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074 Indian Polity & Constitution Previous Year Questions

Indian Polity & Constitution Previous Year Questions

Q1. The Preamble to the Indian Constitution is:
(a) Not a part of the Constitution.
(
b) A part of the Constitution but it neither confers any powers nor imposes any duties nor can it be of any use in interpreting other provisions of the Constitution.
(
c) A part of the Constitution and can be of use in interpreting other provisions of the Constitution in cases of ambiguity.
(
d) A part of the Constitution and it confers powers and imposes duties as any other provisions of the Constitution.
Ans: (c)

Q2. Which of the following duties have been prescribed by the Indian Constitution as Fundamental Duties?
1. To defend the country
2. To pay income tax
3. To preserve the rich heritage of our composite culture
4. To safeguard public property
Select the correct answer using the codes given below:
(a) 1 and 2
(
b) 2 and 4
(
c) 1, 2 and 4
(
d) 1, 3 and 4
Ans: (d)

Q3. The Executive power of the Union Government is vested in the President of India. The President shall exercise these powers:
(a) Himself
(
b) Directly or through officers subordinate to him if he so desires
(
c) Either directly or through officers subordinate to him in accordance with the provisions of the Constitution
(
d) Only on the advice of Prime Minister
Ans: (c)

Q4. The quorum requirement in the Rajya Sabha is:
(a) 25
(
b) 50
(
c) 100
(
d) 126
Ans: (a)

Q5. Assertion (A) :Reservation of a State Bill for the assent of the President is a discretionary power of the Governor.
Reason (R) :The President of India can disallow a Bill passed by a State Legislature or return it for reconsideration.
Codes:
(a) Both A and R are individually true and R is the correct explanation of A
(
b) Both A and R are individually true but R is not the correct explanation of A
(
c) A is true but R is false
(
d) A is false but R is true
Ans: (b)

Q6. Which of the following statements regarding the Seventy-Fourth Amendment to the Constitution of India are correct?
1. It provides for the insertion of a new Schedule to the Constitution.
2. It restructures the working of the municipalities.
3. It provides for the reservation of seats for women and Scheduled Castes in the municipalities.
4. It is applicable only to some specified states.
Select the correct answer using the codes given below:
(a) 1, 2 and 3
(
b) 1,2 and 4
(
c) 1, 3 and 4
(
d) 1, 2, 3 and 4
Ans: (a)

Q7. Consider the following statements:
1. The National Commission for STs presents an annual report to the Parliament.
2. The central government and state governments are required to consult the National Commission for STs on all major policy matters affecting the STs.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a) Only 1
(
b) Only 2
(
c) Both 1 and 2
(
d) Neither 1 nor 2
Ans: (b)

Q8. Consider the following statements:
1. The Constitution (42nd Amendment) Act, 1976, provides the right of the government servant to make a representation against the penalty proposed to be imposed on him.
2. The right of the Government of India to dismiss a government servant at its pleasure cannot be fettered by any contract.
Which of the statements given above is / are correct?
(a) Only 1
(
b) Only 2
(
c) Both 1 and 2
(
d) Neither 1 nor 2
Ans: (d)

Q9. Which of the following statements with respect to the Sixth Schedule to the Constitution (Amendment) Act, 2003 are correct?
1. It specified the Bodoland Territorial Areas District in the list of the tribal areas of the State of Assam.
2. It created an autonomous self-governing body known as the Bodoland Territorial Council (BTC) within the state of Assam.
3. It provided for adequate safeguards for the non-tribals in the BTC area.
Select the correct answer using the codes given below:
(a) 1 and 2
(
b) 2 and 3
(
c) 1 and 3
(
d) 1, 2 and 3
Ans: (d)

Q10. Consider the following statements:
1. The Constitution of India classifies the members of the Council of Ministers at the Centre into different ranks.
2. A member of one House of the Parliament who has been chosen as a Union Minister does not have the right to vote in the House of which he is not a member.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a) Only 1
(
b) Only 2
(
c) Both 1 and 2
(
d) Neither 1 nor 2
Ans: (b)

Q11. Which Article of the Constitution of India deals with the rights of citizenship of certain persons of Indian origin residing outside India?
(a) Article 7
(
b) Article 10
(
c) Article 8
(
d) Article 9
Ans: (c)

Q12. An amendment of the Constitution of India for the purpose of creating a new state must be passed by:
(a) Simple majority in Parliament
(
b) A simple majority in Parliament and ratification by not less than half of the states
(
c) Two-thirds majority in Parliament and ratification by not less than two-third of the states
(
d) Two-third of the members of both houses of Parliament present and voting
Ans: (a)

Q13. The President of India is elected by the ‘Electoral College’ consisting of
(a) All Members of Parliament.
(
b) Elected Members of Parliament and State Legislative Assemblies.
(
c) Members of Parliament, State Legislative Assemblies and Legislative Councils.
(
d) All the Members of Parliament and State Legislative Assemblies.
Ans: (b)

Q14. What is meant by ‘Zero Hour’?
(a) Exact time when the question hour ends
(
b) Time between question hour and next item on the agenda
(
c) Time allotted for informal discussion between two stages of discussion on a bill
(
d) Specific time allotted for a discussion on budget
Ans: (b)

Q15. Assertion (A) :Collective responsibility of the Cabinet signifies unity and coordination among members of the State Council of Ministers.
Reason (R) :It is the prerogative of the Chief Minister to select or drop a member of the Cabinet.
Codes:
(a) Both A and R are individually true and R is the correct explanation of A
(
b) Both A and R are individually true but R is not the correct explanation of A
(
c) A is true but R is false
(
d) A is false but R is true
Ans: (b)

Q16. An election to constitute a municipality has to be completed:
(a) Immediately on completion of its term of five years
(
b) Before the expiry of its fixed tenure
(
c) Before the expiry of a period of six months from the date of its dissolution
(
d) Before the expiry of a period of three months from the date of its dissolution
Ans: (b)

Q17. Which of the following fall within the duties of the Comptroller and Auditor-General of India?
1. To audit and report on the receipts and expenditure of all bodies and authorities substantially financed from the Union or State revenues.
2. To audit the receipts and expenditure of each State to satisfy himself that the rules and procedures in that behalf are designed to secure an effective check on the assessment, collection and proper allocation of revenue.
Select the correct answer using the codes given below:
(a) Only 1
(
b) Only 2
(
c) Both 1 and 2
(
d) Neither 1 nor 2
Ans: (c)

Q18. Consider the following statements:
1. The translation of the constitution and its every amendment published shall be construed to have the same meaning as the original text in English.
2. The translation of the constitution and its every amendment published shall be deemed to be, for all purposes, its authoritative text in Hindi.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a) Only 1
(
b) Only 2
(
c) Both 1 and 2
(
d) Neither 1 nor 2
Ans: (c)

Q19. Which of the following statements is/are correct in relation to the legislative procedure regarding bills in the Parliament?
1. A bill pending in the Parliament shall not lapse by reason of prorogation of the Houses.
2. A bill pending in the Council of States, which has not been passed by the House of the People, shall not lapse on dissolution of the House of the People.
3. A bill which is pending in the House of the People, or which having been passed by the House of the People is pending in the Council of States, shall, subject to the provisions of Article 108 (joint sitting of both Houses) , lapse on dissolution of the House of the People.
Select the correct answer using the codes given below:
(a) 1 and 2
(
b) Only 1
(
c) 2 and 3
(
d) 1, 2 and 3
Ans: (d)

Q20. Which one of the following statements is correct?
Emergency is proclaimed by the President under Article 352 of the Constitution of India when:
(a) He is of the opinion that security of India is under threat
(
b) The Prime Minister advises him to issue such a proclamation
(
c) Parliament passes a resolution
(
d) Written decision of the cabinet is communicated to him
Ans: (d)

Q21. Consider the following statements:
The ‘State’ under Article 12 of the Indian Constitution includes:
1. The Government and Parliament of India.
2. The Government and legislature of the states.
3. Local authorities or other authorities within the territories of India or under the control of Government of India.
Which of the statements given above are correct?
(a) 1, 2 and 3
(
b) 1 and 2
(
c) 2 and 3
(
d) 1 and 3
Ans: (a)

Q22. Consider the following features:
1. Presence of a nominal or titular head of state.
2. Collective responsibility of cabinet
3. Accountability of executive to the legislature
4. Separation of Powers Which of these are the features of a parliamentary form of Government?
(a) 2, 3 and 4
(
b) 1, 2 and 4
(
c) 1, 3 and 4
(
d) 1, 2 and 3
Ans: (d)

Q23. Consider the following statements:
1. When the Vice-President of India acts as the President of India, he performs simultaneously the functions of the Chairman of the Rajya Sabha.
2. The President of India can promulgate Ordinances at any time except when both the Houses of Parliament are in session.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a) 1 only
(
b) 2 only
(
c) Both 1 and 2
(
d) Neither 1 nor 2
Ans: (b)

Q24. Which among the following are the merits of the Parliamentary Departmental Standing Committees constituted to scrutinize the budget proposals?
1. Legislative control is now more legal because the committees are established by law
2. Experts and specialists have been nominated to help the members of the Parliament
3. Legislative control is now much more close, continuous and in-depth
4. The Rajya Sabha and the opposition parties can play a greater role in exercising financial control Select the correct answer from the codes given below:
(a) 1 and 2
(
b) 2 and 3
(
c) 3 and 4
(
d) 1 and 4
Ans: (c)

Q25. Consider the following statements:
1. The maximum number of Judges in a High Court are specified in the Constitution of India.
2. Every High Court has a power of superintendence over all courts and tribunals (except military tribunals) provided they are subject to appellate jurisdiction of the High Court.
Which of the statements given above is / are correct?
(a) Only 1
(
b) Only 2
(
c) Both 1 and 2
(
d) Neither 1 nor 2
Ans: (d)

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