bottles, some soft drinks are claimed to be acidity regulators. They regulate acidity using
(a) carbon dioxide
(b) bicarbonate salts
(c) both (a) and (b)
(d) carbon dioxide and lime
Ans: (b)
736. Starch iodide paper is used to test for the presence of
(a) iodine (b) iodide iron
(c) oxidising agent (d) reducing agent
Ans: (c)
737. Match List I with List II.
List I List II
A. Tartaric acid 1. Red ants
B. Formic acid 2. Grapes
C. Uric acid 3. Apples
D. Maleic acid 4. Urine of mammals
Codes A B C D A B C D
(a) 2 1 4 3 (b) 1 4 3 2
(c) 4 3 2 1 (d) 3 2 1 4
Ans: (a)
738. What is the pH of pure water?
(a) 1 (b) 7 (c) 5 (d) 12
Ans: (b)
739. Which of the following acids is a mineral acid?
(a) Citric acid (b) Hydrochloric acid
(c) Ascorbic acid (d) Tartaric acid
Ans: (b)
740. Which one of the following reducing agents can also act as an oxidising agent?
(a) H2 (b) H S 2 (c) SO2 (d) HI
Ans: (c)
741. Carboxylic acid group can be detected by
(a) sodium bisulphite test
(b) Fehling’s solution test
(c) Tollen’s reagent (d) NaHCO3
Ans: (d)
742. The conversion of sugar C12H22O11 CO2 is
(a) oxidation (b) reduction
(c) Both (a) and (b) (d) None of these
Ans: (a)
743. Acid turns blue litmus red and base turns red litmus blue. A student tested a liquid with a red litmus paper which remained red with no change. This shows that the liquid
(a) is not a base (b) is not an acid
(c) is neither an acid nor a base
(d) must be pure water or acid
Ans: (d)
744. Match List I with List II.
List I List II
A. NH3 1. Lewis base
B. HCN 2. Lewis acid
C. BF3 3. Strongest acid
D. HClO4 4. Weakest acid
Codes A B C D A B C D
(a) 1 4 2 3 (b) 3 1 4 2
(c) 4 2 3 1 (d) 2 4 1 3
Ans: (a)
745. Match List I with List II and select the correct answer using the codes given below the lists.
List I List II (Oxidation Number) (The Element)
A. 2 1. Oxidation number of Mn in MnO2
B. 3 2. Oxidation number of S in H2S2O7
C. 4 3. Oxidation number of Ca in CaO
D. 6 4. Oxidation number of Al in NaAlH4
Codes A B C D A B C D
(a) 3 4 1 2 (b) 4 3 1 2
(c) 3 4 2 1 (d) 4 3 2 1
Ans: (a)
746. Which one of the following statements is correct?
(a) All bases are alkali
(b) None of the bases is alkali
(c) There are no more bases except the alkalies
(d) All alkalies are bases but all bases are not alkalies
Ans: (d)
747. Why hard water does not give lather with soap?
(a) Hard water contains calcium and magnesium ions which form precipitate with soap
(b) Hard water contains sulphate and chloride ions which form precipitate
(c) pH of hard water is high
(d) pH of hard water is less
Ans: (a)
748. Arrange the following bases in increasing order of their, basic strength.
1. Sodium hydroxide
2. Magnesium hydroxide
3. Aluminium hydroxide
4. Ammonium hydroxide
Codes A B C D A B C D
(a) 4 2 1 3 (b) 4 1 2 3
(c) 4 3 2 1 (d) 1 2 3 4
Ans: (c)
749. Which of the following gases in the atmosphere is/are responsible for acid rains?
1. Oxides of sulphur
2. Oxides of nitrogen
3. Oxides of carbon Select the correct answer using the codes given below.
(a) 1 and 2 (b) 1 and 3
(c) Only 2 (d) 1, 2 and 3
Ans: (a)
750. Statement I Addition of water to an aqueous solution of HCl decreases the pH.
Statement II Addition of water suppresses the ionisation of HCl.
(a) Both the statements are individually true and statement II is the correct explanation of statement I
(b) Both the statements are individually true but statement II is not the correct explanation of statement I
(c) Statement I is true but statement II is false
(d) Statement I is false but statement II is true
Ans: (c)
751. The pH of water at 25°C is 7. When it is heated to 100°C, the pH of water
(a) increases
(b) decreases
(c) remains same
(d) decreases up to 50°C and then increases
Ans: (b)
752. A base is a substance which
(a) is bitter in taste
(b) gives OH–ions in aqueous solution
(c) can donate electron
(d) All of the above
Ans: (d)
753. Which one of the following salts when dissolved in water makes the solution basic?
(a) Sodium chloride (b) Copper sulphate
(c) Ferric chloride (d) Sodium acetate
Ans: (d)
754. Which of the following is not correct about baking soda?
(a) It is used in soda-acid fire extinguisher.
(b) It is added for faster cooking.
(c) It is a corrosive base.
(d) It neutralises excess acid in the stomach.
Ans: (c)
755. Consider the following statements
1. Acids are sour in taste and change the colour of blue litmus to red.
2. Bases are bitter and change the colour of red litmus to blue.
3. Litmus is a natural indicator.
Which of the statements above are correct?
(a) 1 and 2 (b) 1 and 3
(c) 2 and 3 (d) 1, 2 and 3
Ans: (d)
756. Which one of the following is correct? Due to continuous use of calcium superphosphate as fertilizer in soil, the pH of soil increases or decreases
(a) more than 7 (b) less than 7
(c) equal to 7 (d) cannot be predicted
Ans: (a)
757. Consider the following statements
1. Limestone, chalk and marble are different forms of calcium carbonate.
2. When PH of rain water is less than 5.6, it is called acid rain.
3. Human body works with in the PH range of 7.0 to 7.8.
Which of the statements given above are correct?
(a) 1 and 2 (b) 1 and 3
(c) 2 and 3 (d) 1, 2 and 3
Ans: (d)
758. Study the following statements
1. Litmus solution is a purple dye which is extracted from lichen and is commonly used as an indicator.
2. Red cabbage leaves, turmeric, coloured petals of some flowers indicate the presence of acid or base in a solution.
3. Some substances whose odour changes in acidic or basic medium are called olfactory indicators.
Which of the statements given above are correct?
(a) 1, 2 and 3 (b) 1 and 2
(c) 1 and 3 (d) 2 and 3
Ans: (a)
759. Farmers are requested to mix lime with soil while farming their fields. This is because
(a) lime is very helpful in maintaining the water content in the soil
(b) lime decreases the acidity of soil
(c) lime decreases the basicity of soil
(d) high concentration of lime is necessary for the plant growth
Ans: (b)
760. The main constituent of Vinegar is
(a) acetic acid (b) ascorbic acid
(c) citric acid
(d) tartaric acid
Ans: (a)
761. The indicator used in the titration of a strong acid and a strong basis
(a) Phenolphthalein
(b) Methyl orange
(c) Alizarin yellow
(d) Red litmus
Ans: (a)
762. Suppose you have four test tubes labelled as ‘A’, ‘B’, ‘C’ and ‘D’. ‘A’ contains plain water, ‘B’ contains solution of an alkali, ‘C’ contains solution of an acid, and ‘D’ contains solution of sodium chloride. Which one of these solutions will turn phenophthalein solution pink?
(a) Solution ‘A’ (b) Solution ‘B’
(c) Solution ‘C’
(d) Solution ‘D’
Ans: (b)
763. Consider the following statements
1. Hardness of water depends upon its soap consuming power.
2. Temporary hardness is due to bicarbonates of magnesium and calcium.
3. Permanent hardness of water is due to sulphate and/or chloride of calcium and magnesium.
4. Permanent hardness can be removed by boiling.
Which of the statements given above are correct?
(a) 1, 2, 3 and 4 (b) 1, 2 and 3
(c) 2 and 3
(d) 3 and 4
Ans: (b)
764. When hard water is evaporated completely the white solid remains in the container. It may be due to the presence of
1. Carbonates of Ca and Mg
2. Sulphates of Ca and Mg
3. Chlorides of Ca and Mg Select the correct answer using the codes given below
(a) 1 and 2 (b) 1, 2 and 3
(c) Only 3 (d) 1 and 3
Ans: (d)
765. Select the incorrect statement regarding potash alum
(a) It has 24 water molecules
(b) Its swells on heating
(c) Its aqueous solution is basic
(d) It is white in colour
Ans: (c)
766. Vinegar is the trade name of
(a) acetic acid
(b) chloroform
(c) carbon tetrachloride
(d) ethyl alcohol
Ans: (a)
767. Which chemical was an important symbol in our struggle for freedom?
(a) Glucose (b) Fertiliser
(c) Medicine
(d) Sodium chloride
Ans: (d)
768. Match List I with List II and select the correct answer using the codes given below the lists List I List II (Acid) (Source)
A. Lactic acid 1. Tamarind
B. Tartaric acid 2. Orange
C. Oxalic acid 3. Tomato
D. Citric acid 4. Sour curd
Codes A B C D A B C D
(a) 2 4 3 1 (b) 2 3 4 1
(c) 4 3 1 2 (d) 4 1 3 2
Ans: (d)
769. The pH of fresh milk is 6. When it turns sour, the pH
(a) becomes < 6
(b) remains the same, i.e., 6
(c) becomes > 6
(d) becomes neutral, i.e., 7
Ans: (d)
770. What is the purpose of adding baking soda to dough?
(a) To generate moisture
(b) To give a good flavour
(c) To give a good colour
(d) To generate carbon dioxide
Ans: (d)
Part 14 Biomolecules
771. The function of enzymes in the living system is to
(a) transport oxygen
(b) provide immunity
(c) catalyse bio-chemical reactions
(d) provide energy
Ans: (c)
772. Consider the following statements Enzymes and proteins can be corelated with each other in the following ways.
1. All proteins are enzyme.
2. All enzymes are protein.
3. All enzymes are not protein.
4. All proteins are not enzyme.
Which of the statements given above are correct?
(a) 1 and 3 (b) 2 and 4
(c) 1, 2 and 3 (d) 2, 3 and 4
Ans: (b)
773. Consider the following
1. Nucleic acids 2. Carbohydrates
3. Proteins A virus is made up of which of the above?
(a) 1 and 2 (b) 2 and 3
(c) 1 and 3 (d) 1, 2 and 3
Ans: (c)
774. Consider the following statements
1. The sweetest of all sugar is fructose.
2. The disaccharide present in milk is lactose.
3. Starch is a polymer of glucose.
Which of the statements above is/are correct?
(a) Only 1 (b) Only 2
(c) 1 and 2 (d) 1, 2 and 3
Ans: (d)
775. What is the bond between two amino acids in a protein called?
(a) Ester bond (b) Glycosidic bond
(c) Peptide bond
(d) Phosphodiester bond
Ans: (c)
776. Enzymes
(a) accelerate bio-chemical reactions
(b) consist of amino acids
(c) have optimum activity at body temperature
(d) have all these properties
Ans: (d)
777. Which of the following hasmagnesium?
(a) Carbonic anhydrase
(b) Vitamin-B12
(c) Chlorophyll (d) Haemocyanine
Ans: (c)
778. Consider the following statements
1. On hydrolysis proteins give amino acids.
2. The coagulation of protein is called denaturing.
3. A protein is best described as a polypeptide.
Which of the statements given above is/are true?
(a) Only 1 (b) Only 2
(c) 2 and 3 (d) 1, 2 and 3
Ans: (d)
779. Which one of the following statements is not correct?
(a) Proteins are biopolymers of long polyamide chains in which α-amino acids are the monomer units
(b) Enzymes are basically proteins though they may contain other compounds of non-protein nature too
(c) Proteins such as hormones and gene regulators control all forms of body repair, construction and energy conversion
(d) Proteins are highly stable compounds and are not affected on heating, on treatment with mineral acids and on exposure to light
Ans: (d)
780. Which one among the following gases readily combines with the haemoglobin of the blood?
(a) Methane
(b) Nitrogen dioxide
(c) Carbon monoxide
(d) Sulphur dioxide
Ans: (c)
781. Which one of the following statements regarding starch and cellulose is not correct?
(a) Both of them are of plant origin
(b) Both of them are polymers
(c) Both of them give colour with iodine
(d) Both of them are made up of glucose molecules
Ans: (c)
782. Which of the following is an example of conjugated protein?
(a) Albumin
(b) Globulin
(c) Glutelin
(d) Glycoprotein
Ans: (d)
783. Cyanide poisoning causes death in seconds because
(a) it breaks the electron transport chain
(b) it denatures enzymes of the heart muscle
(c) it causes cardiac arrest
(d) it causes lysis of red blood cells
Ans: (a)
784. Which one of the following vitamins is essential for coagulation of blood?
(a) Vitamin-A (b) Vitamin-B12
(c) Vitamin-K
(d) Vitamin-D
Ans: (c)
785. Match List I with List II and select the correct answer using the codes given below the lists
List I List II (Molecule) (Product of digestion)
A. Proteins 1. Nitrogenous bases and pentose sugars
B. Carbohydrate s 2. Fatty acids and glycerol
C. Nucleic acids 3. Monosacchar ides
D. Lipids 4. Amino acids
Code A B C D A B C D
(a) 2 3 1 4 (b) 2 1 3 4
(c) 4 1 3 2 (d) 4 3 1 2
Ans: (d)
786. Match List I with List II.
List I List II
A. Yield many (> 10) monosaccharide molecules on hydrolysis 1. Oligosaccharides
B. Yield three monosaccharide molecules on hydrolysis 2. Disaccharides
C. Yield two monosaccharide molecules on hydrolysis 3. Trisaccharides
D. Yield a definite number (2-9) of monosaccharides 4. Polysaccharides
Codes A B C D
(a) 4 3 2 1
(b) 3 2 1 4
(c) 2 1 4 3
(d) 1 4 3 2
Ans: (a)
787. Which one among the following is the natural polymer?
(a) Nylon (b) Teflon
(c) PVC (d) Cellulose
Ans: (d)
788. Which one of the following carbohydrates is used for silvering of mirror?
(a) Sucrose (b) Maltose
(c) Glucose (d) Fructose
Ans: (c)
789. Match List I with List II
List I (Protein) List II (Property)
A. Structural protein 1. Haemoglobin
B. Transport proteins 2. Collagen and keratin
C. Protective proteins 3. Actin and myosin
D. Contractile proteins 4. Antibodies
Codes A B C D
(a) 2 1 4 3
(b) 1 4 3 2
(c) 4 3 2 1
(d) 3 2 1 4
Ans: (a)
790. Which one of the following enzymes is used to digest gelatine in the process of recovering silver from the photographic film?
(a) Amylase (b) Pepsin
(c) Lipase (d) None of these
Ans: (b)
791. Which of the following have coiled helical structure?
(a) Proteins (b) Lipids
(c) Carbohydrates (d) Vitamins
Ans: (a)
792. Which of the following proteins has structural as well as enzymatic property?
(a) Collagen (b) Actin
(c) Dynein (d) Nexin
Ans: (b)
793. Consider the following statements
1. The ‘‘Proteomics’’ was first coined by MareWilkins in 1997.
2. The word ‘‘Proteome’’ is a blend of protein and genome.
3. Proteomics is the large scale study of proteins, particularly their structures and functions.
Which of the statements given above are correct?
(a) 1, 2 and 3 (b) 1 and 2
(c) 2 and 3 (d) 1 and 3
Ans: (a)
794. Match List I with List II.
List I List II
A. Polysaccharide 1. Glucose
B. Trisaccharide 2. Sucrose
C. Disaccharide 3. Raffinose
D. Monosaccharide 4. Cellulose
Codes A B C D A B C D
(a) 1 4 3 2 (b) 4 3 2 1
(c) 2 1 4 3 (d) 3 2 1 4
Ans: (b)
795. Match List I with List II.
List I List I
A. Anti-cancer agent 1. Haemoglobin
B. Complex of cobalt 2. Chlorophyll
C. Complex of magnesium 3. Vitamin-B12
D. Complex of iron 4. Cis-platin
Codes A B C D
(a) 4 3 2 1
(b) 3 2 1 4
(c) 2 1 4 3
(d) 1 4 3 2
Ans: (a)
796. The metal present in vitamin B12 is
(a) Iron (b) Manganese
(c) Cobalt (d) Magnesium
Ans: (c)
797. Consider the following statements
1. Neutral fats such as butter and vegetable oils are mostly triglycerides.
2. Triose sugars are simplest sugars and not found in nature. These are produced as intermediate in metabolic pathway like glycolysis.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a) Only 1 (b) Only 2
(c) Both 1 and 2 (d) None of these
Ans: (c)
798. Consider the following statements
1. Waxes have long chain fatty acids tightly packed and linked to long chain alcohol or carbon rings.
2. Lipoproteins are clusters of proteins and lipids all tangled up together.
3. Lipids are energy storage molecules and thermal insulator.
Which of the statements above are correct?
(a) 1, 2 and 3 (b) 1 and 2
(c) 2 and 3 (d) 1 and 3
Ans: (a)
799. A metal which can form a complex with insulin is
(a) copper (b) iron (c) zinc (d) cobalt
Ans: (c)
800. Lactose on hydrolysis gives
(a) glucose (b) fructose
(c) fructose + glucose
(d) glucose + galactose
Ans: (d)
801. Chemical name of vitamin-A is
(a) thiamine
(b) axerophthol (retinol)
(c) ascorbic acid (d) nicotinamide
Ans: (b)
802. The reagent which may be used to distinguish between cane sugar and glucose solution is
(a) Molisch’s reagent
(b) Iodine solution
(c) Baeyer’s reagent
(d) Fehling’s solution
Ans: (d)
803. Consider the following statements
1. Lipids are generally water insoluble.
2. Lipids could be simple fatty acids.
3. Each protein is a polymer of amino acids.
4. Dietary proteins are the source of essential amino acids.
Which of the statements given above are correct?
(a) 1 and 2 (b) 2 and 3
(c) 1, 2 and 3 (d) 1, 2, 3 and 4
Ans: (d)
804. The number of amino acids which form proteins in nature are about
(a) 6 (b)10 (c) 15 (d) 20
Ans: (a)
805. Glucose is a source of energy. Which one of the following types of molecule is Glucose?
(a) Carbohydrate (b) Protein
(c) Fat (d) Nucleic acid
Ans: (a)
806. Which one of the following hormones contains peptide chain?
(a) Oxytocin (b) Corticotropin
(c) Insulin (d) Cortisone
Ans: (a)
Part 15 Chemistry in Everyday Life
807. Which of the following pairs of chemical compounds has the potential for carbon capturing by chemical process to reduce the global warming?
(a) Potassium oxide and sodium oxide
(b) Magnesiumoxide and calciumoxide
(c) Magnesium oxide and potassium oxide
(d) Calcium oxide and potassium oxide
Ans: (b)
808. Which one of the following is correct? Setting of Plaster of Paris is
(a) dehydration
(b) oxidation with atmospheric oxygen
(c) hydration leading to another hydrate
(d) combination with atmospheric carbon dioxide
Ans: (c)
809. When the fats are reacted with alkali, they form ‘soaps’. The type of reaction taking place in the formation of soaps is called
(a) emulsification (b) saponification
(c) halogenation (d) oxidation
Ans: (b)
810. “Fixation of nitrogen” implies
(a) the liquification of nitrogen
(b) the conversion of atmospheric nitrogen into useful compounds
(c) the conversion of nitrogen into amines
(d) the solidification of nitrogen gas into the atmosphere
Ans: (a)
811. Consider the following statements
1. A chalcogenide glass is a glass containing sulphur, selenium or tellurium.
2. Chalcogenide glass form the basis of re-writable CD and DVD solid-state memory technology.
Which of the statement(s) given above is/are correct?
(a) Only 1 (b) Only 2
(c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2
Ans: (c)
812. Aquaregia used by alchemist to separate silver and gold is a mixture of
(a) concentrated HNO3 and concentrated H SO 2 4
(b) concentrated HCl and concentrated H SO 2 4
(c) concentrated HNO3 and concentrated HCl
(d) dilute HNO3 and dilute HCl
Ans: (c)
813. Commercially vulcanisation of rubber involves
(a) sulphur (b) carbon
(c) phosphorus (d) selenium
Ans: (a)
814. ‘Misch metal’ is widely used in the manufacture of which of the following?
(a) Material of car break
(b) Smoke detectors
(c) Cigarette lighter
(d) Emergency light
Ans: (c)
815. Burning of fossil fuels is the main source of which of the following pollutants?
(a) CFCs
(b) Carbon monoxide
(c) Sulphur dioxide
(d) Particulate matter
Ans: (c)
816. Nail polish remover contains
(a) benzene (b) formaldehyde
(c) acetic acid (d) acetone
Ans: (d)
817. Antacids are commonly used to get rid of acidity in the stomach. A commonly used antacid is
(a) sodium hydrogen phthalate
(b) magnesium hydroxide
(c) calcium hydroxide
(d) manganese acetate
Ans: (c)
818. Consider the following statements
1. Hard soaps (common bar soaps) are the sodium salts of fatty acids.
2. Soft soaps are the potassium salts of fatty acids and semi-solid in nature.
Which of the statement(s) given above is/are correct?
(a) Only 1 (b) Only 2
(c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2
Ans: (c)
819. Which one of the following compounds was responsible for the epidemic form of disease called ‘Minamata disease’?
(a) A lead compound
(b) A mercury compound
(c) A sulphur compound
(d) A fluorine compound
Ans: (b)
820. The phosphorus used in the manufacture of safety matches is
(a) Red phosphorus
(b) Black phosphorus
(c) White phosphorus
(d) Scarlet phosphorus
Ans: (a)
821. Sodium stearate is a salt and is used
(a) in gunpowder
(b) in paint
(c) to make soap
(d) to make fertilizer
Ans: (c)
822. Which one of the following is associated with the formation of brown air in traffic congested cities?
(a) Sulphur dioxide
(b) Nitrogen oxide
(c) Carbon dioxide
(d) Carbon monoxide
Ans: (b)
823. Which one among the following agents is added to domestic LPG cylinder to help in the detection of gas leakage?
(a) Methanol
(b) Ethanol
(c) Thioethanol
(d) Chloroform
Ans: (c)
824. Which one of the following is used in the preparation of antiseptic solution?
(a) Potassium nitrate
(b) Iodine
(c) Iodine chloride
(d) Potassium chloride
Ans: (b)
825. Which one among the following is the chief compound used in pepper spray, a riot control agent?
(a) Capsaicin
(b) Black pepper
(c) Sulphur dioxide
(d) Hydrogen sulphide
Ans: (a)
826. The pungent smell of garlic is due to
(a) a phosphate compound
(b) a nitrate compound
(c) a sulphur compound
(d) a chlorine compound
Ans: (c)
827. Match List I with List II.
List I (Item) List II (Toxic) Substance)
A. CFL lamp 1. Nitrogen oxide
B. Automobile battery 2. Phthalates
C. Polymer 3. Lead
D. Diesel engine 4. Mercury
Codes A B C D A B C D
(a) 4 3 2 1 (b) 3 2 1 4
(c) 2 1 4 3 (d) 1 4 3 2
Ans: (a)
828. Which one of the following is the most appropriate and correct practice from the point of view of a healthy environment?
(a) Burning of plastic wastes to keep the environment clean
(b) Burning of dry and fallen leaves in a garden or field
(c) Treatment of domestic sewage before its release
(d) Use of chemical fertilisers in agricultural fields
Ans: (c)
829. The flavour of apple is mainly due to which one of the following?
(a) Formalin
(b) Ethanol
(c) Benzene
(d) Benzaldehyde
Ans: (b)
830. Consider the following statements
1. Glass wool has tensile strength greater than steel.
2. Glass wool is fire proof.
3. Glass wool has high electrical conductivity and absorbs moisture.
4. Glass wool is used to prepare fibre glass.
Which of the statements given above are correct?
(a) 1, 2, 3 and 4 (b) 1, 2 and 3
(c) 1, 2 and 4 (d) 3 and 4
Ans: (c)
831. Which one among the following polymers is re-synthesized from the naturally occurring polymer?
(a) Kevlar (b) Teflon
(c) Rayon (d) Cellulose
Ans: (c)
832. How does the ‘hypo’ used in photography?
(a) It acts as a strong reducing agent
(b) It acts as a strong oxidising agent
(c) It removes unreacted AgBr in the form of complex
(d) All of the above
Ans: (c)
833. Select the correct answer about Ajinomoto.
1. It is a tasty powder and makes a great difference to the way of food taste.
2. Chemically, it is monosodium glutamate.
3. It causes the ‘kwok’s disease’ in man.
Which of the following statement(s) given above is/are correct?
(a) Only 1 (b) Only 2
(c) 1, 2 and 3 (d) 2 and 3
Ans: (c)
834. Which one among the following polymers is used to make personal armour such as combat helmets, ballistic face masks, and ballistic vests?
(a) Teflon (b) PVC
(c) Bakelite (d) Kevlar
Ans: (d)
835. Consider the following compounds with the reference to constituent of dettol
1. Chloroxylenol 2. Terpineol
Which of the compound(s) given above is/are correct?
(a) Only 1 (b) Only 2
(c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2
Ans: (c)
836. What is ‘Agent Orange’?
(a) An insecticide (b) A weedicide
(c) A fertilizer (d) A biofertilizer
Ans: (b)
837. The polymeric fibre used as a substitute for wool in making synthetic blankets, sweater, etc, is
(a) nylon (b) teflon
(c) orlon (d) bakelite
Ans: (c)
838. Carbonated beverages such as soft drinks and soda water contains mainly
(a) carbon dioxide
(b) calcium carbonate
(c) calcium hydroxide
(d) potassium carbonate
Ans: (a)
839. Which one of the following is used as a mordant in dyeing and tanning industry?
(a) Magnesium oxide
(b) Magnesium chloride
(c) Magnesium sulphate
(d) Magnesium carbonate
Ans: (c)
840. Consider the following statements
1. Rust is formed by the reaction of iron and oxygen in the presence of water or air moisture.
2. In salt water, iron tends to rust more quickly.
Which of the statement(s) given above is/are correct?
(a) Only 1 (b) Only 2
(c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2
Ans: (c)
841. Vermicompost is a/an
(a) inorganic fertilizer
(b) toxic substance
(c) organic bio-fertilizer
(d) synthetic fertilizer
Ans: (c)
842. Consider the following gases
1. Water vapour 2. Nitrous oxide
3. CFC 4. Methane
Which of the gases given above are Green House Gases (GHGs)?
(a) All of these (b) 1, 2 and 3
(c) 2 and 3 (d) 2 and 4
Ans: (a)
843. In modern days, which one of the following chemical compounds is used for the hair setting in beauty parlours/saloons?
(a) A phosphate compound
(b) A sulphur compound
(c) A magnesium compound
(d) A bicarbonate compound
Ans: (b)
844. Gypsum (CaSO 2H O 4 2 ) is added to clinker during cement manufacturing to
(a) decrease the rate of setting of cement
(b) bind the particle of calcium silicate
(c) facilitate the formation of colloidal gel
(d) impact strength to cement
Ans: (a)
845. Consider the following substances.
1. Toilet soap 2. Toothpaste
3. Vinegar 4. Baking soda
Which of the substances given above are mixture in nature?
(a) 1, 2, 3 and 4 (b) 1, 2 and 3
(c) 1 and 3(d) 3 and 4
Ans: (b)
846. Match List I (Type of glass) with List II (Composition) and select the correct answer using the codes given below the lists.
List I List II
A. Soda glass 1. Mixture of potassium and lead silicates
B. Crown glass 2. Mixture of sodium, barium, zinc and magnesium silicates
C. Flint glass 3. Mixture of sodium, zinc and aluminium silicates
D. Pyrex glass 4. Mixture of sodium and calcium silicates
Codes A B C D A B C D
(a) 4 1 2 3 (b) 3 2 1 4
(c) 4 2 1 3 (d) 3 1 2 4
Ans: (c)
847. Why can not hard water be used in boilers?
(a) The boiling point of hard water is high.
(b) The conductivity of hard water is less.
(c) Hard water causes scales in boilers.
(d) Hard water reacts with metals used in making boilers.
Ans: (c)
848. Select the correct statement from the codes given below
1. Cut glasses are lead glasses.
2. The main raw material for the preparation of soda glass is Na2CO3.
3. Quicklime is CaO.
Codes
(a) 1 and 2 (b) 2 and 3
(c) 1 and 3 (d) Only 2
Ans: (c)
849. Soap is sodium or potassium salt of
(a) Stearic acid (b) Oleic acid
(c) Palmitic acid (d) All of these
Ans: (a)
850. One of the main causes of air pollution in cities is emissions from vehicles like cars and trucks. Cars emit various pollutants which are bad for human health when inhaled, like
1. Nitrogen oxides (NOx)
2. Carbon monoxide (CO)
3. Caron dioxide (CO2)
4. Benzene
Which of the above pollutants are not tolerated by human beings even at very low levels?
(a) 1 and 4 only (b) 1 and 2 only
(c) 1, 2 and 3 only (d) 1, 2 and 4 only
Ans: (d)
851. Which of the following substances are harmful for health if present in food items?
1. Pesticide residues 2. Lead
3. Metanil yellow 4. Mercury Select the correct answer using the code given below
(a) 1 and 2 only (b) 1, 2 and 4 only
(c) 3 and 4 only (d) 1, 2, 3 and 4
Ans: (d)
852. One of the occupational health hazards commonly faced by the workers of ceramic, pottery of glass industries is
(a) stone formation in gall bladder
(b) melanoma
(c) stone formation in kidney
(d) silicosis
Ans: (d)
853. The hair dye available in the market contains two bottles, one containing dye and other containing hydrogen peroxide. The bottles are mixed before applying the dye. The function of hydrogen peroxide is
(a) to dilute the dye
(b) to oxidise the dye to give desired colour
(c) to reduce the dye to give desired colour
(d) to acidify the dye solution
Ans: (b)
854. Which of the commonly used household item(s) release Bishenol A (BPA) which is an endocrine disruptor and bad for human health?
1. Steel utensils
2. Plastic coffee mugs
3. Aluminium utensils
4. Plastic water storage bottles Select the correct answer using the codes given below
(a) 1 only (b) 1 and 2 only
(c) 2 and 4 only (d) 1, 2 and 3 only
Ans: (c)
855. Soaps cannot be used in acidic condition because they lose their cleansing effect due to formation of insoluble
(a) esters (b) alcohols
(c) hydrocarbons
(d) long chain fatty acids
Ans: (d)
856. ‘Freon’ used as refrigerants is chemically known as
(a) fluorinated aromatic compound
(b) fluorinated hydrocarbon
(c) chlorinated hydrocarbon
(d) chlorofluoro hydrocarbon
Ans: (d)
857. Arsenic drugs are mainly used in the treatment of
(a) Jaundice (b) Typhoid
(c) Syphilis (d) Cholera
Ans: (c)
858. Which chemical was an important symbol in our struggle for freedom?
(a) Glucose
(b) Fertilizer
(c) Medicine
(d) Sodium chloride
Ans: (d)
859. Consider the following statements
1. Photochromic lenses are lenses that darken on exposure to ultraviolet light.
2. Photochromic properties is due to embedded microcrystalline of silver chloride in the glass.
Which of the statement(s) given above is/are correct?
(a) Only 1 (b) Only 2
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
Ans: (c)
860. Gun cotton is used as a propellant or low-order explosive. Chemically, the gun cotton is
(a) potassium hydroxide
(b) cellulose sulphate
(c) cellulose nitrate
(d) calcium phosphate
Ans: (c)
861. Many communities put salt on their roads after a snow fall, why?
(a) To enhance the freezing and hardening of snow
(b) To control the slipping of vehicles
(c) To keep the melted snow from refreezing
(d) None of the above
Ans: (c)
862. Consider the following statements
1. Pyrex glasses have boron oxide as main constituent besides silica.
2. Pyrex glasses have high thermal expansion, thus less vulnerable to cracking from thermal shock.
3. They are commonly used for reagent bottles, optical component and household cookware.
Which of the statement(s) given above is/are correct?
(a) 1, 2 and 3 (b) 1 and 3
(c) 2 and 3 (d) Only 2
Ans: (b)
863. Antacids are commonly used to get rid of acidity in the stomach. A commonly used antacid is
(a) sodium hydrogen phthalate
(b) magnesium hydroxide
(c) calcium hydroxide
(d) manganese acetate
Ans: (b)
864. Which one of the following is the reason for keeping the chloroform in brown-tinted glass containers?
(a) Its brilliance colour hurts eyes
(b) Its deep red colour is piercing
(c) With UV-rays and O2, it forms poisonous gas phosgene
(d) With IR-rays, it forms a poisonous cyanide
Ans: (c)
865. Match the species in List I with their types in List II.
List I List II
A. DDT 1. Photochemical smog
B. NaClO3 2. Disinfectant
C. Cl2 3. Herbicides
D. PAN 4. Pesticides
Codes A B C D A B C D
(a) 3 2 1 4 (b) 4 3 2 1
(c) 2 1 4 3 (d) 1 4 3 2
Ans: (b)
866. Heavy water is not used for drinking because
(a) It is costly
(b) Its chemical properties are different from ordinary water
(c) Its physiological action is different from ordinary water
(d) Its physical properties are different
Ans: (c)
867. Match List I with List II.
List I List II
A. Primary pollutants 1. PAN, O3,Cl
B. Secondary pollutants 2. H2SO4
C. Bhopal gas tragedy due to leakage of 3. SO2, CO
D. Stone leprosy 4. Methyl isocyanate
Codes A B C D A B C D
(a) 3 1 4 2 (b) 1 4 2 3
(c) 4 2 3 1 (d) 2 3 1 4
Ans: (a)
868. Quality diesel is measured in terms of its
(a) cetane number (b) octane number
(c) gold number (d) avogadro number
Ans: (a)
869. What is the purpose of adding plasticizers in paint manufacturing process?
(a) They act as a film-forming constituent
(b) They reduce viscosity
(c) They prevent the polymerization and condensation
(d) They provide “elasticity to the film and minimize its cracking’’
Ans: (d)
870. Graphite can be used as lubricant because it has
(a) a rigid structure
(b) low viscosity
(c) layered structure
(d) low melting point
Ans: (c)
871. Match List I with List II.
List I List II
A. Glass 1. Fat and caustic alkali
B. Soap 2. Cellulose fibre and gelatin
C. Paper 3. Silicates of calcium and aluminium
D. Cement 4. Silica
Codes A B C D A B C D
(a) 3 2 1 4 (b) 4 2 1 3
(c) 3 1 2 4 (d) 4 1 2 3
Ans: (d)
872. Consider the following statements
1. Among the fertilizers used, urea contains maximum percentage of N.
2. The mixture of calcium sulphate and calcium dihydrogen phosphate is known as super phosphate of lime.
3. Potassium magnesium sulphate is called the muriate of potash.
Which of the statements given above are correct?
(a) 1 and 2 (b) 2 and 3
(c) 1 and 3
(d) 1, 2 and 3
Ans: (a)
873. Which one of the following types of glass can cut off ultraviolet rays?
(a) Soda glass (b) Pyrex glass
(c) Jena glass (d) Crooked glass
Ans: (d)
874. Assertion (A) NO2 group is a chromophore.
Reason (R) It imparts colour to the compound.
Codes
(a) Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A
(b) Both A and R are true but R is not the correct explanation of A
(c) A is true, but R is false
(d) A is false, but R is true
Ans: (a)
875. Match List I (Fuel Gases) with List II (Major constituents) and select the correct answer using the codes given below the lists.
List I List II
A. CNG 1. Carbon monoxide, Hydrogen
B. Coal gas 2. Butane, propane
C. LPG 3. Methane, ethane
D. Water gas 4. Hydrogen, methane, Carbon monoxide
Codes A B C D
(a) 2 1 3 4
(b) 3 4 2 1
(c) 2 4 3 1
(d) 3 1 2 4
Ans: (b)
876. Match the following
List I (Air pollution) List II (Effect)
A. Chlorofluorocarbon 1. Acid rain
B. Sulphur dioxide 2. Depletion in ozone layer in the atmosphere
C. Lead compound 3. Harmful for human nervous system
D. Carbon dioxide 4. Topmost contribution to greenhouse effect
Codes A B C D A B C D
(a) 4 3 1 2 (b) 4 1 3 2
(c) 2 1 3 4 (d) 2 3 1 4
Ans: (c)
877. The chemical used as a ‘fixer’ in photography is
(a) sodium sulphate
(b) sodium thiosulphate
(c) ammonium persulphate
Ans: (b)
878. Match the following List I with List II.
List I List II
A. NO 1. Insecticide
B. PAN 2. Primary pollutant
C. BHC 3. Herbicide
D. NaClO 3 4. Secondary pollutant
Codes A B C D
(a) 2 4 1 3
(b) 4 2 1 3
(c) 2 4 3 1
(d) 2 3 4 1
Ans: (b)
879. Consider the following statements
1. Sodium sulphate and sodium silicate are added to detergent to keep the powder dry.
2. The sodium and potassium salts of higher fatty acids, such as palmitic acid are called soap and the process to making soap is known as saponification.
Which of the statement(s) given above are correct?
(a) Only 1
(b) Only 2
(c) 1 and 2
(d) None of these
Ans: (c)
880. What is the main constituent of a Pearl?
(a) Calcium carbonate and magnesium carbonate
(b) Calcium sulphate only
(c) Calcium oxide and calcium sulphate
(d) Calcium carbonate only
Ans: (d)
881. Study the following statements
1. Sodium hydrogen carbonate or baking soda is used in soda acid fire extinguishers.
2. Washing soda or sodium carbonate is used in glass, soap and paper industries.
3. Sodiumcarbonate is used for removing permanent hardness of water.
Which of the statements given above are correct?
(a) 1 and 2 (b) 2 and 3
(c) 1 and 3 (d) 1, 2 and 3
Ans: (d)
882. Consider the following statements
1. The chlorine gas is used for the manufacture of bleaching powder.
2. Bleaching powder is used for disinfecting.
3. Bleaching powder is used for bleaching cotton and linen in the textile industry.
Which of the statements given above are correct?
(a) 1 and 2
(b) 1 and 3
(c) 2 and 3
(d) 1, 2 and 3
Ans: (d)
883. Match List I with List II and select the correct answer using the codes given below the lists.
List I List II
A. Cellulose acetate or pyroxilin 1. First plastic of industrial use
B. Sodium salts 2. Hard soaps
C. Potassium salts 3. Soft soaps D Amorphous solid 4. Amber
Codes A B C D
(a) 1 2 3 4
(b) 2 3 4 1
(c) 3 4 1 2
(d) 4 1 2 3
Ans: (a)
884. Consider the following statements
1. Rubber is a polymer of isoprene.
2. Rubber from the latex separated by a process, known as coagulation.
3. By increasing the amount of sulphur, the rubber can be hardened.
Which of the statements given above are correct about rubber?
(a) 1 and 2 (b) 1 and 3
(c) 2 and 3 (d) 1, 2 and 3
Ans: (d)
885. Consider the following statements regarding aluminium paint
1. It is fairly good heat-resistant.
2. It possesses good electrical resistance.
3. It can not be used for hot water pipe.
Which of the statement(s) given above is/are correct?
(a) 1 and 3 (b) Only 1
(c) 1 and 2 (d) 2 and 3
Ans: (c)
886. In cold countries, ethylene glycol is added to the water in the radiators of the cars during winter to
(a) lower the freezing point of the water
(b) reduce the viscosity of water
(c) reduce the specific heat of the water
(d) increase the conductivity of the water
Ans: (a)
887. An ideal fuel should have
(a) high colorific value
(b) low ignition value
(c) regulated and controlled
(d) All of the above
Ans: (d)
888. Which one of the following has the highest fuel value?
(a) Hydrogen (b) Charcoal
(c) Natural gas (d) Gasoline
Ans: (a)
889. Graphene is frequently in news recently. What is its importance?
1. It is a two-dimensional material and has good electrical conductivity.
2. It is one of the thinnest but strongest materials tested so far.
3. It is entirely made of silicon and has high optical transparency.
4. It can be used as ‘conducting electrodes’ required for touch screens, LCDs and organic LEDs.
Which of the statement(s) given above are correct?
(a) 1 and 2 (b) 3 and 4
(c) 1, 2 and 4 (d) 1, 2, 3 and 4
Ans: (c)
890. Consider the following statements
1. Fuels with low octane numbers are ideal for diesel engines.
2. Use of gasoline with low octane numbers may lead to the problem of engine knocking.
Which of the statement(s) given above is/are correct?
(a) Only 1 (b) Only 2
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Nither 1 nor 2
Ans: (c)
891. Heavy water
(a) contains more dissolved metab
(b) contains more dissolved minerals
(c) contains deuterium in place of hydrogen
(d) contains organic impurities
Ans: (c)
892. The method that cannot be used for removing permanent hardness of water is
(a) adding sodium carbonate
(b) distillation
(c) adding caustic soda
(d) boiling
Ans: (d)
893. Which of the following statements is not true for soap?
(a) Soaps are bio-degradable.
(b) Soaps cannot be used in acidic medium.
(c) Soaps form a white curdy precipitate with hard water.
(d) Soaps are relatively stronger in their cleaning action than synthetic detergents.
Ans: (d)
894. Coloured glasses for goggles contain
(a) ferrous oxide
(b) lanthanide oxide
(c) nickel oxide
(d) ferric oxide
Ans: (b)
895. Refrigeration helps in food preservation by
(a) killing the germs
(b) reducing the rate of biochemical reactions
(c) destroying enzyme action
(d) sealing the food with a layer of ice
Ans: (b)
896. Match List I with List II and select the correct answer from the codes given below.
List I List II
A. Morphine 1. Antiseptic
B. Sodium 2. Alloy
C. Boric acid 3. Analgesic
D. German silver 4. Kerosene oil
Codes A B C D
(a) 4 3 1 2
(b) 2 4 3 1
(c) 3 1 4 2
(d) 3 4 1 2
Ans: (d)
897. Dry ice is
(a) frozen ice
(b) frozen carbon dioxide
(c) frozen water
(d) frozen oxygen
Ans: (b)
898. Indane gas is a mixture of
(a) butane and hydrogen
(b) butane and oxygen
(c) butane and propane
(d) methane and oxygen
Ans: (c)
899. In the context of global oil prices. “Brent crude oil” is frequently in the news. What does this term imply?
1. It is a major classification of crude oil.
2. It is sourced from North Sea.
3. It does not contain sulphur.
Which of the statement(s) given above is/are correct?
(a) Only 2
(b) 1 and 2 Only
(c) 1 and 3 Only
(d) 1, 2 and 3
Ans: (b)
900. Recently, “Oilzapper” was in the news. What is it?
(a) It is an eco-friendly technology for the remediation of oily sludge and oil spills.
(b) It is the latest technology developed for under-sea oil exploration.
(c) It is a genetically engineered high biofuel-yielding maize variety.
(d) It is the latest technology to control the accidentally caused flames from oil wells.
Ans: (a)
901. To meet its rapidly growing energy demand, some opine that India should pursue research and development on thorium as the future fuel of nuclear energy. In this context, what advantage does thorium hold over uranium?
1. Thorium is far more abundant in nature than uranium.
2. On the basis of per unit mass of mined mineral, thorium can generate more energy compared to natural uranium.
3. Thorium produces less harmful waste compared to uranium.
Which of the statement(s) given above is/are correct?
(a) Only 1
(b) 2 and 3
(c) 1 and 3
(d) 1, 2 and 3
Ans: (d)
902. Consider the following
1. Carbon dioxide
2. Oxides of nitrogen
3. Oxides of sulphur
Which of the above is/are the emission/emissions from coal combustion at thermal power plants?
(a) Only 1 (b) 2 and 3
(c) 1 and 3 (d) 1, 2 and 3
Ans: (d)
903. Assertion (A) Cellulose is used in making shatter-proof glass.
Reason (R) Polysaccharides are not soluble in water.
Codes
(a) Both A and R are individually true and R is the correct explanation of A.
(b) Both A and R are individually true and R is the correct explanation of A.
(c) A is true but R is false.
(d) A is false but R is true.
Ans: (b)
904. Electrically charged particles from space travelling at speeds several hundred km/sec can severely harm living beings if they reach the surface of the Earth. What prevents them from reaching the surface of the Earth?
(a) The Earth’s magnetic field diverts them towards its poles
(b) Ozone layer around the Earth reflects them back to outer space
(c) Moisture in the upper layers of atmosphere prevents them from reaching the surface of the Earth
(d) None of the statements is correct
Ans: (a)
905. Consider the following statements The purpose of adding sodium sulphate and sodium silicate to the detergent in a washing powder is
1. to keep to washing power dry.
2. to maintain the alkalinity of the powder.
Which of these statements is/are correct?
(a) Only 1 (b) Only 2
(c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2
Ans: (a)
906. Assertion (A) Synthetic detergents can leather well in hard water.
Reason (R) Synthetic detergents form soluble calcium and magnesium salts with hard water.
Codes
(a) Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A
(b) Both A and R are true but R is not the correct explanation of A
(c) A is true, but R is false
(d) A is false, but R is true
Ans: (a)
907. In Egypt, ancient mummies can be found to have their arteries, intact due to well preserved
(a) mineralised blood
(b) fibroblasts fibre
(c) elastic fibre (d) brown fal
Ans: (b)
908. Which one among the following is used in making lead pencils?
(a) Charcoal (b) Graphite
(c) Coke (d) Carbon black
Ans: (b)
909. Inactive nitrogen and argon gases are usually used in electric bulbs in order to
(a) increase the intensity of light emitted
(b) increase the life of the filament
(c) make the emitted light coloured
(d) make the production of bulb economical
Ans: (b)