Q1. Which is the sensory receptor involved in detecting blood pressure?
(a) Chemo receptor
(b) Mechano receptor
(c) Photo receptor
(d) Magneto receptor
Ans: (b) Baroreceptors are sensors located in the blood vessels of all vertebrate animals that sense the blood pressure and relay the information to the brain, so that a proper blood pressure can be maintained. They are a type of mechanoreceptor sensory neuron that is excited by stretch of the blood vessel. Mechanoreceptors are the sensory receptors that respond to any type of primary stimuli of pressure.
Q2. Which one of the following is commonly known as ‘Pond Silk’?
(a) Spirogyra (b) Rhizopus
(c) Yeast (d) Ulothrix
Ans: (a) Pond silk is the common name of Spirogyra (algae) because it is very slimy in shape. It is also known as pond silk, water silk, pond scum or mermaid’s trees because of its bright green silky appearance. Its filaments shine like silk due to the presence of mucilage.
Q3. ‘Gynecomastia’ is
(a) Development of hair on ears in males
(b) Increased height in females
(c) Development of an extra finger in females
(d) Development of breasts in males
Ans: (d) Gynecomastia is swelling of the breast tissue in boys or men, caused by an imbalance of the hormones estrogen and testosterone.The development of gynecomastia is usually associated with benign pubertal change. Disturbances in the endocrine system that lead to an increase in the ratio of estrogens/ androgens are thought to be responsible for the development of gynecomastia.
Q4. The highest concentration of urea is found in
(a) Hepatic portal vein
(b) Dorsal aorta
(c) Hepatic vein
(d) Renal vein
Ans: (c) The liver produces urea and other waste materials and then it pours it all in the right ventricle of the heart for oxygenation. The heart then distributes the blood to various parts of the body. So the impure blood brought by the Hepatic Vein and other blood vessels gets distributed through the aorta. This clearly indicates that hepatic vein carries the largest amount of urea, while the renal vein carries the least.
Q5. Compounds that are needed for enzymes to function properly are
(c) Heavy metals
Ans: (b) Vitamins are organic molecules that function in a wide variety of capacities within the body. The most prominent function of the vitamins is to serve as cofactors (co-enzymes) for enzymatic reactions. If an enzyme lacks the essential vitamin, it cannot perform its catalyst function properly.
Q6. The tree popularly known as ‘Green Gold’, but which is an ecological disaster, is
(d) None of these
Ans: (c) Several trees such as Neem, bamboo, eucalyptus, etc., are known as ‘green gold.’ Eucalyptus is called green gold because of its widespread use in the international wood products and pulp industry. However, the eucalyptus tree has been accused of being an environmental disaster with its thirst for water and propensity towards soil depletion. Besides, it is host to Cryptococcus’s, a fungus that attacks the human nervous system.
Q7. Which one of the following is not an artificial sweetener ?
(a) Fructose (b) Saccharin
(c) Sucralose (d) Aspartame
Ans: (a) Some of the examples of artificial sweeteners include: acesulfame K, aspartame, neotame, saccharin, sucralose, etc. Fructose is a natural simple sugar found in fruits, honey, and vegetables. It is one of the three dietary monosaccharides, along with glucose and galactose.
Q8. Which one of the following substances is normally found in urine?
(a) blood proteins
(c) red blood cells
(d) white blood cells
Ans: (b) Creatinine is a chemical waste molecule that is generated from muscle metabolism. It is transported through the bloodstream to the kidneys. The kidneys filter out most of the creatinine and dispose of it in the urine. High levels of creatinine warn of possible malfunction or failure of the kidneys.
Q9. The thymus gland produces a hormone called
(a) thyroxine (b) thymosin
(c) thyronine (d) calcitonin
Ans: (b) The thymus is a specialized primary lymphoid organ of the immune system. Thymosin hormones are typically produced by the thymus gland and trigger the creation of T-cells, which are used by the immune system to fight disease. The thymus gland is only active until puberty.
Q10. Blood group AB has
(a) No antigen
(b) No antibody
(c) Neither antigen nor antibody
(d) Both antigen and antibody
Ans: (b) Blood group AB individuals have both A and B antigens on the surface of their RBCs, and their blood plasma does not contain any antibodies against either A or B antigen. Therefore, an individual with type AB blood can receive blood from any group (with AB being preferable), but cannot donate blood to any group other than AB. They are known as universal recipients.
Q11. Which Vitamins are those, if taken in excess can be dangerous as they are stored in the body?
(a) B Complex (b) in English and C
(c) B and C (d) A and D
Ans: (d) Vitamins A, D, E, and K are the fat-soluble vitamins. Unlike water-soluble vitamins, these vitamins dissolve in fat and are stored in body tissues. Too much vitamin A, D, or K can lead to increased levels that are unhealthy and can cause health consequences. For example, too much vitamin A can lead to birth defects.
Q12. Intensive cultivation refers to
(a) production with intensive use of labour
(b) production with intensive use of fertilizer
(c) raising production by intensive use of existing land
(d) raising production by large scale use of imported inputs
Ans: (c) Intensive farming is an agricultural intensification and mechanization system that aims to maximize yields from available land through various means, such as heavy use of pesticides and chemical fertilizers. It is characterized by a low fallow ratio, higher use of inputs such as capital and labour, and higher crop yields per unit land area.
Q13. A universal recipient has the blood group
(a) B (b) AB
(c) A (d) O
Ans: (b) Individuals with type O blood are often called universal donors, and those with type AB blood are called universal recipients. Blood group Oindividuals do not have either A or B antigens on the surface of their RBCs, and their blood serum contains IGM anti-A and anti-B antibodies. Therefore, a group O individual can receive blood only from a group O individual, but can donate blood to individuals of any ABO blood group (i.e., A, B, O or AB).
Q14. Symbiotic Bacteria responsible for the fixation of atmospheric nitrogen are present in
(a) peas (b) wheat
(c) corn (d) oats
Ans: (a) Nitrogen-fixing bacteria are microorganisms capable of transforming atmospheric nitrogen into fixed nitrogen. Rhizobium is one such bacteria that is associated with leguminous plants (e.g., various members of the pea family). It invades the root hairs of host plants and convert free nitrogen to ammonia, which the host plant utilizes for its development.
Q15. Children especially in western countries who receive very little sunshine suffer from
(a) rickets (b) dermatitis
(c) scurvy (d) kwashiorkor
Ans: (a) Children who receive very little sunshine (source of vitamin D) suffer from rickets, a skeletal disorder that results from a lack of vitamin D. Rickets is most common in children who are between 6 and 36 months old. Rickets has mostly disappeared in developed countries due to the introduction of fortified foods, such as cereals with added vitamin D.
Q16. In water treatment plant, use of chloramines ensures _____
(a) taste and odour control
(b) weed control in reservoirs
(d) removal of permanent hardness
Ans: (c) Chloramines are a group of chemical compounds that contain chlorine and ammonia. It is used as a disinfectant for water. The particular type of chloramine used in drinking water disinfection is called monochloramine. Chloramine is chiefly a secondary disinfectant that are added to water that has already been disinfected with a primary disinfectant, often chlorine.
Q17. A universal donor has the blood group
(a) B (b) AB
(c) A (d) O
Ans: (d) Individuals with type O blood are often called universal donors. They can receive blood only from a group O individual, but can donate blood to individuals of any ABO blood group (i.e., A, B, O or AB).
Q18. The enzyme which catalyzes the unwinding of DNA helix during replication is:
Ans: (c) A type of helicase enzyme called DNA helicase catalyzes the unwinding of the DNA helix at the time of replication. It uses the energy released through hydrolysis of ATP (Adenosine triphosphate) to break the hydrogen bonds between the two strands. The enzyme is needed to separate the two strands of DNA also during transcription and DNA repair.
Q19. The cause of Heart attack is:
(a) bacteria (b) virus
(c) lack of blood supply to the heart
(d) impairment of heart’s working due to unknown reason
Ans: (c) Heart attack is the death of a segment of heart muscle caused by the loss of blood supply. It occurs when the blood flow that brings oxygen to the heart muscle is severely reduced or cut off completely. The blood supply is usually lost because a coronary artery, one that supplies blood to the heart muscle, is blocked by a blood clot (coronary thrombosis).
Q20. What are Lipids?
(a) Lipids are monosaccharides
(b) Lipids do not provide energy to cells
(c) Fruits are a good source of lipids
(d) Cholesterol and trans fatty acids are types of Lipids
Ans: (d) Lipids are a group of naturally occurring molecules that include fats, waxes, sterols, fat-soluble vitamins (such as vitamins A, D, E, and K), monoglycerides, diglycerides, triglycerides, phospholipids, and others. They encompass molecules such as fatty acids and their derivatives (including tri-, di-, monoglycerides, and phospholipids), as well as other sterolcontaining metabolites such as cholesterol.
Q21. Which of the following is known as animal starch?
(a) glycogen (b) cellulose
(c) glucose (d) chitin
Ans: (a) Glycogen, the principal storage form of glucose in animal cells, sometimes called “animal starch” for its resemblance with starch found in plants. It t is stored in liver and muscle cells and can be converted to glucose if needed. In the liver this conversion is regulated by the hormone glucagon.
Q22. Which one of the followings is/ are correct definition of Habitat?
(a) A complex of several types of communities
(b) Natural environment of a living organism
(c) The place where one would go find the particular living organism.
(d) Natural environment of a living organism and the place where one would go find the particular living organism.
Ans: (d) Habitat is generally defined as the natural environment of an organism, the place in which it is natural for it to live and grow. It is the natural environment in which an organism lives, or the physical environment that surrounds a species population. It is similar in meaning to ‘biotope’, an area of uniform environmental conditions associated with a particular community of plants and animals.
Q23. The ‘Red Data Book’ is the documentation of endangered rare species of:
(a) Flora (b) Fauna
(c) Other living organisms
(d) All of these are correct
Ans: (d) A Red Data Book contains lists of species whose continued existence is threatened. Species are classified into different categories of perceived risk. It documents rare and endangered species of animals, plants and fungi, as well as other living organisms in an area, region or country.
Q24. The parts of human body affected by Pyria are:
(b) small intestine
(c) teeth and gums
(d) large intestine
Ans: (c) Pyria, or periodontal disease, is a progressive gum disease characterized by inflammation resulting from the toxins found in plaque. It leads to bleeding of the gums. If allowed to progress, Pyria begins to destroy underlying tissue, which may eventually lead to tooth loss or infection in other areas of the body as the bacteria travels by bloodstream.
Q25. A prokaryotic cell does not have which of the following?
(b) Cell membrane
(c) Nucleus (d) DNA
Ans: (c) Prokaryotic cells do not contain a nucleus or any other membrane-bound organelle. The word “prokaryotic” means “before nucleus.” Prokaryotes include two groups: bacteria and another group called archaea. In contrast, eukaryotic cells have a “true” nucleus containing their DNA.
Q1. Which is the sensory receptor involved in detecting blood pressure?