1. The Global Competitiveness Report is published by the
(a) International Monetary Fund
(b) United Nations Conference on Trade and Development
(c) World Economic Forum
(d) World Bank
Ans. (c) Global Competitiveness Report is prepared by World Economic Forum.
UPSC Previous Year Paper [2019]
2. Among the following, which one of the following is the largest exporter of rice in the world in the last five years?
(a) China (b) India
(c) Myanmar (d) Vietnam
Ans. (b) 2019-Jan, Hindu Businessline : India has been the world’s top rice exporter since the beginning of this decade. But this boom has benefited only merchant capitalists, not consumers and producers.
UPSC Previous Year Paper [2019]
3. In the context of the proposals to the use of hydrogenenriched CNG (H-CNG) as fuel for buses in public transport, consider the following statements
1. The main advantage of the use of H-CNG is the elimination of carbon monoxide emissions.
2. H-CNG as fuel reduces carbon dioxide and hydrocarbon emissions.
3. Hydrogen up to one-fifth by volume can be blended with CNG as fuel for buses.
4. H-CNG makes the fuel less expensive than CNG.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a) 1 only (b) 2 and 3 only
(c) 4 only (d) 1,2,3 and 4
Ans. (b) – Compared to conventional CNG, use of H-CNG can reduce emissions of carbon monoxide up to 70% so 1 is wrong, because it doesn’t ‘eliminate CO emission’. – Same Indian Express article reads: For consumers who pay Rs 42 per kg for CNG, the cost of H-CNG would not be more than Rs 43 per kg. NITI Aayog-CII Action Plan for Clean Fuel notes that physical blending of CNG and hydrogen involves a series of energyintensive steps that would make H-CNG more expensive than CNG. So, 4 is wrong. By elimination we are left with answer B: only 2 and 3.
UPSC Previous Year Paper [2019]
4. As per the Industrial Employment (Standing Orders) Central
(Amendment) Rules, 2018:
1. If rules for fixed-term employment are implemented, it becomes easier for the firms/companies to lay off workers
2. No notice of termination of employment shall be necessary in the case of temporary workman Which of the following statements given above is/are correct
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
Ans. (c) As per the the Industrial Employment (Standing Orders) Central (Amendment) Rules, 2018: – No workman employed on fixed term employment basis shall be entitled to any notice or pay, if his services are terminated by non-renewal of contract. So, 1 is right. – No notice of termination of employment shall be necessary in the case of temporary workman. So, 2 is right. Answer C: both correct.
UPSC Previous Year Paper [2019]
5. The Service Area Approach was implemented under the purview of
(a) Integrated Rural Development Programme
(b) Lead Bank Scheme
(c) Mahatma Gandhi National Rural Employment Guarantee Scheme
(d) National Skill Development Mission
Ans. (b) – Basic function of Lead Bank: Preparation of service area credit plan. Coordination with the efforts of Government, banks and credit agencies. Service Area approach is a modification of Lead Bank scheme.
UPSC Previous Year Paper [2019]
6. Consider the following statements :
1. Petroleum and Natural Gas Regulatory Board (PNGRB) is the first regulatory body set up by the Government of India.
2. One of the tasks of PNGRB is to ensure competitive markets for gas.
3. Appeals against the decisions of PNGRB go before the Appellate Tribunals of Electricity.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a) 1 and 2 only (b) 2 and 3 only
(c) 1 and 3 only (d) 1,2 and 3
Ans. (b) – PNGRB was constituted under The Petroleum and Natural Gas Regulatory Board Act, 2006. SEBI was formed in 1988 by an executive order, given statutory status in 1992. Besides, IRDAI and many other regulatory bodies were setup before 2006. So, PNGRB is certainly not the first body to be setup by Govt of India. 1 is wrong, by elimination we are left with answer B.
UPSC Previous Year Paper [2019]
7. Which of the following statements is/are correct regarding the Maternity Benefit (Amendment) Act, 2017?
1. Pregnant women are entitled for three months predelivery and three months post-delivery paid leave
2. Enterprises with creches must allow the mother minimum six creche visits daily
3. Women with two children get reduced entitlements.
Select the correct answer using the code given below
(a) 1 and 2 only (b) 2 only
(c) 3 only (d) 1,2 and 3
Ans. (c) – In case of a woman who has two or more children, the maternity benefit will continue to be 12 weeks. If less than two children then she’ll get 26 weeks paid leave. – Every establishment with 50 or more employees to provide crèche facilities within a prescribed distance. The woman will be allowed four visits to the crèche in a day.
UPSC Previous Year Paper [2019]
8. Which one of the following is not a sub-index of the World Bank’s ‘Ease of Doing Business Index?
(a) Maintenance of law and order
(b) Paying taxes
(c) Registering property
(d) Dealing with construction permits
Ans. (a) World Bank’s Ease of Doing Biz based on simple average (equally weighted) of 10 parameters viz. 1. Starting a Business 2. Construction Permits 3. Getting Electricity 4. Registering Property 5. Getting Credit (loan) 6. Protecting Minority Investors 7. Paying Taxes 8. Trading across Borders 9. Enforcing Contracts 10. Resolving Insolvency So, A is the answer.
UPSC Previous Year Paper [2019]
9. Which of the following adopted a law on data protection and privacy for its citizens known as ‘General Data Protection Regulation’ in April 2016 and started implementation of its from 25th May 2018
(a) Australia
(b) Canada
(c) The European Union
(d) The United States of America
Ans. (c) 2019-June, IndianExpress: From MAY 25 EU’s General Data Protection Regulation takes effect. The new rules apply to all users in the 28-nation EU, regardless of where the companies collecting, analyzing and using their data are located.
UPSC Previous Year Paper [2019]
10. Recently, India signed a deal known as ‘Action Plan for Prioritization and Implementation of Cooperation Areas in the Nuclear Field’ with which of the following countries?
(a) Japan
(b) Russia
(c) The United Kingdom
(d) The United States of America
Ans. (b) 2018-Oct Economic Times: India and Russia inked Action Plan for Prioritization and Implementation of Cooperation Areas in the Nuclear Field during their 19th Joint summit.
UPSC Previous Year Paper [2019]
11. The word ‘Denisovan’ is sometimes mentioned in media in reference to
(a) fossil of a kind of dinosaurs
(b) an early human species
(c) a cave system found in North-East India
(d) a geological period in the history of Indian subcontinent
Ans. (b) Denisovan culture was discovered in 2010 and still awaits taxonomic classification. Aboriginal Australians have significant Denisovan genetic material. So, it ought to be B- a human species.
UPSC Previous Year Paper [2019]
12. Which of the following are the reasons for the occurence of multi-drug resistance in microbial pathogens in India?
1. Genetic predisposition of some people.
2. Taking incorrect doses of antibiotics to cure diseases.
3. Using antibiotics in livestock farming.
4. Multiple chronic diseases in some people.
Select the correct answer using the code given below.
(a) 1 and 2 (b) 2 and 3 only
(c) 1,3 and 4 (d) 2,3 and 4
Ans. (d) Overuse and misuse of antimicrobial agents is the single most important cause of development of resistance. They are also used indiscriminately as growth promoters in animals or used to prevent diseases in healthy animals. The antibiotics used in livestock are ingested by humans when they consume food.The transfer of resistant bacteria to humans by farm animals was first noted more than 35 years ago. (says American medical journal). So, 2 & 3 are right this eliminates A and C. Because they don’t contain 2 or 3. – According to the 4th World Health Organization (WHO) report on anti-tuberculosis drug resistance: multi-drug resistant tuberculosis (MDR TB) has been shown to be almost twice as common in tuberculosis (TB) patients living with HIV compared to TB patients without HIV.
UPSC Previous Year Paper [2019]
13. What is cas9 protein that is often mentioned in news ?
(a) A molecular scissors used in targeted gene editing.
(b) A biosensor used in the accurate detection of pathogens in patients.
(c) A gene that makes plants pest-resistant
(d) A herbicidal substance synthesized in generally modified crops
Ans. (a) “CRIPSR/Cas9” is a gene editing scissors.
UPSC Previous Year Paper [2019]
14.
1. Why is a plant called Prosopis juliflora often mentioned in news ?
(a) Its extract is widely used in cosmetics.
(b) It tends to reduce the biodiversity in the area in which it grows.
(c) Its extract is used in the synthesis of pesticides.
(d) None of the above
Ans. (b) This plant is a native of Mexico, and spread throughout Indi(a) It’s an aggressive colonizer, common weed of wastelands, scrublands and degraded forests. Since it’s mention under the head of invasive alien species so it’d reduce biodiversity in the area, Hence Option (B)
UPSC Previous Year Paper [2018]
15. With reference to solar power production in India, consider the following statements:
1. India is the third largest in the world in the manufacture of silicon wafers used in photovoltaic units.
2. The solar power tariffs are determined by the Solar Energy Corporation of India Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a) 1 only (b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2
Ans. (d) • There is no significant production of silicon wafers in India (as of 2011). So unlikely that it became 3rd largest by 2017-18. So, 1 is wrong. • Tariffs are determined under the Electricity Act. Any entity with “Corporation” word is irrelevant. so, 2 is wrong.
UPSC Previous Year Paper [2018]
16. Which of the following has/have shrunk immensely/ dried up in the recent past due to human activities ?
1. Aral Sea 2. Black Sea
3. Lake Baikal Select the correct answer using the code given below :
(a) 1 only (b) 2 and 3
(c) 2 only (d) 1 and 3
Ans. (a) • The Aral Sea, in Central Asia, used to be the fourth largest lake in the world, after the Caspian Sea, and Lakes Superior and Victori(a) Now barely 10% of it is left. BBC-2014. • Lake Baikal’s has been crippled by a series of detrimental phenomena….They include the disappearance of the omul fish, rapid growth of putrid algae and the death of endemic species of sponges across its vast 3.2 million-hectare are(a) , but there is no mention of immensely drying up. Hence answer A: 1 only.
UPSC Previous Year Paper [2018]
17. Consider the following statements:
1. In India, State Governments do not have the power to auction non-coal mines.
2. Andhra Pradesh and Jharkhand do not have gold mines.
3. Rajasthan has iron ore mines.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a) 1 and 2 (b) 2 only
(c) 1 and 3 (d) 3 only
Ans. (d) • As per the MMDR Amendment Act 2015 the state governments will conduct auction for grant of mineral concessions. The role of the central government is to prescribe the terms and conditions and procedures subject to which the auction shall be conducte(d) So first statement is wrong. Largest gold ore (primary) are located in Bihar (44%) followed by Rajasthan (25%) and Karnataka (21%), West Bengal, and Andhra Pradesh (3% each). So, Andhra Pradesh indeed has a gold mine. • Hematite and magnetite are the most important iron ores in India….resources of hematite are spread in Andhra Pradesh, Assam, Bihar, Maharashtra, Madhya Pradesh, Meghalaya, Rajasthan and Uttar Pradesh. So, third statement is right.
UPSC Previous Year Paper [2018]
18. Consider the following statements :
1. Aadhaar card can be used as a proof of citizenship or domicile.
2. Once issued, Aadhaar number cannot be deactivated or omitted by the Issuing Authority.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a) 1 only (b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2
Ans. (d) • Statement 1- Incorrect. Even it is written on the Aadhar Card itself. • Statement 2- Incorrect. By August 2017, UID has deactivated close to 81 lakh Aadhar numbers.
UPSC Previous Year Paper [2018]
19. In the Indian context, what is the implication of ratifying the ‘Additional Protocol’ with the ‘International Atomic Energy Agency (IAEA)’ ?
(a) The civilian nuclear reactors come under IAEA safeguards.
(b) The military nuclear installations come under the inspection of IAE(A)
(c) The country will have the privilege to buy uranium from the Nuclear Suppliers Group
(NSG).
(d) The country automatically becomes a member of the NSG.
Ans. (a) • Under the old IAEA safeguards, all NPT signatories would specify their nuclear sites and IAEA would carry out inspections in the specified sites. Thus, IAEA, under the old safeguards, could only carry out inspection for unauthorised activities only at designated or specified sites declared by a country. This basically left an option open for states to carry out covert nuclear programmes – as it happened in case of Iraq. • Thus, in 1993, the IAEA designed Additional Protocols (AP) to tighten the existing safeguarding regime. • However, India specific Additional Protocols (AP) do not give IAEA the right to hinder or interfere with activities which are outside the scope of India’s safeguard agreements, thus recognizing that India reserves a right to a military nuclear program outside IAEA agreement. From this description, C and D are irrelevant, and B is wrong. Thus we are left with answer (A)
UPSC Previous Year Paper [2018]
20. What is/are the consequence/consequences of a country becoming the member of the Nuclear Suppliers Group’?
1. It will have access to the latest and most efficient nuclear technologies.
2. It automatically becomes a member of “The Treaty on the Non-Proliferation of Nuclear Weapons (NPT)”.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a) 1 only (b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2
Ans. (a) • By joining NSG, we’ll have access to sophisticated nuclear technology. • India wishes to be a part of the NSG. However, as India is not a member of NPT, China and Pakistan have objections to its enrolment. So, 2 is wrong.
UPSC Previous Year Paper [2018]
21. “Rule of Law Index” is released by which of the following ?
(a) Amnesty International
(b) International Court of Justice
(c) The Office of UN Commissioner for Human Rights
(d) World Justice Project
Ans. (d) Topic was in news during 2018-March: The World Justice Project released its Rule of Law Index 2017-18 report, which measures the extent to which 113 countries have adhered to the rule of law in that perio(d) (India’s rank was 62, better than China, Pakistan, Myanmar and Bangladesh; Denmark occupied the top spot. Ref: TheHindu
UPSC Previous Year Paper [2018]
22. Consider the following pairs of Regions sometimes mentioned in news vs Country : 1.
Catalonia: Spain 2. Crimea: Hungary 3. Mindanao:
Philippines 4. Oromia: Nigeria Which of the pairs given above are correctly matched ?
(a) 1, 2 and 3 (b) 3 and 4 only
(c) 1 and 3 only (d) 2 and 4 only
Ans. (c)
UPSC Previous Year Paper [2018]
23. Very recently, in which of the following countries have lakhs of people either suffered from severe famine/ acute malnutrition or died due to starvation caused by war/ethnic conflicts ?
(a) Angola and Zambia
(b) Morocco and Tunisia
(c) Venezuela and Colombia
(d) Yemen and South Sudan
Ans. (d)
UPSC Previous Year Paper [2018]
24. The term “two-state solution” is sometimes mentioned in the news in the context of the affairs of
(a) China (b) Israel
(c) Iraq (d) Yemen
Ans. (b) Palestine under Israeli control to advocating the two states solution. It wants the creation of Arab Palestine state in the Gaza strip and West Bank, along side the state of Israel.
UPSC Previous Year Paper [2018]
25. Consider the following pairs Town sometime mentioned in news: Country:
1. Aleppo: Syria
2. Kirkuk: Yemen
3. Mosul: Palestine
4. Mazar -i- Sharif: Afghanistan Which of the pairs given above are correctly matched?
(a) 1 and 2 (b) 1 and 4
(c) 2 and3 (d) 3 and 4
Ans. (b) Aleppo = Syria, in news due to Syrian conflict. So, 1 is right. Mazar-i-Sharif is in Afghanistan. Last year PM Modi condemned a terror attack which killed 140 soldiers here. So, B: 1 and 4 are correctly paire(d) Kirkuk-Incorrect. It is in Iraq. Been in news due to ISIS controlled territory
UPSC Previous Year Paper [2018]
26. What is “Terminal High Altitude Area Defense
(THAAD)”, sometimes seen in the news?
(a) An Israeli radar system
(b) India’s indigenous anti-missile Programme
(c) An American anti missile system
(d) A defence collaboration between Japan and South Korea
Ans. (c) The THAAD system is designed to intercept and destroy short and medium-range ballistic missiles during their final phase of flight. USA installed this system in South Korea in 2017, in the wake North Korean missile tests. But this angered China, who feels that deployment of American armaments will upset the regional security balance. 11.
UPSC Previous Year Paper [2018]
27. Which of the following statements best describes the term ‘Scheme for Sustainable Structuring of Stressed Assets (S4A)’, recently seen in the news?
(a) It is a procedure for considering ecological costs of developmental schemes formulated by the Government.
(b) It is a scheme of RBI for reworking the financial structure of big corporate entities facing genuine difficulties.
(c) It is a disinvestment plan of the Government regarding Central Public Sector Undertakings.
(d) It is an important provision in ‘The Insolvency and Bankruptcy Code’ recently implemented by the Government.
Ans. (b) S4A is RBI’s scheme for restructuring of corporate loans, hence “B” is the most appropriate among the given options.
UPSC Previous Year Paper [2017]
28. Recognition of Prior Learning Scheme’ is sometimes mentioned in the news with reference to
(a) Certifying the skills acquired by construction workers through traditional channels.
(b) Enrolling the persons in Universities for distance learning programmes.
(c) Reserving some skilled jobs to rural and urban poor in some public sector undertakings.
(d) Certifying the skills acquired by trainees under the National Skill Development Programme.
Ans. (a) TFA came into force from February 2017. So, third statement is wrong, by elimination, we are left with answer “A”.
UPSC Previous Year Paper [2017]
29. The term ‘Domestic Content Requirement’ is sometimes seen in the news with reference to
(a) Developing solar power production in our country
(b) Granting licenses to foreign T.V. channels in our country
(c) Exporting our food products to other countries
(d) Permitting foreign educational institutions to set up their campuses in our country
Ans. (d) This portal is launched by Labour ministry to provide placement for diploma & degree holders. In second statement, the candidates & experts were not paying close attention to the keyword ‘uneducated’. So, most had ticked B as the answer but, this portal doesn’t help uneducated or illiterate person, it helps only diploma / degree holders. So, option d: neither 1 nor 2 is correct, as per the official answer key.
UPSC Previous Year Paper [2017]
30. Which of the following gives ‘Global Gender Gap Index’ ranking to the countries of the world?
(a) World Economic Forum
(b) UN Human Rights Council
(c) UN Women
(d) World Health Organization
Ans. (d) First statement is wrong because Official website says 2006’s theme was “A Vision for Sustainable Urbanization in the Asia-Pacific by 2020”. Besides, since 2016’s summit’s theme was emerging urban forms and it’s a biennial event as per PTI, so both statements are wrong.
UPSC Previous Year Paper [2017]
31. Which of the following statements is/are correct regarding Smart India Hackathon 2017?
1. It is a centrally sponsored scheme for developing every city of our country into Smart Cities in a decade.
2. It is an initiative to identify new digital technology innovations for solving the many problems faced by our country.
Ans. (d) NIIF is under Department of Economic Affairs. So first statement is wrong. It was setup in Budget 2015, with Rs.40k crores, but even if counting the recent allotments till Budget 2017, the 4 lakh amount is unrealistic. So, second statement is also wrong.
UPSC Previous Year Paper [2017]
32. With reference to ‘Asia Pacific Ministerial Conference on Housing and Urban Development (APMCHUD)’, consider the following statements:
1. The first APMCHUD was held in India in 2006 on the theme ‘Emerging Urban Forms – Policy Responses and Governance Structure’.
2. India hosts all the Annual Ministerial Conferences in partnership with ADB, APEC and ASEAN.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a) 1 only (b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2
Ans. (a) While this mission will certainly increase consumption of millets, coarse cereals and eggs once people become aware of their nutritional benefits, but promoting their ‘consumption’ is not the explicit objective of this mission. Explicitly stated objectives are only 1 and 2. so, experts were divided between a and b and cbecause in the 2016’s UN-REDD+ question, UPSC official even kept ‘indirect benefit’ of poverty removal as one of the objective. But in official answer key of 2017, they have gone only by literal interpretation of explicitly mentioned ‘direct benefits’, and they chose ‘a’ as the official answer.
UPSC Previous Year Paper [2017]
33. With reference to the role of UN-Habitat in the United Nations programme working towards a better urban future, which of the statements is/are correct?
1. UN-Habitat has been mandated by the United Nations General Assembly to promote socially and environmentally sustainable towns and cities to provide adequate shelter for all.
2. Its partners are either governments or local urban authorities only.
3. UN-Habitat contributes to the overall objective of the United Nations system to reduce poverty and to promote access to safe drinking water and basic sanitation.
Select the correct answer using the code given below:
(a) 1, 2 and 3 (b) 1 and 3 only
(c) 2 and 3 only (d) 1 only
Ans. (a) • Indianexpress June 2016: HRD Ministry has launched an initiative called ‘Vidyanjali’ to encourage youngsters to volunteer their services at any neighborhood government school. So accordingly “A” is the most appropriate choice. • What about statement “3”? While the mygov.in portal guidelines mention that Vidyanjali will cover initiatives under CSR, PPP, PSU. But mobilization of voluntary monetary contribution is not the primary and explicit ‘purpose’ of the scheme. • And the scheme is targeted at primary (Class 1 to 5) and upper primary classes (Class 6 to 8) so ‘secondary schools’ infrastructure facilities’ are beyond its scope of work. HRD ministry’s other schemes specifically count class 9 onwards as ‘secondary education’ Hence 3 is wrong. Therefore, Answer is “A”.
UPSC Previous Year Paper [2017]
34. What is/are the advantage/advantages of implementing the ‘National Agriculture Market’
(NAM) scheme?
1. It is a pan-India electronic trading portal for agricultural commodities.
2. It provides the farmers access to nationwide market, with prices commensurate with the quality of their produce.
Select the correct answer using the code given below:
(a) 1 only (b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2
Ans. (c) Both statements are correct as per Government notification.
UPSC Previous Year Paper [2017]
35. Consider the following in respect of Indian Ocean Naval Symposium (IONS):
1. Inaugural IONS was held in India in 2015 under the chairmanship of the Indian Navy.
2. IONS is a voluntary initiative that seeks to increase maritime co-operation among navies of the littoral states of the Indian Ocean Region.
Which of the above statements is/are correct?
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
Ans. (b) • The 2015 event was hosted by S.Africa and co-chair Tanzania. So first statement is wrong. • In 2008, IONS was setup taking all the littoral countries of the Indian Ocean (IO) onboard to promote friendly relationship and…bear upon issues of regional maritime security and cooperation in the maritime domain. Second statement is right.
UPSC Previous Year Paper [2017]
36. What is the importance of developing Chabahar Port by India?
(a) India’s trade with African countries will enormously increase.
(b) India’s relations with oil-producing Arab countries will be strengthened.
(c) India will not depend on Pakistan for access to Afghanistan and Central Asia.
(d) Pakistan will facilitate and protect the installation of a gas pipeline between Iraq and India.
Ans. (c) In May 2016, India and Iran signed the “historic” Chabahar port agreement, which has the potential of becoming India’s gateway to Afghanistan, Central Asia and Europe. So, C is the most fitting answer.
UPSC Previous Year Paper [2017]
37. Consider the following statements:
1. The Nuclear Security Summits are periodically held under the aegis of the United Nations.
2. The International Panel on Fissile Materials is an organ of International Atomic Energy Agency.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
Ans. (d) President Obama had initiated NSS in 2010. so, first statement is wrong. • The International Panel on Fissile Materials (IPFM), an independent group of arms-control and non-proliferation experts from 17 countries, has been keeping track of HEU and plutonium around the world. So second statement also wrong.
UPSC Previous Year Paper [2017]
38. Consider the following statements:
1. In tropical regions, Zika virus disease is transmitted by the same mosquito that transmits dengue.
2. Sexual transmission of Zika virus disease is possible.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
Ans. (c) Dengue, Zika and chikungunya are spread through a common vector, the Aedes aegypti mosquito. So first statement is right. Although Zika virus is primarily transmitted through mosquitoes, it can also be sexually transmitted as well. So second statement also right.
UPSC Previous Year Paper [2017]
39. In India, it is legally mandatory for which of the following to report on cyber security incidents?
1. Service providers
2. Data centres
3. Body corporate Select the correct answer using the code given below:
(a) 1 only
(b) 1 and 2 only
(c) 3 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3
Ans. (d) In the pursuance of section 70-B of the Information Technology Act, 2000 (the “IT Act”), Central Government issued the Information Technology (The Indian Computer Emergency Response Team and Manner of Performing Functions and Duties) Rules, 2013, these CERT Rules also impose an obligation on service providers, intermediaries, data centres and body corporates to report cyber incidents within a reasonable time so that CERT-In may have scope for timely action. Hence answer “D”.
UPSC Previous Year Paper [2017]
40. The terms ‘Event Horizon’, ‘Singularity’, `String Theory’ and ‘Standard Model’ are sometimes seen in the news in the context of
(a) Observation and understanding of the Universe
(b) Study of the solar and the lunar eclipses
(c) Placing satellites in the orbit of the Earth
(d) Origin and evolution of living organisms on the Earth
Ans. (a) Nature is governed by four fundamental forces – electromagnetic, strong, weak and gravitational. Standard Model explains the first three forces. (TheHindu, 2017, April) • Event horizon is the imaginary boundary surrounding the black hole from beyond which light cannot escape and The singularity constitutes the centre of a black hole and is hidden by the object’s “surface”. • All these point to answer “A”.
UPSC Previous Year Paper [2017]
41. Which of the following is not the member of U.N.O.?
(a) Switzerland (b) Bahamas
(c) Mauritius (d) Dominican Republic
Ans. (a) Only in 2002 did Switzerland become a full member of the United Nations and it was the first state to join it by referendum.
42. The principal language of Nagaland is
(a) English (b) Naga
(c) Assamese (d) Khasi
Ans. (a)
43. The two highest gallantry awards in India are
(a) Param Vir Chakra and Maha Vir Chakra
(b) Param Vir Chakra and Vir Chakra
(c) Ashok Chakra and Maha Vir Chakra
(d) Param Vir Chakra and Ashok Chakra .
Ans. (a)
44. Which of the following Asian languages are UN official languages?
(a) Chinese and Japanese
(b) Chinese and Arabic
(c) Japanese and Arabic
(d) Chinese and Hindi
Ans. (b) The six official languages of the UN are Arabic, Chinese, English, French, Russian, and Spanish. The working languages of the General Assembly are English, French, and Spanish (in the Security Council only English and French are working languages).
45. The most important event to occur for the first time in the recent history of Europe is
(a) The appointment of a non-Italian as the Pope
(b) Pope’s mission for the cause of world peace
(c) Election of Pope by cardinals
(d) None of these
Ans. (a) Pope Saint John Paul II was pope from 1978 to 2005. He is widely known to Catholics as Saint John Paul the Great, especially in the names of institutions. He was the second longest-serving pope in modern history after Pope Pius IX, who served for nearly 32 years from 1846 to 1878. • Born in Poland, John Paul II was the first non-Italian pope since the Dutch Pope Adrian VI, who served from 1522 to 1523.
46. Which of the following territories is not absolutely independent?
(a) Hong Kong (b) Singapore
(c) Switzerland (d) Mozambique
Ans. (a) Hong Kong first became part of the mainland China over 2000 years ago and was controlled by China since the Tang Dynasty (618-907). After the First Opium War (1839–42), Hong Kong became a British colony with the perpetual cession of Hong Kong Island, followed by the Kowloon Peninsula in 1860 and a 99-year lease of the New Territories from 1898. • Hong Kong was later occupied by Japan during the Second World War until British control resumed in 1945.
47. China attacked Vietnam because
(a) Of armed provocations and encroachment against Chinese territory
(b) Of Vietnam’s alliance with U.S.S.R.
(c) Of Vietnam’s involvement in Kampuchea
(d) Of Paracel Islands dispute
Ans. (b)
48. Line demarcating the boundary between India and China is
(a) Durand Line (b) McMohan Line
(c) Strafford Line (d) Radcliffe Line
Ans. (b) In the early 20th Century Britain sought to advance its line of control and establish buffer zones around its colony in South Asia. In 1913-1914 representatives of China, Tibet and Britain negotiated a treaty in India: the Simla Convention. Sir Henry McMahon, the foreign secretary of British India at the time, drew up the 890 km McMahon Line as the border between British India and Tibet during the Simla Conference.
49. Which of the following countries did not suffer imperial aggression?
(a) Ethiopia (b) Somalia
(c) Mauritania (d) Liberia
Ans. (d)
50. Which of the following has not declared itself as an Islamic Republic?
(a) Pakistan (b) Iran
(c) Algeria (d) Saudi Arabia
Ans. (c)
51. An earnest, widely supported move to enlarge U. N. Security Council, was made during the General Assembly’s session. Which of the following countries voted against the above proposal?
(a) China (b) Japan
(c) India (d) U.S.S.R
Ans. (d) The United Nations officially came into existence on 24 October 1945, when the Charter had been ratified by China, France, the Soviet Union, the United Kingdom, the United States and a majority of other signatories. United Nations Day is celebrated on 24 October each year. The Security Council has primary responsibility, under the Charter, for the maintenance of international peace and security. • The Council has 15 members: five permanent; China, France, the Russian Federation, the United Kingdom and the United States and 10 members elected by the General Assembly for two-year terms.
52. Prime Minister Mrs. Indira Gandhi visited Assam to talk with the leaders of the agitation on
(a) 12th April, 1983 (b) 6th April, 1980
(c) 19th April, 1980 (d) 20th April, 1980
Ans. (a)
53. How many judges are there in the International Court of Justice?
(a) 10 (b) 12
(c) 15 (d) 20
Ans. (c) The Court is composed of 15 Judges elected by the General Assembly and the Security Council, voting independently.
54. Which country is known as the ‘Land of the Morning Calm’?
(a) Japan (b) Korea
(c) Taiwan (d) Netherlands
Ans. (b) In 1934 A.D., an emperor of the Ming dynasty of China, the Celestial Empire of the East, gave Korea the title of ‘Chaohsien’ meaning morning freshness. The title was most suited to South Korea because of its spellbinding natural beauty of picturesque high mountains and clear waters and its splendid tranquillity, particularly in the morning which further confirmed the title on South Korea as the ‘Land of Morning Calm’.
55. U.S.S.R. stands for
(a) Union of Secular Socialist Republics
(b) Union of Sovereign Socialist Republics
(c) Union of Soviet Secular Republics
(d) Union of Soviet Socialist Republics
Ans. (d)
56. What is the cause for Iran Iraq conflict?
(a) Iraq’s claim over the oil territories of Iran
(b) Dispute regarding the Shatt- el Arab Waterways
(c) Demand of the Kurds for a separate state
(d) None of the above
Ans. (b)
57. New Moore Island is the cause of dispute between India and
(a) Malaysia (b) Sri Lanka
(c) Bangladesh (d) Burma
Ans. (c) India and Bangladesh both claimed the empty New Moore Island, which is about two miles long and 1.5 miles wide. Bangladesh referred to the island as South Talpatti.
58. Put the following political leaders in serial order in which they ruled Afghanistan
1. Karmal 2. Daoud
3. Taraki 4. Amin
Select the correct answer from the codes given below:
(a) 2, 4, 3, 1 (b) 1, 3, 4, 2
(c) 2, 4, 1, 3 (d) 2, 3, 4, 1
Ans. (d)
59. Wimbledon is associated with
(a) Lawn Tennis (b) Table Tennis
(c) Football (d) Hockey
Ans. (a)
60. The India-Pakistan boundary line has reference to
(a) McMohan Line (b) Radcliffe Line
(c) Durand Line (d) Maginot Line
Ans. (b) Boundary Commission, consultative committee created in July 1947 to recommend how the Punjab and Bengal regions of the Indian subcontinent were to be divided between India and Pakistan shortly before each was to become independent from Britain. The commission appointed by Lord Mountbatten consisted of four members from the Indian National Congress and four from the Muslim League and was chaired by Sir Cyril Radcliffe.
61. Mahatma Gandhi Setu is built over the river
(a) Ganga (b) Brahmaputra
(c) Godavari (d) Cauvery
Ans. (a) Mahatma Gandhi Setu over the River Ganga, was inaugurated in 1982 by the then Prime Minister of India, Indira Gandhi. The bridge connects Patna in the south to Hajipur in the north of Bihar. It is part of National Highway 19. It is very important link between North Bihar and South Bihar and is a route for several economic as well as socio political activity
62. UNCTAD is
(a) a United Nations Conference on Trade and Development
(b) Military Training and Education
(c) Education and Development
(d) None of the above
Ans. (a) Established in 1964, UNCTAD (United Nations Conference on Trade and Development) promotes the development-friendly integration of developing countries into the world economy.
63. Solidarity is an organisation in
(a) Czechoslovakia (b) West Germany
(c) France (d) Poland
Ans. (d) The formation of the independent trade union ‘ Solidarity’ was in response to the actions of the Communist government in raising prices for basic goods. Poland became a communist state as a result of agreements reached at the Yalta Conference.
64. New Moore Island is an issue of conflict between
(a) India and China
(b) India and Pakistan
(c) India and Bangladesh
(d) India and Sri Lanka
Ans. (c) India and Bangladesh both claimed the empty New Moore Island, which is about two miles long and 1.5 miles wide. Bangladesh referred to the island as South Talpatti.
65. Los Angeles is a favourite place for film production because
(a) It is situated in a place of picturesque beauty
(b) It has no competition from European filmmakers.
(c) It is the birth place of many actors
(d) The local population watch more films than television
Ans. (a) Situated in Southern California, Los Angeles is known for its Mediterranean climate, ethnic diversity, sprawling metropolis, and as a major center of the American entertainment industry.
66. What is basic to religion?
(a) Idol worship
(b) Belief in the supernatural element
(c) Priesthood
(d) Life after death
Ans. (b)
67. An overwhelming majority raised its voice for Namibia’s early independence in
(a) NAM (b) CHOGM
(c) UNCTAD (d) NAMEDIA
Ans. (b) Namibia is a country in southern Africa whose western border is the Atlantic Ocean. Namibia gained independence from South Africa on 21 March 1990, following the Namibian War of Independence. The first Commonwealth Africa Human Rights Conference (CAHRC) took place in Harare, Zimbabwe between 11–14 October 1991 and immediately preceded the Commonwealth Heads of Government Meeting (CHOGM). Organized by three local non-governmental organizations, it brought together participants from 14 Commonwealth African nations together with South Africa
68. Which pair is not correctly matched?
(a) Mrs. Indira Gandhi — U.N. Population Award
(b) Mother Teresa — Magsaysay Award for International Understanding
(c) S. Chandrashekhar — Nobel Prize
(d) Mahadevi Verma — Jnanpith Award
Ans. (b)
69. INTERPOL means
(a) International Criminal Police Organisation
(b) International Political Conference
(c) International Association of Police Officers
(d) None of the above
Ans. (a) The Organization’s official name is “ICPO– INTERPOL”. The official abbreviation “ICPO” stands for ‘International Criminal Police Organization’. In French this is “O.I.P.C.”, which stands for “Organisation internationale de police criminelle”.
70. India is a non-aligned country because
(a) It is not attached with a power group
(b) It is aligned to the non-aligned world
(c) It exercises a neutral policy towards power blocks
(d) It advocates the interests of the Third World countries
Ans. (a) The term non-alignment was coined by Jawaharlal Nehru in his speech in 1954 in Colombo, Sri Lanka. The founding fathers of the movement were: Josip Bros Tito of Yugoslavia, Sukarno of Indonesia, Gamal Abdel Nasser of Egypt, Kwame Nkrumah of Ghana, and Jawaharlal Nehru from India.
71. The Soviet Socialist Revolution on October is celebrated every year on November 7 because
(a) Lenin’s birthday falls on this date
(b) Russia’s victory over Germany coincides with this date
(c) The Provisional Government formed after the collapse of Czarist Government was overthrown on this day in 1917
(d) None of the above
Ans. (c)
72. Which of the following years is/was declared as the International Year of the Youth by the UNO?
(a) 1983 (b) 1984
(c) 1985 (d) 1989
Ans. (c) The United Nations (UN) dedicates an entire calendar year to focus on particular topics or themes. Many countries actively participate in promoting these years. The year 1985 was proclaimed by the United Nations as the International Youth Year, or IYY. It was held to focus attention on issues of concern to and relating to youth. The proclamation was signed on January 1, 1985 by United Nations Secretary General Javier Pérez de Cuéllar. Throughout the year, activities took place all over the world. These activities were coordinated by the Youth Secretariat within the Centre for Social Development and Humanitarian Affairs, at the time based at the UN offices in Vienna, Austria. 2016 has been proclaimed as International Year of Pulses.
73. The “Moortidevi Sahitya Puraskar” is instituted by
(a) Bharatiya Vidya Bhavan
(b) Bhartiya Jnanpith
(c) Ministry of Education, Government of India
(d) Sahitya Akademi
Ans. (b) The Moortidevi Award is an annual literary award in India presented by the Bharatiya Jnanpith organization for a work which emphasizes Indian philosophy and culture.
74. One day before her death, Mrs. Indira Gandhi
(a) Inaugurated India’s first air defence-guided missile school in Berhampur (Orissa)
(b) Laid the foundation stone of an ordnance factory in Bolangir (Orissa)
(c) Addressed a public meeting in Patna
(d) None of the above
Ans. (a) Indira Gandhi, the third Prime Minister of India, was assassinated at 09:20 on 31 October 1984, at her Safdarjung Road, New Delhi residence. She was killed by two of her bodyguards, Satwant Singh and Beant Singh, in the aftermath of Operation Blue Star, the Indian Army’s June 1984 assault on the Golden Temple in Amritsar which left the Sikh temple heavily damaged.
75. The Communist Khmer Rouge is a political party of
(a) North Korea (b) Vietnam
(c) Kampuchea (d) Thailand
Ans. (c) The Communist Party of Kampuchea (CPK), otherwise known as the Khmer Rouge, took control of Cambodia on April 17, 1975. The CPK created the state of Democratic Kampuchea in 1976 and ruled the country until January 1979. • The Khmer Rouge government was finally overthrown in 1979 by invading Vietnamese troops, after a series of violent border confrontations.
76. India, Pakistan and Bangladesh are the members of SAARC. The other members of SAARC are
(a) Burma, Bhutan, Nepal, Maldives
(b) Sri Lanka, Bhutan, China, Afghanistan
(c) Bhutan, Nepal, Sri Lanka, Maldives
(d) Mauritius, Afghanistan, Burma, China
Ans. (c)
77. Dada Saheb Phalke Award is given for outstanding contribution in the field of
(a) Cinema (b) Literature
(c) Music (d) Medicine
Ans. (a) To honour the Father of Indian Cinema, Dhundiraj Govind Phalke, the National Film Awards named the most prestigious and coveted award of Indian Cinema after him. He is the man who made the first Indian Feature film Raja Harishchandra in 1913. Popularly known as Dadasaheb Phalke, he then went on to make 95 films and 26 short films in a span of 19 years. • The Dadasaheb Phalke Award was introduced in 1969 by the government to recognise the contribution of film personalities towards the development of Indian Cinema. The first recipient of this award was Devika Rani.
78. Diet is the name of the Parliament in
(a) U.K. (b) U.S.A.
(c) India (d) Japan
Ans. (d) Modern usage mainly relates to the Japanese Parliament, called “Diet” in English, or the German Bundestag, the Federal Diet. The National Diet is Japan’s bicameral legislature
79. Consider the following events:
1. Economic Integration of Europe
2. Transfer of Hong Kong to China
3. U.S. Presidential Election
4. NAM Summit The events expected to take place in1991 include
(a) 1,3 and 4 (b) 1, 2 and 4
(c) 2, 3 and 4 (d) 1, 2 and 3
Ans. (a)
80. Which among the following pairs has been correctly matched?
(a) Nehru Trophy — Table Tennis
(b) Holkar Trophy — Bridge
(c) B. C. Roy Trophy — Lawn Tennis
(d) Ruia Trophy — Kabaddi
Ans. (b)
81. The people of Hong Kong have come mostly from
(a) Vietnam (b) China
(c) Cambodia (d) Thailand
Ans. (b) The majority of Hong Kongers are of Chinese descent and consider themselves as ethnic Chinese (with most having ancestral roots in the province of Guangdong); however there are also Hong Kongers of, for example, Indian, Filipino, Nepalese, Indonesian, Pakistani, Vietnamese, and British descent. Expatriates from many other countries live and work in the city.
82. G-7 refers to a group of
(a) Less-developed countries within the UNCTAD
(b) Developed countries within the World Bank
(c) Developed countries within the IMF
(d) Less-developed countries within the UN
Ans. (c)
83. Judaism and Christianity arose in
(a) Palestine (b) Rome
(c) Egypt (d) Iran
Ans. (a)
84. Which one of the following metros (underground railway system) has been adjudged by the Public Broadcasting System of the United States of America as the best in the world?
(a) Paris (b) Moscow
(c) London (d) Calcutta
Ans. (a) Opened in 1900 and operated by state-owned Régie Autonome des Transports Parisiens (RATP), Paris Metro was designed by renowned French civil engineer Fulgence Bienvenüe and is one of the oldest urban transport systems in the world. The metro system, also called Métropolitain, has a total route length of 205km serving 14 inner-city lines and 303 stations, most of which are underground.
85. The forerunner of the ideas of Glasnost and Perestroika was
(a) Dubcek (b) Gorbachev
(c) Tito (d) Walesa
Ans. (b)
86. Which one of the following is the National Flower of India?
(a) Rose (b) Canna
(c) Lotus (d) Marigold
Ans. (c)
87. Which one of the following is used by the International Court of Justice in disputes concerning riparian rights?
(a) Geneva Agreement
(b) Helsinki Agreement
(c) Paris Agreement
(d) Reykjavik Agreement
Ans. (d) Located at The Hague, in the Netherlands, the International Court of Justice is the principal judicial organ of the United Nations. It settles legal disputes between states and gives advisory opinions to the United Nations and its specialized agencies.
88. Communist Manifesto was written by Marx and
(a) Lenin (b) Stalin
(c) Engels (d) Trotsky
Ans. (c)
89. Next to Hindi, the language spoken by the largest number of people in the Indian sub-continent is
(a) Urdu (b) Telugu
(c) Bengali (d) Tamil
Ans. (c) Bengali Language or Bangla is an Indo-Aryan language spoken mostly in the East Indian subcontinent. It has evolved from the Magadhi Prakrit and Sanskrit languages and is the second most spoken language in India.
90. Which one of the following statements regarding SAARC countries is correct?
(a) No SAARC country other than India has a common border with another member country, Sri Lanka and Maldives being islands
(b) All the countries with which India has border are members of SAARC, Sri Lanka and Maldives being islands
(c) Except Sri Lanka and Maldives, all the SAARC countries have common border with China
(d) Except Sri Lanka and Maldives no other SAARC country has islands as part of its territory
Ans. (b)
91. The oldest monarchy in the world is that of
(a) U.K. (b) Nepal.
(c) Saudi Arabia (d) Japan
Ans. (d) Currently, the Emperor of Japan is the only remaining monarch in the world reigning under the title of “Emperor”. The Imperial House of Japan is the oldest continuing hereditary monarchy in the world.
92. Which one of the following statements regarding the “veto” power in the Security Council is correct according to the United Nations Charter?
(a) The decisions of the Security Council on all nonprocedural matters must be made by an affirmative vote of nine members, including the concurring, votes of the permanent members of the Council
(b) Every permanent member of the Security Council can prevent any decision from being accepted, by vetoing it
(c) The term veto was used in Article 27 of the United Nations Charter to enable any permanent member of the Security Council to prevent any resolution from being passed by the majority
(d) Any member of the Security Council can prevent any resolution from being passed by voting against it
Ans. (a) The United Nations Security Council has 15 members, but only its five permanent members – the United States, the United Kingdom, France, China and Russia – hold the power to impose a veto on the council’s resolutions. According to the United Nations Charter, the Security Council will make decisions “by an affirmative vote of nine members, including the concurring votes of the permanent members”. The word “veto” itself does not occur; its place is taken by the clause that requires all five permanent members to concur in order for a resolution to pass
93. Which one of the following was used as a chemical weapon in the First World War?
(a) Carbon monoxide (b) Hydrogen cyanide
(c) Mustard Gas (d) Water Gas
Ans. (c)
94. Which of the following are correctly matched?
1. Hamas : Palestinian extremist group
2. Sinn Fein : IRA’s political wing
3. True Path Party : A major constituent of the ruling coalition in Turkey
Choose the correct answer from the codes given below:
(a) 1 and 2 (b) 1 and 3
(c) 1, 2 and 3 (d) 2 and 3
Ans. (c)
95. Which one of the following is NOT a principle of “Panchsheel”?
(a) Non-alignment
(b) Peaceful Co-existence
(c) Mutual respect for each other’s territorial integrity and sovereignty
(d) Mutual non-interference in each other’s internal affairs
Ans. (a) Panchsheel, or the Five Principles of Peaceful Coexistence, were first formally enunciated in the Agreement on Trade and Intercourse between the Tibet region of China and India signed on April 29, 1954, which stated, in its preamble, that the two Governments have resolved to enter into the present Agreement based on the following principles. In 1961, the Conference of Non-Aligned Nations in Belgrade accepted Panchsheel as the principled core of the Non-Aligned Movement. Panchsheel was developed in the context of a post-colonial world where many were seeking an alternative ideology dedicated to peace and development of all.
96. The Basque separatist organisation is active in
(a) Russia (b) Cyprus
(c) Portugal (d) Spain
Ans. (d) ETA, which is pronounced “etta,” is a leftist group that conducts terrorist attacks to win independence for a Basque state in northern Spain and southwestern France. ETA stands for Euskadi ta Askatasuna, which means “Basque Fatherland and Liberty” in the Basque language.
97. Some people in Manipur live in houses built on floating islands of weeds and decaying vegetation held together by suspended silt. These islands are called
(a) Tipis (b) Barkhans
(c) Phoomdis (d) Izba
Ans. (c)
98. ‘MERCOSUR’ consists of group of countries of
(a) Africa (b) Asia
(c) Latin America (d) South East Asia
Ans. (c) MERCOSUR is a trading bloc in Latin America comprising Brazil, Argentina, Uruguay and Paraguay. MERCOSUR was formed in 1991 with the objective of facilitating the free movement of goods, services, capital and people among the four member countries. It is the third largest integrated market after the European Union (EU), North American Free Trade Agreement (NAFTA. • Mercosur’s main objective is to increase the efficiency and competitiveness of the all member economies by opening markets, promoting economic development in the framework of a globalized world, improving infrastructure and communications, making better use of available resources, preserving the environment, generating industrial complementation and coordinating macroeconomic policies. Achieving a common external tariff is one of the main goals of the block.
99. The language spoken by the largest number of people in the world is
(a) Hindi (b) English
(c) Mandarin (d) Spanish
Ans. (c) The world’s most widely spoken languages by number of native speakers and as a second language, according to figures from UNESCO (The United Nations’ Educational, Scientific and Cultural Organization), are: Mandarin Chinese, English, Spanish, Hindi, Arabic, Bengali, Russian, Portuguese, Japanese, German and French. One of the five major dialects of Chinese, Mandarin is the official language of China and Taiwan, as well as one of the four official dialects of Singapore. Approximately14.4 percent of the world’s population are native speakers of Mandarin.
100. Consider the following statements about the European Union:
(1) The European Union was known earlier as the European Community.
(2) The Single European Act (1986) and the Maastricht Treaty were milestones in its formation.
(3) Citizens of European Union countries enjoy dual citizenship.
(4) Switzerland is a member of the European Union.
Which of the above statements are correct?
(a) 2 and 4 (b) 1 and 3
(c) 3 and 4 (d) 1, 2 and 3
Ans. (d)
101. At which one of the cities labelled as A, B, C and D on the given map of Europe was the historic treaty between NATO and Warsaw Pact countries signed in 1998?
(a) A (b) B
(c) C (d) D
Ans. (c)
102. Which one of the following statements is correct?
(a) Kacchativu and Tin Bigha were territories acquired by the Indian Republic from the French
(b) Kacchativu and Tin Bigha are territories handed over to Sri Lankan and Bangladeshi sovereignty respectively by the Government of India
(c) Kacchativu and Tin Bigha are areas that were annexed by the Chinese in the 1962 Sino-Indian War
(d) Kacchativu and Tin Bigha are enclaves which were transferred to India by lease arrangements with Sri Lanka and Pakistan respectively
Ans. (b)
103. The largest number of Buddhists is found in
(a) Bihar (b) Karnataka
(c) Maharashtra (d) Uttar Pradesh
Ans. (c) The largest concentration of Buddhism is in Maharashtra (58.3%), where (73.4%) of the total Buddhists in India reside. Karnataka (3.9 lakh), Uttar Pradesh (3.0 lakh), West Bengal (2.4 lakh) and Madhya Pradesh (2.0 lakh) are other states having large Buddhist population. Sikkim (28.1%), Arunachal Pradesh (13.0%) and Mizoram (7.9 %) have emerged as top three states in terms of having maximum percentage of Buddhist population.
104. Consider the following organizations:
1. Atomic Minerals Directorate for Research and Exploration
2. Heavy Water Board
3. Indian Rare Earths Limited
4. Uranium Corporation of India Which of these is/are under the Department of Atomic Energy?
(a) 1 only (b) 1 and 4
(c) 2, 3 and 4 (d) 1, 2, 3 and 4
Ans. (d)
105. Match List I with List II and select the correct answer using the codes given below the Lists:
List I : List II
(Books) : (Author)
A. The struggles in My Life : 1. Lech Walesa
B. The Struggle & : 2. Nelson the Trimuph Mandela
C. Friends & Foes : 3. Lenoid Brezhnev
D. Rebirth : 4. Zulfikar Ali Bhutto : 5. Sheikh Mujibur Rehman Codes:
A B C D
(a) 1 2 5 3 (b) 2 1 5 3
(c) 1 2 3 4 (d) 2 1 3 4
Ans. (b)
106. Match List I with List II and select the correct answer using the codes given below the Lists :
List I : List II
(Important Day) : (Date)
A. World Environment Day : 1. March 20
B. World Forestry Day : 2. June 5
C. World Habitat Day : 3. September 16
D. World Ozone Day : 4. October 3 : 5. December 10
Codes :
A B C D
(a) 2 1 4 5 (b) 1 2 4 3
(c) 1 2 3 4 (d) 2 1 4 3
Ans. (d)
107. “World Development Report” is an annual publication of
(a) United Nations Development Programme
(b) International Bank of Reconstruction and Development
(c) World Trade Organisation
(d) International Monetary Fund
Ans. (b) The World Development Report (WDR) is an annual report published since 1978 by the International Bank for Reconstruction and Development (IBRD) or World Bank.
108. Match List I with List II and select the correct answer using the codes given below the Lists:
List I : List II
(Institute) : (Location)
A. Central Institute of Medicinal & Aromatic Plants : 1. Chandigarh
B. Centre for DNA Finger : 2. Hyderabad Printing and Diagnostics
C. Institute of Microbial : 3. New Delhi Technology
D. National Institute of : 4. Lucknow Immunology Codes:
A B C D
(a) 2 4 1 3 (b) 4 2 1 3
(c) 2 4 3 1 (d) 4 2 3 1
Ans. (b)
109. The Consultative Committee of members of Parliament for Railway Zones is constituted by the
(a) President of India
(b) Ministry of Railways
(c) Ministry of Parliamentary Affairs
(d) Ministry of Transport
Ans. (c) The Ministry of Parliamentary Affairs constitutes Consultative Committees of Members of both the Houses of Parliament, which are attached to various Ministries, and arranges meetings thereof. The Minister/Minister of State in-charge of the Ministry concerned acts as the chairman of the Consultative Committee of that Ministry. The main purpose of these Committees is to provide a forum for informal discussions between the Government and Members of Parliament on policies and programmes of the Government and the manner of their implementation. •
110. HINDALCO, an aluminium factory located at Renukut owes its site basically to
(a) proximity of raw materials
(b) abundant supply of power
(c) efficient transport network
(d) proximity to the market
Ans. (b) In 1967 Hindalco established a captive power plant at Renusagar, the first captive power plant (CPP) for aluminium industry in India. This along with a cogeneration power unit ensures continuous supply of power for the smelter and other operations.
111. The world’s highest ground based telescopic observatory is located in
(a) Colombia (b) India
(c) Nepal (d) Switzerland
Ans. (b)
112. Consider the following countries of South Asia:
1. Bangladesh 2. India
3. Pakistan 4. Sri Lanka The descending order of literacy status of these countries is
(a) 4, 2, 1, 3 (b) 2, 4, 3, 1
(c) 4, 2, 3, 1 (d) 2, 4, 1, 3
Ans. (a)
113. Match List I (Ethnic Community) with List II (Country) and select the correct answer using the codes given below the lists:
List I : List II
(Ethic Community) : (Country)
A. Apatani : 1. China
B. Dayak : 2. India
C. Dinka : 3. Indonesia
D. Ughur : 4. Sudan Codes:
A B C D
(a) 2 3 4 1 (b) 3 2 4 1
(c) 2 3 1 4 (d) 3 2 1 4
Ans. (a)
114. Match List I (Organization) with List II (Headquarters) and select the correct answer using the codes given below the lists:
List I : List II
(Organization) : (Headquarters)
A. International Atomic : 1. Brussels Energy Agency
B. International : 2. Geneva Telecommunication Union
C. Council of the : 3. Paris European Union
D. Organisation for : 4. Vienna Economic Cooperation and Development Codes:
A B C D
(a) 1 2 4 3 (b) 1 3 4 2
(c) 1 3 4 2 (d) 4 2 1 3
Ans. (d)
115. In which one of the following countries is Rupee its currency?
(a) Bhutan (b) Malaysia
(c) Maldives (d) Seychelles
Ans. (d)
116. Consider the following statements regarding the relations between India and Pakistan:
(1) During Shimla Agreement, Indira Gandhi and Zulfikar Bhutto agreed to maintain the sanctity of LOC.
(2) Lahore Summit took place in the year 1997.
(3) Islamabad Summit was held between Rajiv Gandhi and Nawaz Sharif.
Which of these statements is/are correct?
(a) 1, 2 and 3 (b) 1 and 3
(c) Only 2 (d) Only 1
Ans. (d)
117. Which among the following countries was the earliest to give women the right to vote?
(a) Iceland (b) India
(c) New Zealand (d) U.S.A.
Ans. (c) On 19 September 1893 the Governor Lord Glasgow, signed the Electoral Bill into law giving women the right to vote to elect members of Parliament. New Zealand became the first country to extend this right to women. This was followed by legislation in 1919 enabling women to stand for Parliament. Elizabeth McCombs was the first woman elected as a Member of Parliament in 1933. In most other democracies including Britain and the United States women did not win the right to the vote until after the First World War.
118. Survey of India is under the Ministry of:
(a) Defence
(b) Environment and Forests
(c) Home Affairs
(d) Science and Technology
Ans. (d) Survey of India, The National Survey and Mapping Organization of the country under the Department of Science & Technology, is the oldest scientific Department of the Government of India. It was set up in 1767 and has evolved rich traditions over the years. The Survey of India acts as adviser to the Government of India on all survey matters, viz Geodesy, Photogrammetry, Mapping and Map Reproduction. • The Survey of India, headquartered at Dehra Dun, has 18 civil engineering divisions ranging from the prediction of tides to aerial survey. It has 23 Geospatial Data Centers spread across India, each catering to the respective administrative area.
119. Match List-I (Organization) with List-II (Location) and select the correct answer using the codes given below the lists:
List-I List-II
(Organization) (Location)
A. National Sugar Institute 1. Dehradun
B. Mishra Dhatu Nigam Limited 2. Kamptee
C. Institute of Military Law 3. Pune
D. Institute of National Integration 4. Hyderabad
5. Kanpur Codes:
A B C D
(a) 3 1 4 2 (b) 5 1 4 3
(c) 3 4 5 2 (d) 5 4 2 3
Ans. (d)
120. Which one among the following has the largest shipyard in India?
(a) Kolkata (b) Kochi
(c) Mumbai (d) Visakhapatnam
Ans. (b) Cochin Shipyard Limited (CSL) is one of the major ship-building and maintenance facilities in India. It is part of a line of maritime-related facilities in the port-city of Kochi, in the state of Kerala.
121. Which of the following pairs is not correctly matched?
(a) Reinhold Messner : Computer Technology
(b) Harlow Shapley : Astronomy
(c) Gregor Mendel : Hereditary Theory
(d) Godfrey Hounsfield : CT Scan
Ans. (a)
122. Match List-I (Institute) with List-II (Located At) and select the correct answer using the codes given below the Lists:
List-I : List-II
(Institute) : (Located At)
A. Indian Institute of : 1. Coimbatore Geomagnetism
B. International Advanced : 2. Mumbai Research Centre for Powder; Metallurgy and New Materials
C. Salim Ali Centre for : 3. Jabalpur Ornithology and Natural History
D. Tropical Forestry Research : 4. Hyderabad Institute Codes:
A B C D
(a) 2 3 1 4 (b) 1 4 2 3
(c) 2 4 1 3 (d) 1 3 2 4
Ans. (c)
123. Consider the following statements:
1. Smart Card is a plastic card with an embedded microchip.
2. Digital technology is primarily used with new physical communication medium such as satellite and fibre optics transmission.
3. A digital library is a collection of documents in an organized electronic form available on the Internet only.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a) 3 only (b) 1 and 2
(c) 2 and 3 (d) 1, 2 and 3
Ans. (d) A smart card is a plastic card about the size of a credit card, with an embedded microchip that can be loaded with data, used for telephone calling, electronic cash payments, and other applications, and then periodically refreshed for additional use. Smart cards are made of plastic, generally polyvinyl chloride, but sometimes polyethylene terephthalate based polyesters, acrylonitrile butadiene styrene or polycarbonate. Smart cards can be either contact or contactless smart card. Smart cards can provide personal identification, authentication, data storage, and application processing. Smart cards may provide strong security authentication for single sign-on (SSO) within large organizations. • Digital technology is a base two process. Digitized information is recorded in binary code of combinations of the digits 0 and 1, also called bits, which represent words and images.
124. Consider the following international languages:
1. Arabic
2. French
3. Spanish The correct sequence of the languages given above in the decreasing order of the number of their speakers is:
(a) 3-1-2 (b) 1-3-2
(c) 3-2-1 (d) 1-2-3
Ans. (b) The world’s most widely spoken languages by number of native speakers and as a second language, according to figures from UNESCO (The United Nations’ Educational, Scientific and Cultural Organization), are: Mandarin Chinese, English, Spanish, Hindi, Arabic, Bengali, Russian, Portuguese, Japanese, German and French.
125. Match items in the List-I with List-II and select the correct answer using the codes given below the lists:
List I (Country) : List II
(Name of Parliament)
(A) Netherlands : 1. Diet
(B) Ukraine : 2. States General
(C) Poland : 3. Supreme Council
(D) Japan : 4. Sejm Codes :
A B C D
(a) 4 1 2 3 (b) 2 3 4 1
(c) 4 3 2 1 (d) 2 1 4 3
Ans. (b)
126. Match List-I (New Names of the Countries) with List-II (Old Names of the Countries) and select the correct answer using the codes given below the Lists:
List-I List-II
(New Names of the : (Old Names of the Countries) Countries)
A. Benin : 1. Nyasaland
B. Belize : 2. Basutoland
C. Botswana : 3. Bechuanaland
D. Malawi : 4. British Honduras : 5. Dahomey Codes:
A B C D
(a) 3 1 2 4 (b) 5 4 3 1
(c) 3 4 2 1 (d) 5 1 3 4
Ans. (b)
127. Match items in the List-I with List-II and select the correct answer using the codes given below the lists:
List I (Power Station) : List II (State)
(A) Kothagudem : 1. Andhra Pradesh
(B) Raichur : 2. Gujarat
(C) Mettur : 3. Karnataka
(D) Wanakbori : 4. Tamil Nadu Codes :
A B C D
(a) 4 2 1 3 (b) 1 3 4 2
(c) 4 3 1 2 (d) 1 2 4 3
Ans. (b)
128. For which one of the following countries, is Spanish not an official language?
(a) Chile
(b) Colombia
(c) Republic of Congo
(d) Cuba
Ans. (c)
129. Consider the following statements:
1. The Headquarters of the International Organization for Standardization are located in Rome
2. ISO 9000 relates to the quality management system and standards.
3. ISO 14000 relates to environmental management system standards.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a) 1, 2 and 3 (b) 3 only
(c) 2 and 3 (d) None
Ans. (c)
130. For which one of the following, is Satara wellknown?
(a) Thermal power plant
(b) Wind energy plant
(c) Hydro-electric plant
(d) Nuclear Power plant
Ans. (b)
131. Match List-I with List-II and select the correct answer using the code given below the list :
List I (Atomic Power Plants/ – List II (State) Heavy Water Plants)
(A) Thal – 1. Andhra Pradesh
(B) Manuguru – 2. Gujarat
(C) Kakrapar – 3. Maharastra
(D) Kaiga – 4. Madhya Pradesh
5. Karnataka A B C D
(a) 2 1 4 5 (b) 3 5 2 1
(c) 2 5 4 1 (d) 3 1 2 5
Ans. (d)
132. Consider the following statements:
1. Liquid Natural Gas (LNG) is liquefied under extremely cold temperatures and high pressure to facilitate storage or transportation in specially designed vessels.
2. First LNG terminal in India was built in Hassan.
3. Natural Gas Liquids (NGL) are separated from LPG and these include ethane, propane, butane and natural gasoline.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a) 1 only (b) 1 and 3
(c) 2 and 3 (d) 1, 2 and 3
Ans. (a)
133. Which one of the following cities is the seat of Parliament of South Africa?
(a) Pretoria (b) Durban
(c) Johannesburg (d) Cape Town
Ans. (d) The Parliament of South Africa is South Africa’s legislature and under the country’s current Constitution is composed of the National Assembly and the National Council of Provinces. It has undergone many transformations as a result of the country’s tumultuous history. From 1910 to 1994, it was elected mainly by South Africa’s white minority, before the first elections with universal suffrage were held in 1994.
134. Which one of the following pairs is not correctly matched?
(a) Southern Air Command – Thiruvananthapuram
(b) Eastern Naval Command – Visakhapatnam
(c) Armoured Corps Centre and School – Jabalpur
(d) Army Medical Corps Centre and School – Lucknow
Ans. (c)
135. Match List I with List II and select the correct answer using the code given below the lists :
List I : List II
(Place of Archaeological Monument) : (State)
A. Sisupalgarh : 1. Assam
B. Piprahwa : 2. Manipur
C. Goalpara : 3. Orissa
D. Bishnupur : 4. Uttar Pradesh A B C D
(a) 2 4 1 3 (b) 2 1 4 3
(c) 3 4 1 2 (d) 3 1 4 2
Ans. (c)
136. In which one of the following countries, is Tamil a major language?
(a) Myanmar (b) Indonesia
(c) Mauritius (d) Singapore
Ans. (d)
137. In which state is the Rajiv Gandhi National Institute of Youth Development located?
(a) Tamil Nadu (b) Karnataka
(c) Himachal Pradesh (d) Uttranchal
Ans. (a) The Rajiv Gandhi National Institute of Youth Development, Sriperumbudur, Tamil Nadu, is an Institute of National importance by an Act of Parliament No. 35/2012 under the Ministry of Youth Affairs & Sports, Government of India. The RGNIYD was set up in 1993 under the Societies Registration Act, XXVII of 1975. The Institute functions as a thinktank of the Ministry and premier organization of youth-related activities in the country.
138. Consider the following statements:
1. Petronet LNG Ltd. is setting up another LNG terminal at Mangalore
2. The Head Office of the Dredging Corporation of India is at Visakhapatnam
3. The Narwapahar Mine is operated by the Uranium Corporation of Indian Limited
Which of the statements given above are correct?
(a) 1, 2 and 3 (b) 1 and 2 only
(c) 2 and 3 only (d) 1 and 3 only
Ans. (c)
139. Consider the following statements:
1. Life Insurance Corporation of India is the oldest insurance company is India.
2. National Insurance Company Limited was nationalized in the year 1972 and made a subsidiary of General Insurance Corporation of India.
3. Headquarters of United India Insurance Company Limited are located at Chennai.
Which of the statements given above are correct?
(a) 1, 2 and 3
(b) 1 and 2, only
(c) 2 and 3, only
(d) 1 and 3, only
Ans. (c)
140. Which one of the following is not a Central University?
(a) Pondicherry University
(b) Maulana Azad National Urdu University, Hyderabad
(c) Visva Bhati, Shanti Niketan
(d) University of Madras, Chennai
Ans. (d)
141. Where is the Central Water and Power Research Station located?
(a) Khadakwasia (b) Sileru
(c) Jamnagar (d) Srisailam
Ans. (a)
142. Which one of the following pairs is not correctly matched?
Railway Zone : Headquarters
(a) North Eastern Railway : Gorakhpur
(b) South Eastern Railway : Bhubaneswar
(c) Eastern Railway : Kolkata
(d) South East Central Railway : Bilaspur
Ans. (b)
143. Match List-I with List-II and select the correct answer using the code given below the lists:
List-I (Aluminium Company) List-II (Location)
A. BALCO : 1. Hirakud
B. HINDALCO : 2. Korba
C. Indian Aluminum Company : 3.Koraput
D. NALCO : 4. Renukoot
(a) 3 1 4 2 (b) 2 4 1 3
(c) 3 4 1 2 (d) 2 1 4 3
Ans. (b)
144. Where are the headquarters of the Organization of the Islamic Conference (OIC) located?
(a) Dubai (b) Jeddah
(c) Islamabad (d) Ankara
Ans. (b)
145. The Pulitzer Prize is associated with which one of the following?
(a) Environmental protection
(b) Olympic games
(c) Journalism
(d) Civil Aviation
Ans. (c)
146. Match List-I wish List-II and select the correct answer using the code given below the lists:
List-I (Company) List-II
(Major Area/Product)
A. Chevron : 1. Wind energy
B. A T & T : 2. Oil
C. AMD : 3.Telephone, internet
D. Enercon : 4. Micro-processor A B C D
(a) 2 1 4 3 (b) 4 3 2 1
(c) 2 3 4 1 (d) 4 1 2 3
Ans. (c)
147. Which one of the following cities does not have the same clock time as that of the other three cities at any given instant?
(a) London (U.K)
(b) Lisbon (Portugal)
(c) Accra (Ghana)
(d) Addis Ababa (Ethiopia)
Ans. (d)
148. Consider the following statements:
1. North Atlantic Co-operation Council (NACC) is the name of the new organization which has repeated the North Atlantic Treaty Organization (NATO).
2. The United States of America and the United Kingdom became the members of the NATO when it was formed in the year 1949.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a) 1 only (b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2
Ans. (b)
149. In the context of the Indian defence, what is ‘Dhruv’?
(a) Aircraft-carrying warship
(b) Missile-carrying Submarine
(c) Advanced light helicopter
(d) Intercontinental ballistic missile
Ans. (c) The indigenously designed and developed Advanced Light Helicopter (ALH-DHRUV) is a twin engine, multi-role, multi-mission new generation helicopter in the 5.5 ton weight class. The basic Helicopter is produced in skid version and wheeled version. Dhruv is type certified for Military operations by the Centre for Military Air worthiness Certification (CEMILAC) and civil operations by the Directorate General of Civil Aviation (DGCA). Certification of the utility military variant was completed in 2002 and that of the civil variant was completed in 2004. Military versions in production include transport, utility, reconnaissance and medical evacuation variants.
150. Which was the Capital of Andhra state when it was made a separate State in the year 1953?
(a) Guntur (b) Kurnool
(c) Nellore (d) Warangal
Ans. (b) Andhra State was the first state in India to be formed on a mainly linguistic basis. On 19 December 1952, Prime Minister Jawaharlal Nehru announced the formation of a separate state for Telugu-speaking people of the Madras Presidency. On 1 October 1953, eleven districts in the Telugu-speaking portion of Madras State (Coastal Andhra and Rayala Seema) voted to become Andhra State, with Kurnool as their capital. Andhra Kesari Tanguturi Prakasam Pantulu became first Chief Minister of the new Telugu state.
151. Which one of the following is the correct sequences in respect of the Roman numerals-C,D,L and M ?
(a) C > D > L > M (d) M < L > D > C
(c) M > D > C > L (d) L > C < D > M
Ans. (c) The numeric system represented by Roman numerals originated in ancient Rome and remained the usual way of writing numbers throughout Europe well into the Late Middle Ages.
152. What does Baudhayan theorem (Baudhayan Shulba Sautra) related to?
(a) Lengths of sides of a right-angled triangle
(b) Calculation of the value of pi
(c) Logarithmic calculations
(d) Normal distribution curve
Ans. (a)
153. Which of the following pairs are correctly matched?
Institute : Location
1. National Centers for Cell Sciences : Mysore
2. Center for DNA Fingerprinting and Diagnostics : Hyderabad
3. National Brain Research Center : Gurgaon
Select the correct answer using the code given below:
(a) 1, 2 and 3 (b) 1 and 2 Only
(c) 2 and 3 Only (d) 1 and 3 only
Ans. (c)
154. The term “prisoner’s Dilemma” is associated with which one of the following?
(a) A technique in glass manufacture
(b) A term used in shipping industry
(c) A situation under the Game Theory
(d) Name of a supercomputer
Ans. (c) The prisoner’s dilemma is a standard example of a game analyzed in game theory that shows why two completely “rational” individuals might not cooperate, even if it appears that it is in their best interests to do so.
155. Among the Indian languages, which one is spoken maximum in the world after Hindi?
(a) Telugu (b) Tamil
(c) Bengali (d) Malayalam
Ans. (c) India has 22 official languages. According to Census of India, the total number of mother tongues spoken in India is 1652. However, only around 150 languages have a sizable speaking population. The Indian census of 1961 recognised 1,652 different languages in India (including languages not native to the subcontinent). Besides Hindi, the following languages (arranged in descending order as regards numbers of speakers) are spoken by more than 25 million Indians – Bengali, Telugu, Marathi, Tamil, Urdu, Gujarati, Kannada, Malayalam, Odia, Punjabi, Assamese (Asamiya).
156. For India, China the UK and the USA, which one of the following is the correct sequence of the median age of their populations?
(a) China < India < UK < USA
(b) India < China < USA < UK
(c) China < India < USA < UK
(d) India < China < UK < USA
Ans. (b)
157. Other than Venezuela, which one among the following from South America is a member of OPEC?
(a) Argentina (b) Brazil
(c) Ecuador (d) Bolivia
Ans. (c)
158. Which one amongst the following has the largest livestock population in the world?
(a) Brazil (b) China
(c) India (d) USA
Ans. (c) Livestock are domesticated animals raised in an agricultural setting to produce commodities such as food, fiber, and labor. The term is often used to refer solely to those raised for food, and sometimes only farmed ruminants, such as cattle and goats. • The world’s average stock of chickens is almost 19 billion, or three per person, according to statistics from the UN’s Food and Agriculture Organisation. Cattle are the next most populous breed of farm animal at 1.4 billion, with sheep and pigs not far behind at around 1 billion. The world cattle inventory in 2016 is 971.4826 million head. India has the largest cattle inventory in the world followed by Brazil & China. India ranks first in cattle and buffalo population, second in goat, third in sheep and seventh in poultry.
159. Under the administration of which one of the following is the Department of Atomic Energy?
(a) Prime Minister’s Office
(b) Cabinet Secretariat
(c) Ministry of Power
(d) Ministry of Science and Technology
Ans. (a)
160. Which among the following has the world’s largest reserves of Uranium?
(a) Australia (b) Canada
(c) Russian Federation (d) USA
Ans. (a) Australia, the world’s biggest uranium reserve holder.
161. NAMA-11 (Nama-11) group of countries frequently appears in the news in the context of the affairs of which one of the following?
(a) Nuclear Suppliers Group
(b) World Bank
(c) World Economic Forum
(d) W.T.O.
Ans. (d) The Non-Agricultural Market Access (NAMA) negotiations of the World Trade Organization are based on the Doha Declaration of 2001 that calls for a reduction or elimination in tariffs, particularly on exportable goods of interest to developing countries. NAMA covers manufacturing products, fuel and mining products, fish and fish products, and forestry products. These products are not covered by the Agreement on Agriculture or the negotiations on services. The WTO considers the NAMA negotiations important because NAMA products account for almost 90% of the world’s merchandise exports. A group of eleven developing countries working toward strengthening NAMA The group has two main objectives: • supporting flexibilities for developing countries • balance between NAMA and other areas under negotiation. Member countries of NAMA-11 are Argentina, Bolivarian Republic of Venezuela, Brazil, Egypt, India, Indonesia, Namibia, Philippines, South Africa and Tunisia.
162. Consider the following statements:
1. The Baglihar Power Project had been constructed within the parameters of the Indus Water Treaty.
2. The project was completely built by the Union Government with loans from Japan and the World Bank.
Which of the above statements is/ are correct?
(a) 1 only (b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2
Ans. (a)
163. Among the following, which one is not a football club?
(a) Arsenal (b) Aston Villa
(c) Chelsea (d) Monte Carlo
Ans. (d)
164. Among other things, which one of the following was the purpose for which the Deepak Parekh Committee was constituted?
(a) To study the current socio-economic conditions of certain minority communities
(b) To suggest measures for financing the development of infrastructure
(c) To frame a policy on the production of genetically modified organisms.
(d) To suggest measures to reduce the fiscal deficit in the Union Budget.
Ans. (b)
165. Where is the headquarters of Animal Welfare Board of India located?
(a) Ahmedabad (b) Chennai
(c) Hyderabad (d) Kolkata
Ans. (b) In 1990, the subject of Prevention of Cruelty to Animals was transferred to the Ministry of Environment and Forests, where it now resides. It is headquartered at Chennai.
166. The Security Council of UN consists of 5 permanent members, and the remaining 10 members are elected by the General Assembly for a term of
(a) 1 year (b) 2 years
(c) 3 years (d) 5 years
Ans. (b) Five of the 10 nonpermanent members are elected each year by the General Assembly for twoyear terms, and five retire each year. The presidency is held by each member in rotation for a period of one month. Each member has one vote.
167. With reference to the United Nations, consider the following statements:
1. The Economic and Social Council (ECOSOC) of UN consists of 24 member States
2. It is elected by a 2/3rd majority of the General Assembly for a 3 year term.
Which of the above statements is/ are correct?
(a) 1 only (b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2
Ans. (b) ECOSOC was established by the UN Charter (1945) which was amended in 1965 and 1974 to increase the number of members from 18 to 54. ECOSOC membership is based on geographic representation: 14 seats are allocated to Africa, 11 to Asia, 6 to Eastern Europe, 10 to Latin America and the Caribbean, and 13 to western Europe and other areas. Members are elected for three-year terms by the General Assembly. Four of the five permanent members of the Security Council have been continuously reelected because they provide funding for most of ECOSOC’s budget, which is the largest of any UN subsidiary body. Decisions are taken by simple majority vote. The presidency of ECOSOC changes annually.
168. Consider the following statements:
1. The first telegraph line in India was laid between Kolkata (formerly Calcutta) and Diamond Harbour.
2. The first Export Processing Zone in India was set up in Kandla.
Which of the statements given above is/ are correct?
(a) 1 only (b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2
Ans. (c)
169. Consider the following pairs: Large Bank : Country of origin
1. ABN Amro Bank : USA
2. Barclays Bank : UK
3. Kookmin Bank : Japan
Which of the above pairs is/are correctly matched?
(a) 1 only (b) 2 only
(c) 1 and 2 (d) 2 and 3
Ans. (b)
170. Consider the following countries:
1. Brunei Darussalam
2. East Timor
3. Laos
Which of the above is/are member/members of ASEAN?
(a) 1 only (b) 2 and 3 only
(c) 1 and 3 only (d) 1,2 and 3
Ans. (c) The Association of Southeast Asian Nations (ASEAN) is a political and economic organisation of ten Southeast Asian countries. Since its formation on August 8, 1967 by Indonesia, Malaysia, Philippines, Singapore, and Thailand, the organisation’s membership has expanded to include Brunei, Cambodia, Laos, Myanmar (Burma), and Vietnam. Its principal aims include accelerating economic growth, social progress, and sociocultural evolution among its members, alongside the protection of regional stability and the provision of a mechanism for member countries to resolve differences peacefully. • ASEAN grew when Brunei Darussalam became its sixth member on 7 January 1984, barely a week after gaining independence. In 2006, ASEAN was given observer status at the United Nations General Assembly. ASEAN is built on three pillars: the ASEAN Political-Security Community (APSC), the ASEAN Economic Community (AEC), and the ASEAN Socio- Cultural Community (ASCC).
171. Consider the following pairs :
1. Ashok Leyland : Hinduja Group
2. Hindalco : A.V. Birla Group Industries
3. Suzlon Energy : Punj Lloyd Group
Which of the pairs given above is/are correctly matched?
(a) 1 and 2 only (b) 2 only
(c) 1 and 3 only (d) 1, 2 and 3
Ans. (a)
172. Consider the following pairs: Automobile : Manufacturer
1. BMW AG : USA
2. Daimler AG : Sweden
3. Renault S.A : France
4. Volkswagen AG : Germany
Which of the pairs given above is/are correctly matched?
(a) 1, 2 and 3 (b) 3 and 4
(c) 4 only (d) 1, 2 and 4
Ans. (b)
173. Match List I with List II and select the correct answer using the code given below the lists:
List I List II
(Book) : (Author)
A. In Custody : 1. Amratya Sen
B. Sea of Poppies : 2. Amitav Ghosh
C. The Argumentative Indian : 3. Anita Desai
D. Unaccustomed Earth : 4. Jhumpa Lahiri Codes :
A B C D
(a) 4 1 2 3 (b) 4 2 1 3
(c) 3 2 1 4 (d) 3 1 2 4
Ans. (c)
174. Consider the following pairs: Famous place : Country
1. Cannes : France
2. Davos : Denmark
3. Roland Garros : The Netherlands-
Which of the pairs given above is/are correctly matched ?
(a) 1 only (b) 1 and 2 only
(c) 2 and 3 only (d) 1, 2 and 3
Ans. (a)
175. In the context of global economy, which one of the following pairs is not correctly matched?
(a) JP Morgan Chase : Financial Services
(b) Roche Holding AG : Financial Services
(c) WL Ross & Co. : Private Equity Firm
(d) Warburg : Private Equity Firm
Ans. (b)
176. Consider the following pairs: Organisation : Location of Headquarter
A. Asian Development Bank : Tokyo
B. Asia-Pacific Economic Corporation : Singapore
C. Association of South East Nations : Bangkok
Which of the above pair is /are correctly matched?
(a) 1 and 2 (b) 2 only
(c) 2 and 3 (d) 3only
Ans. (b)
177. In order to comply with TRIPS Agreement, India enacted the Geographical Indications of Goods (Registration & ‘ Protection) Act, 1999. The difference/ differences between a “Trade Mark” and a Geographical Indication is/are
1. A Trade Mark is an individual or a company’s right whereas a Geographical Indication is a community’s right.
2. A Trade Mark can be licensed whereas a Geographical Indication cannot be licensed.
3. A Trade Mark is assigned to the manufactured goods whereas the Geographical Indication is assigned to the agricultural goods/products and handicrafts only.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a) 1 only (b) 1 and 2 only
(c) 2 and 3 only (d) 1, 2 and 3
Ans. (b) Trademark: A trademark or trade mark is one of the elements of Intellectual Property Right and is represented by the symbol TM or ® or mark is a distinctive sign or indicator of some kind which is used by an individual, business organization or other legal entity to identify uniquely the source of its products and/or services to consumers, and to distinguish its products or services from those of other entities. • Geographical Indication: Geographical Indications of Goods are defined as that aspect of industrial property which refer to the geographical indication referring to a country or to a place situated therein as being the country or place of origin of that product.
178. In the context of the affairs of which of the following is the phrase “Special Safeguard Mechanisms” mentioned in the news frequently?
(a) United Nations Environment Pro¬gramme
(b) World Trade Organisation
(c) ASEAN-India Free Trade Agree¬ment
(d) G-20 Summits
Ans. (b) WTO’s Special Safeguard Mechanism (SSM) is a protection measure allowed for developing countries to take contingency restrictions against agricultural imports that are causing injuries to domestic farmers.
179. Consider the following countries:
1. Brazil
2. Mexico
3. South Africa According to UNCTAD, which of the above is/are categorized as “Emerging Economies”?
(a) 1 only (b) 1 and 3 only
(c) 2 and 3 only (d) 1, 2 and 3
Ans. (d) The United Nations Conference on Trade and Development (UNCTAD) was established in 1964 as a permanent intergovernmental body. UNCTAD is the principal organ of the United Nations General Assembly dealing with trade, investment, and development issues. An emerging market is a country that has some characteristics of a developed market, but does not meet standards to be a developed market. This includes countries that may become developed markets in the future or were in the past
180. A great deal of Foreign Direct Investment (FDI) to India comes from Mauritius than from many major and mature economies like UK and France. Why
(a) India has preference for certain countries as regards receiving FDI
(b) India has double taxation avoidance agreement with Mauritius
(c) Most citizens of Mauritius have ethnic identity with India and so they feel secure to invest in India
(d) Impending dangers of global climatic change prompt Mauritius to make huge investments in India
Ans. (b)
181. As regards the use of international food safety standards as reference point for the dispute settlements, which one of the following does WTO collaborate with?
(a) Codex Alimentarius Commission
(b) International Federation of Standards Users
(c) International Organization for Standardization
(d) World Standards Cooperation
Ans. (a)
182. Stiglitz Commission established by the President of the United Nations General Assembly was in the international news. The commission was supposed to deal with
(a) The challenges posed by the impending global climate change and prepare a road map
(b) The workings of the global financial systems and to explore ways and means to secure a more sustainable global order
(c) Global terrorism and prepare a global action plan for the mitigation of terrorism
(d) Expansion of the United Nations Security Council in the present global scenario
Ans. (b) In October 2008, the President of the General Assembly of the United Nations, Miguel d’Escoto Brockmann, established the “Commission of Experts of the President of the UN General Assembly on Reforms of the International Monetary and Financial System” chaired by author and Nobel Laureate economist Joseph E. Stiglitz. This commission had the aim of proposing necessary reforms in the world financial system that would prevent another event like the late-2000s financial crisis.
183. Two of the schemes launched by the Government of India for Women’s development are Swadhar and Swayam Siddha. As regards the difference between them, consider the following statements:
1. Swayam Siddha is meant for those in difficult circumstances such as women survivors of natural disasters or terrorism, women prisoners released from jails, mentally challenged -women etc. whereas Swadhar is meant for holistic empowerment of women through Self Help Groups.
2. Swayam Siddha is implemented through Local Self Government bodies or reputed Voluntary Organizations whereas Swadhar is implemented through the ICDS units set up in the states.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a) 1 only (b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2
Ans. (d)
184. An objective of the National Food Security Mission is to increase the production of certain crops through area expansion and productivity enhancement in a sustainable manner in the identified districts of the country. What are those crops
(a) Rice and wheat only
(b) Rice, wheat and pulses only
(c) Rice, wheat, pulses and.oil seeds only
(d) Rice, wheat, pulses, oil seeds and vegetables
Ans. (b) A Centrally Sponsored Scheme, ‘National Food Security Mission’ (NFSM), was launched in October 2007 comprising rice, wheat and pulses to increase the production of rice by 10 million tons, wheat by 8 million tons and pulses by 2 million tons by the end of the Eleventh Plan (2011-12).
185. Consider the following statements:
1. The Commonwealth has no charter, treaty or constitution.
2. All the territories/countries once under the British Empire (jurisdiction/rule/mandate) automatically joined the Commonwealth as its members.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a) 1 only (b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2
Ans. (d)
186. With reference to the United Nations Convention on the Rights of the Child, consider the following:
1. The Right to Development
2. The Right to Expression
3. The Right to Recreation
Which of the above is /are the Rights of the child?
(a) 1 only (b) 1 and 3 only
(c) 2 and 3 only (d) 1, 2 and 3
Ans. (d)
187. Consider the following statements:
1. The Union Government fixes the Statutory Minimum Price of sugarcane for each sugar season.
2. Sugar and sugarcane are essential commodities under the Essential Commodities Act.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
Ans. (c)
188. With reference to the National Investment Fund to which the disinvestment proceeds are routed, consider the following statements:
1. The assets in the National Investment Fund are managed by the Union Ministry of Finance.
2. The National Investment Fund is to be maintained within the Consolidated Fund of India.
3. Certain Asset Management Companies are appointed as the fund managers.
4. A certain proportion of annual income is used for financing select social sectors.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a) 1 and 2 (b) 2 only
(c) 3 and 4 (d) 3 only
Ans. (c) Government had constituted the National Investment Fund (NIF) in November, 2005 into which the proceeds from disinvestment of Central Public Sector Enterprises were to be channelized. The corpus of NIF was to be of a permanent nature and NIF was to be professionally managed to provide sustainable returns to the Government, without depleting the corpus. Selected Public Sector Mutual Funds, namely UTI Asset Management Company Ltd., SBI Funds Management Private Ltd. and LIC Mutual Fund Asset Management Company Ltd. were entrusted with the management of the NIF corpus
189. The “New START” treaty was in the news. What is this treaty?
(a) It is a bilateral strategic nuclear arms reduction treaty between the USA and the Russian federation.
(b) It is a multilateral energy security cooperation treaty among the members of the East Asia summit.
(c) It is a treaty between the Russian federation and the European Union for the energy security cooperation.
(d) It is a multilateral cooperation treaty among the BRICS countries for the promotion of trade.
Ans. (a)
190. The International Development Association, a lending agency, is administered by the
(a) International Bank for Reconstruction and Development
(b) International Fund for Agricultural Development
(c) United Nations Development Pro¬gramme
(d) United Nations Industrial Development Organization
Ans. (a) The International Development Association (IDA) is the part of the World Bank that helps the world’s poorest countries. Overseen by 173 shareholder nations, IDA aims to reduce poverty by providing loans (called “credits”) and grants for programs that boost economic growth, reduce inequalities, and improve people’s living conditions. • IDA complements the World Bank’s original lending arm—the International Bank for Reconstruction and Development (IBRD).
191. With what purpose is the government of India promoting the concept of “Mega food parks”?
1. To provide good infrastructure facilities for the food processing industry.
2. To increase the processing of perishable items and reduce wastage
3. To provide emerging and eco-friendly food processing technologies to entrepreneurs.
Select the correct answer using the codes given below:
(a) 1 only
(b) 1 and 2 only.
(c) 2 and 3 only
(d) 1,2 and 3
Ans. (d)
192. In the context of global oil prices, “Brent crude oil” is frequently referred to in the news. What does this term imply ?
1. It is a major classification of crude oil.
2. It is sourced from North Sea.
3. It does not contain sulphur.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a) 2 only (b) 1 and 2 only
(c) 1 and 3 only (d) 1,2, and 3.
Ans. (b)
193. With reference to look east policy of India, consider the following statements?
1. India wants to establish itself as an important regional player in the East Asian affairs.
2. India wants to plug the vacuum created by the termination of cold war.
3. India wants to restore the historical and cultural ties with its neighbors in southeast and East Asia.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a) 1 only (b) 1 and 3 only
(c) 3 only (d) 1,2 and 3
Ans. (b)
194. Southeast Asia has captivated the attention of global community over space and time as a geostrategically significant region. Which among the following is the most convincing explanation for this global perspective?
(a) It was the hot theatre during the second world war
(b) Its location between the Asian powers of china and India
(c) It was the arena of superpower confrontation during the cold war period
(d) Its location between the pacific and Indian oceans and its pre-eminent maritime character.
Ans. (d) South East Asia region has historically been an area of great geostrategic significance for centuries. South East Asia region derives its geostrategic significance by virtue of its location of sitting astride the waters that connect the Indian Ocean with the Pacific Ocean and the strategic chokepoints of the Malacca Straits, the Lombok Straits and the Sunda Straits. The sealanes traversing the South East region carry 50% of the global trade and 33% of the world’s oil. The economies of the United States and those of US allies like Japan, South Korea, Philippines, Taiwan and Australia heavily depend on stability in South East Asia and more specifically the security of sea-lanes on which depends their trade and commerce and energy security.
195. With reference to National Rural Health Mission, Which of the following are the jobs of ‘ASHA”, trained community health worker?
1. Accompanying women to the health facility for antenatal care checkup
2. Using pregnancy test kits for early detection pregnancy
3. Providing information on nutrition and immunization
4. Conducting the delivery of baby.
Select the correct answer using the codes given below:
(a) 1, 2 and 3 only (b) 2 and 3 only
(c) 1 and 3 only (d) 1, 2, 3 and 4
Ans. (a) One of the key components of the National Rural Health Mission is to provide every village in the country with a trained female community health activist ASHA or Accredited Social Health Activist. Selected from the village itself and accountable to it, the ASHA will be trained to work as an interface between the community and the public health system.
196. Consider the following:
1. Hotels and restaurants
2. Motor Transport undertakings
3. Newspaper Establishments
4. Private Medical Institutions The Employers of which of the above can have the Social Security coverage under Employees State Insurance Scheme?
(a) 1, 2 and 3 only
(b) 4 only
(c) 1, 3 and only 4
(d) 1, 2, 3 and 4
Ans. (d)
197. The Multi-Dimensional Poverty Index developed by Oxford Poverty and Human Development Initiative with UNDP support covers which of the following?
1. Deprivation of education, health, assets and services at household level
2. Purchasing power parity at national level
3. Extent of budget deficit and GDP growth rate at national level
Select the correct answer using the codes given below:
(a) 1 only (b) 2 and 3 only
(c) 1 and 3 only (d) 1,2 and 3
Ans. (a) The Global Multidimensional Poverty Index (MPI) was developed in 2010 by the Oxford Poverty & Human Development Initiative (OPHI) and the United Nations Development Programme and uses different factors to determine poverty beyond income-based lists. The Multidimensional Poverty Index (MPI) identifies multiple deprivations at the household and individual level in health, education and standard of living.
198. How does the National Rural Livelihood Mission seek to improve livelihood options of rural poor?
1. By setting up a large number of new manufacturing industries and agribusiness centres in rural areas.
2. By strengthening ‘self-help groups’ and providing skills development
3. By supplying seeds, fertilizers, diesel pump-sets and micro- irrigation equipment free of cost of farmers.
Select the correct answer using the codes given below:
(a) 1 and 2 only (b) 2 only
(c) 1 and 3 only (d) 1,2 and 3
Ans. (b) Aajeevika – National Rural Livelihoods Mission (NRLM) was launched by the Ministry of Rural Development (MoRD), Government of India in June 2011. Aided in part through investment support by the World Bank, the Mission aims at creating efficient and effective institutional platforms of the rural poor, enabling them to increase household income through sustainable livelihood enhancements and improved access to financial services
199. Which of the following organizations brings out the publication known as ‘World Economic Outlook’?
(a) The International Monetary Fund
(b) The United Nations Development Programme
(c) The World Economic Forum
(d) The World Bank
Ans. (a) The World Economic Outlook (WEO) is a survey conducted and published by the International Monetary Fund. It is published biannually and partly updated two times a year. The World Economic Outlook (WEO) database contains selected macroeconomic data series from the statistical appendix of the World Economic Outlook report, which presents the IMF staff’s analysis and projections of economic developments at the global level, in major country groups and in many individual countries. The WEO is released in April and September/October each year.
200. What is/ are the recent policy initiative(s) of Government of India to promote the growth of manufacturing sector?
1. Setting up of National Investment and Manufacturing Zones
2. Providing the benefit of ‘single window clearance’
3. Establishing the Technology Acquisition and Development Fund.
Select the correct answer using the codes given below:
(a) 1 only (b) 2 and 3 only
(c) 1 and 3 only (d) 1,2 and 3
Ans. (d)
201. Consider the following countries:
1. Denmark
2. Japan
3. Russian Federation
4. United Kingdom
5. United States of America
Which of the above are the members of the ‘Arctic Council ‘?
(a) 1, 2 and 3 (b) 2, 3 and 4
(c) 1, 4 and 5 (d) 1, 3 and 5
Ans. (d)
202. The national motto of India, ‘Satyameva Jayate’ inscribed below the Emblem of India is taken from
(a) Katha Upanishad
(b) Chandogya Upanishad
(c) Aitareya Upanishad
(d) Mundaka Upanishad
Ans. (d) Satyameva Jayate was taken from Mundaka Upanishad or Mundakopanishad. Satyameva Jayate is the National Motto of India and is inscribed at the bottom of the National Emblem of India in Devanagiri script. Satyameva Jayate literally means “Truth Alone Triumphs” • The emblem is an adaptation of the Lion Capital of Ashoka which was erected around 250 BCE at Sarnath, near Varanasi in the north Indian state of Uttar Pradesh. It is inscribed on all currency notes and national documents.
203. Consider the following pairs: National Highway : Cities connected
1. NH 4 : Chennai and Hyderabad
2. NH 6 : Mumbai and Kolkata
3. NH 15 : Ahmedabad and Jodhpur
Which of the above pairs is/are correctly matched?
(a) 1 and 2 only (b) 3 only
(c) 1, 2 and 3 (d) None
Ans. (d) NH4: National Highway 4 (NH 4), otherwise known as the Great Andaman Trunk Road, connects Mayabandar, Port Blair and Chiriyatapu in the Andaman and Nicobar Islands. It covers a distance of 230 km. • NH6: National Highway 6, commonly referred to as NH 6, is a national highway in India running from Jorabat in Meghalaya to Selling in Mizoram. The highway passes through the Indian states of Meghalaya, Assam, and Mizoram. • NH15: National Highway 15 (NH 15) is an Indian National Highway entirely within the state of Punjab, Rajasthan, Gujarat. In Punjab it covers 350 Km, in Rajasthan 906 Km and in Gujarat 270 Km. The highway is maintained by National Highways Authority of India.
204. Consider the following towns of India:
1. Bhadrachalam
2. Chanderi
3. Kancheepuram
4. Karnal
Which of the above are famous for the production of traditional sarees / fabric?
(a) 1 and 2 only (b) 2 and 3 only
(c) 1, 2 and 3 (d) 1, 3 and 4
Ans. (b)
205. Consider the following languages:
1. Guajarati
2. Kannada
3. Telugu
Which of the above has/have been declared as ‘Classical Language / Languages’ by the Government?
(a) 1 and 2 only (b) 3 only
(c) 2 and 3 only (d) 1, 2 and 3
Ans. (c) The Constitution of India does not give any language the status of national language. The Constitution of India designates the official language of the Government of India as Standard Hindi written in the Devanagari script, as well as English. The Eighth Schedule of the Indian Constitution lists 22 languages, which have been referred to as scheduled languages and given recognition, status and official encouragement. Tamil was the first Classical Language of India.
206. With reference to Bombay Natural History Society (BNHS), consider the following statements:
1. It is an autonomous organization under the Ministry of Environment and Forests.
2. It strives to conserve nature through action-based research, education and public awareness.
3. It organizes and conducts nature trails and camps for the general public.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a) 1 and 3 only (b) 2 only
(c) 2 and 3 only (d) 1, 2 and 3
Ans. (c) Bombay Natural History Society (BNHS) is one of India’s biggest Non-Governmental Organizations (NGO) that was founded in 1883.
207. India is a member of which of the following?
1. Asia-Pacific economic corporation.
2. Association of South-East Asian Nations.
3. East Asia Summit
Select the correct answer using the code given below.
(a) 1 and 2 only (b) 3 only
(c) 1, 2, and 3
(d) India is a member of none of them
Ans. (b)
208. Consider the following diseases:
1. Diphtheria
2. Chickenpox
3. Smallpox
Which of the above diseases has/have been eradicated in India?
(a) 1 and 2 only (b) 3 only
(c) 1, 2 and 3 (d) None
Ans. (b)
209. Consider the following countries
1. China 2. France
3. India 4. Israel
5. Pakistan
Which among the above are Nuclear Weapons States as recognized by the Treaty on the Nonproliferation of Nuclear Weapons, commonly known as Nuclear Non-Proliferation Treaty (NPT)?
(a) 1 and 2 only (b) 1, 3, 4 and 5 only
(c) 2, 4 and 5 only (d) 1, 2, 3, 4 and 5
Ans. (a) NPT(nuclear non proliferation treaty) was signed in 1968 to prevent spread of nuclear materials, technology and weapons and to develop co-operation among the nations.
210. In the Mekong-Ganga Cooperation, an initiative of six countries, which of the following is/are not a participant/ participants?
1. Bangladesh 2. Cambodia
3. China 4. Myanmar
5. Thailand
Select the correct answer using the code given below.
(a) 1 only (b) 2, 3 and 4
(c) 1 and 3 (d) 1, 2 and 5
Ans. (c) The Mekong-Ganga Cooperation (MGC) is an initiative by six countries – India and five ASEAN countries, namely, Cambodia, Lao PDR, Myanmar, Thailand and Vietnam for cooperation in tourism, culture, education, as well as transport and communications.
211. Which of the following statements is/are correct regarding National Innovation Foundation-India (NIF)?
1. NIF is an autonomous body of the Department of Science and Technology under the Central Government
2. NIF is an initiative to strengthen the highly advanced scientific research in India’s premier scientific institutions in collaboration with highly advanced foreign scientific institutions.
Select the correct answer using the code given below.
(a) 1 only (b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2
Ans. (a) The National Innovation Foundation (NIF) set up by the Department of Science and Technology (DST), is built on the Honey Bee Network (HBN) philosophy. • NIF has taken major initiatives to serve the knowledge-rich but economically poor people of the country. It was set up in February 2000 at Ahmedabad, Gujarat. • It is committed to making India innovative by documenting, adding value, protecting the intellectual property rights (IPR) of the contemporary unaided technological innovators as well as of outstanding traditional knowledge-holders and disseminating their innovations on commercial and non-commercial basis.
212. With reference to the Indian Renewable Energy Development Agency Limited (IREDA), which of the following statements is/are correct?
1. It is a Public Limited Government Company.
2. It is a Non – Banking Financial Company.
Select the correct answer using the code given below.
(a) 1 only (b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 or 2
Ans. (c) The India Renewable Energy Development Agency Limited (IREDA) is a Public Limited Government Company established in 1987 under the administrative control of the Ministry of New and Renewable Energy (MNRE). • It is a Non-Banking Financial Institution under the administrative control of this Ministry for providing term loans for renewable energy and energy efficiency projects
213. Government of India has established NITI Aayog to replace the
(a) Human Rights Commission
(b) Finance Commission
(c) Law Commission
(d) Planning Commission
Ans. (d) The National Institution for Transforming India, also called NITI Aayog, was formed via a resolution of the Union Cabinet on January 1, 2015. • NITI Aayog is the premier policy ‘Think Tank’ of the Government of India, providing both directional and policy inputs. • While designing strategic and long term policies and programmes for the Government of India, NITI Aayog also provides relevant technical advice to the Centre and States
214. Which one of the following is the national aquatic animal of India?
(a) Saltwater crocodile (b) Olive ridley turtle
(c) Gangetic dolphin (d) Gharial
Ans. (c). • River dolphin is a critically endangered species in India and therefore, has been included in the Schedule I for the Wildlife (Protection) Act, 1972. • The main reasons for decline in population of the species are poaching and habitat degradation due to declining flow, heavy siltation, construction of barrages causing physical barrier for this migratory species.
215. ‘Mission Indradhanush’ launched by the Government of India pertains to
(a) Immunization of children and pregnant women
(b) Construction of smart cities across the country
(c) India’ own search for the Earth-like planets in outer space
(d) New Educational policy
Ans. (a)
216. Which of the following are the key features of ‘National Ganga River Basin Authority (NGRBA)’?
1. River basin is the unit of planning and management.
2. It spearheads the river conservation efforts at the national level.
3. One of the Chief Ministers of the State through which the Ganga flows becomes the Chairman of NGRBA on rotation basis.
Select the correct answer using the code given below.
(a) 1 and 2 only
(b) 2 and 3 only
(c) 1 and 3 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3
Ans. (a)
217. ‘Project Loon’ sometimes seen in the news, is related to–
(a) Waste management technology
(b) Wireless communication technology
(c) Solar power production technology
(d) Water conservation technology
Ans. (b) Google’s balloon-powered high-speed internet service known as “Project Loon” aims to help connect remote regions of the world to the internet and has been trialled in outback Australia and Indonesia
218. With reference to pre-packaged items in India, it is mandatory to the manufacturer to put which of the following information on the main label, as per the Food Safety and Standards (Packaging and Labeling) Regulations, 2011?
1. List of ingredients including additives
2. Nutrition information
3. Recommendations, if any made by the medical profession about the possibility of any allergic reactions
4. Vegetarian/non-vegetarian
Select the correct answer using the code given below
(a) 1, 2 and 3
(b) 2, 3 and 4
(c) 1, 2 and 4
(d) 1 and 4 Only
Ans. (c)
219. Consider the following statements:
The India-Africa Summit
1. Held in 2015 was the third such Summit
2. Was actually initiated by Jawaharlal Nehru in 1951
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a) 1 only (b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2
Ans. (a) The India-Africa Forum Summit (IAFS) is a celebration of the close partnership between Africa and India, started in 2008. • It was decided to hold the summits every three years, alternately in India and Africa. New Delhi was the venue in 2008 and Addis Ababa in 2011. • The third summit, scheduled to be held in 2014, was postponed because of the Ebola outbreak • The third India-Africa Forum Summit held from 26- 29 October 2015, marked a milestone in the millennia old relationship, as it enabled consultation at the highest political level between the Indian government and the representatives of 54 African countries, including heads of state/government from 41 countries and the African Union (AU).
220. With reference to the ‘Trans-Pacific Partnership’, consider the following statements:
1. It is an agreement among all the Pacific Rim countries except China and Russia.
2. It is a strategic alliance for the purpose of maritime security only.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a) 1 only (b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2
Ans. (d) Member countries are also hoping to foster a closer relationship on economic policies and regulation. • The agreement could create a new single market something like that of the EU. • The Trans-Pacific Partnership (TPP) or Trans Pacific Partnership Agreement (TPPA) is a trade agreement among twelve Pacific Rim countries
221. With reference to ‘Financial Stability and Development Council’, consider the following statements:
1. It is an organ of NITI Aayog.
2. It is headed by the Union Finance Minister.
3. It monitors macro prudential super-vision of the economy.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a) 1 and 2 only (b) 3 Only
(c) 2 and 3 only (d) 1, 2 and 3
Ans. (c)
222. With reference to ‘Red Sanders’, sometimes seen in the news, consider the following statements:
1. It is a tree species found in a part of South India.
2. It is one of the most important trees in the tropical rain forest areas of South India.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a) 1 only (b) 2 Only
(c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2
Ans. (a)
223. Which of the following is not a member of ‘Gulf Cooperation Council’?
(a) Iran (b) Saudi Arabia
(c) Oman (d) Kuwait
Ans. (a) Gulf Cooperation Council (GCC), political and economic alliance of six Middle Eastern countries; Saudi Arabia, Kuwait, the United Arab Emirates, Qatar, Bahrain, and Oman. • The GCC was established in Riyadh, Saudia Arabia, in May 1981. The official language is Arabic. • The purpose of the GCC is to achieve unity among its members based on their common objectives and their similar political and cultural identities, which are rooted in Islamic beliefs.
224. Consider the following statements:
1. New Development Bank has been set up by APEC.
2. The headquarters of New Development Bank is in Shanghai.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a) 1 only (b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2
Ans. (b)
225. The term ‘Regional Comprehensive Economic Partnership’ often appears in the news in the context of the affairs of a group of countries known as
(a) G20 (b) ASEAN
(c) SCO (d) SAARC
Ans. (b) ASEAN is currently negotiating the Regional Comprehensive Economic Partnership (RCEP) to broaden and deepen ASEAN’s engagement with its Free Trade Agreement (FTA) partners namely Australia, China, India, Japan, Republic of Korea, and New Zealand. Covering the core areas of negotiation to include trade in goods, trade in services, investment, economic and technical cooperation, intellectual property, competition, dispute settlement and other relevant issues, RCEP is envisaged to be a modern, comprehensive, high-quality and mutually beneficial economic partnership agreement.
226. ‘Belt and road Initiative’ is sometimes mentioned in the news in the context of the affairs of
(a) African Union (b) Brazil
(c) European union (d) China
Ans. (d) The Silk Road Economic Belt and the 21st-century Maritime Silk Road, also known as The Belt and Road (abbreviated B&R), One Belt, One Road (abbreviated OBOR) or the Belt and Road Initiative is a development strategy and framework, proposed by Chinese paramount leader Xi Jinping that focuses on connectivity and cooperation among countries primarily between the People’s Republic of China and the rest of Eurasia, which consists of two main components, the land-based “Silk Road Economic Belt” (SREB) and oceangoing “Maritime Silk Road” (MSR). ia, China-Indochina Peninsula, China-Pakistan, and Bangladesh-China-India-Myanmar.
227. Consider the following statements:
1. The International Solar Alliance was launched at the United Nations Climate Change Conference in 2015.
2. The Alliance includes all the member countries of the United Nations.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a) 1 only (b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2
Ans. (a) The International Solar Alliance is a common platform for cooperation among sun-rich countries lying fully or partially between the Tropics of Cancer and Capricorn who are seeking to massively ramp up solar energy, thereby helping to bend the global greenhouse emissions curve whilst providing clean and cheap energy. • Countries, bilateral and multilateral organisations, companies, industries, and stakeholders aim to reduce the cost of finance and cost of technology for the immediate deployment of competitive solar generation, storage and technologies adapted to countries’ individual needs and to mobilize billions of dollars for solar. • The initiative was launched at the UN Climate Change Conference in Paris on 30 November by Indian Prime Minister Narendera Modi and French President Francois Hollande
228. On which of the following can you find the Bureau of Energy Efficiency Star Label?
1. Ceiling fans
2. Electric geysers
3. Tubular fluorescent lamps
Select the correct answer using the code given below:
(a) 1 and 2 only (b) 3 only
(c) 2 and 3 only (d) 1, 2 and 3
Ans. (d) The energy efficiency labeling programs under BEE are intended to reduce the energy consumption of appliance without diminishing the services it provides to consumers. • The most recent additions to the list of labeled products are variable capacity AC’s and LED lamps.
229. Consider the following statements:
1. The Sustainable Development Goals were first proposed in 1972 by a global think tank called the ‘Club of Rome’.
2. The Sustainable Development Goals have to be achieved by 2030.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a) 1 only (b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2
Ans. (b) At the United Nations Sustainable Development Summit on 25 September 2015, world leaders adopted the 2030 Agenda for Sustainable Development, which includes a set of 17 Sustainable Development Goals (SDGs) to end poverty, fight inequality and injustice, and tackle climate change by 2030. The first report of the Club of Rome was the famous The limits to growth, brought out in 1972 by an MIT research team coordinated by Dennis and Donella Meadows. • The report concluded that to prevent this disaster, a collective commitment would be needed to curb the indiscriminate growth of the economy and achieve global equilibrium but SDG were not actually proposed here.
230. ‘European Stability Mechanism’, sometimes seen in the news, is an
(a) agency created by EU to deal with the impact of millions of refugees arriving from Middle East
(b) agency of EU that provides financial assistance to eurozone countries
(c) agency of EU to deal with all the bilateral and multilateral agreements on trade
(d) agency of EU to deal with the conflict arising among the member countries
Ans. (b)