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073 Indian Polity & Constitution Previous Year Questions

Indian Polity & Constitution Previous Year Questions

Q1. The chairperson of a State Human Rights Commission can be removed by the:
(a) Governor of the State
(
b) President of India
(
c) Parliament of India
(
d) State Legislature
Ans: (b)

Q2. The National Foundation for Communal Harmony is under the administrative control of:
(a) Minority Affairs Ministry
(
b) Home Affairs Ministry
(
c) Cabinet Secretariat
(
d) Prime Minister’s Office
Ans: (b)

Q3. Which of the statements given below is/are correct?
1. The Speaker immediately vacates his office whenever the State Legislative Assembly is dissolved.
2. No Member of a State Legislative Assembly shall be liable to any proceedings in any court in respect of anything said or any vote given by him in the legislature.
Select the correct answer using the codes given below:
(a) Only 1
(
b) Only 2
(
c) Both 1 and 2
(
d) Neither 1 nor 2
Ans: (b)

Q4. Consider the following statements:
1. Whether the expenditure is charged on the Consolidated Fund of India or it is an amount voted by the Lok Sabha, no money can be issued out of the Consolidated Fund of India unless the expenditure is authorized by an Appropriation Act.
2. The Rajya Sabha has no power of amending or rejecting the Appropriation Bill or the Annual Finance Bill.
3. The Rajya Sabha has no further business with the Annual Financial Statement beyond the general discussion.
Which of the statements given above are correct?
(a) 1, 2 and 3
(
b) Only 1 and 2
(
c) Only 2 and 3
(
d) Only 1 and 3
Ans: (a)

Q5. The Article of the Constitution which automatically becomes suspended on proclamation of emergency is :
(a) Article 14
(
b) Article 19
(
c) Article 21
(
d) Article 32
Ans: (b)

Q6. Consider the following pairs:
– 1. Taxes levied by the Union but collected :
Stamp duties and appropriated by the States – 2. Taxes levied and collected by the Centre but assigned to the States :
Taxes on the sale of goods in the course of inter-state trade Which of the pairs given above is/are correctly matched?
(a) Only 1
(
b) Only 2
(
c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2
Ans: (c)

Q7. Consider the following statements:
1. The Chairman of the Council of States or Speaker of the House of the People, or person acting as such, shall not vote at any sitting of either House of Parliament or joint sitting of the House in the first instance, but shall have and exercise a casting vote in the case of an equality of votes.
2. A person is qualified to fill a seat in the Council of States or House of the People if he is not less than twenty-five years of age.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a) Only 1
(
b) Only 2
(
c) Both 1 and 2
(
d) Neither 1 nor 2
Ans: (a)

Q8. Consider the following statements:
1. Parliament can extend, but cannot curtail the jurisdiction and power of the Supreme Court.
2. No discussion can take place in Parliament with respect to the conduct of any judge of the Supreme Court in the discharge of his duties.
3. A retired judge of the Supreme Court cannot appear or plead in any court or before any authority within the territory of India.
4. The salaries and allowances of the judges of the Supreme Court are charged on the Consolidated Fund of India.
Which of these statements are correct?
(a) 1, 2, 3 and 4
(
b) 1 and 2
(
c) 1 and 3
(
d) 2 and 4
Ans: (a)

Q9. The State Election Commissioner can be removed:
(a) By the Governor of the State
(
b) By the State Assembly
(
c) Through an order issued by the Chief Minister
(
d) Through a procedure similar to that for removal of the judge of a High Court
Ans: (d)

Q10. According to which one of the following Articles of the Constitution of India, is the Government bound to seek the advice of the UPSC?
(a) Article 120
(
b) Article 220
(
c) Article 320
(
d) Article 420
Ans: (c)

Q11. Which one of the following is the main function of the Central Vigilance Commission?
(a) To keep a watch on the investigation agencies in the country
(
b) To expedite the disposal of criminal cases pending in the courts
(
c) To scrutinise the utilisation of developmental funds sanctioned by the Government
(
d) To inquire or cause an inquiry of alleged offence of a public servant
Ans: (d)

Q12. Which Article of the Constitution of India directs the State to make effective provision for securing the Right to work?
(a) Article 16
(
b) Article 38
(
c) Article 41
(
d) Article 43
Ans: (c)

Q13. Which of the following statements as per the Constitution of India is/are correct?
1. The State shall endeavour to provide early childhood care and education for all children until they complete the age of 6 years.
2. It is a fundamental duty of every citizen who is the parent or guardian to provide opportunities for education to his child or, as the case may be, ward between the age of 6 and 14 years.
3. The State shall provide free and compulsory education to all children of the age of 6 to 14 years.
Select the correct answer using the codes given below:
(a) 1 and 2
(
b) 2 and 3
(
c) Only 1
(
d) 1, 2 and 3
Ans: (d)

Q14. Which one of the following statements relating to the power of Judicial Review is correct?
(a) Supreme Court can take up matters for judicial review on its own
(
b) Supreme Court can be directly approached for judicial review of legislative decisions
(
c) Supreme Court can review its own judgements in the light of new developments
(
d) Supreme Court can ask Lower Courts to submit a case for its judicial review
Ans: (b)

Q15. What was the procedure followed for adoption of the Constitution of India?
(a) It was submitted to the people of India for ratification.
(
b) It was submitted to the Governor-General for his assent.
(
c) It was adopted when the interim government approved it.
(
d) It was adopted when it received the signature of the President and Members of the Constituent Assembly.
Ans: (d)

Q16. With respect to the Directive Principles of State Policy, which one of the following pairs is not correctly matched?
(a) To secure just and humane conditions of work and maternity relief : Article 42
(
b) To organise village Panchayats as units of self government : Article 40
(
c) To secure the improvement of public health and the prohibition : Article 47 of intoxicating drinks and of drugs which are injurious to health
(
d) To protect all monuments of historic interest and national importance : Article 50
Ans: (d)

Q17. Consider the following statements:
If the financial emergency has been declared by the President under the Article 360, then its proclamation:
1. May be revoked or varied by a subsequent proclamation
2. Shall cease to operate at the expiration of two months, unless before the expiration of that period it has been approved by the resolution of both Houses of Parliament Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a) Only 1
(
b) Only 2
(
c) Both 1 and 2
(
d) Neither 1 nor 2
Ans: (c)

Q18. Which one of the following powers of the Rajya Sabha is provided in the Constitution of India?
(a) To reject or amend a money bill
(
b) To decide whether a bill is a money bill
(
c) To vote for public expenditure
(
d) To delay a money bill for a period not exceeding fourteen days.
Ans: (d)

Q19. Consider the following statements:
1. The Parliament by law may appoint the Governor of a state as the Administrator of an adjoining Union territory.
2. If a Governor of a State is appointed to act as an Administrator of an adjoining Union territory, he shall exercise his functions as such Administrator independently of his Council of Ministers.
Which of the statements given above is / are correct?
(a) 1 only
(
b) 2 only
(
c) Both 1 and 2
(
d) Neither 1 nor 2
Ans: (b)

Q20. Which of the following are within the mandate of the 73rd Amendment to the Constitution of India?
1. Disqualification provision for Panchayat membership
2. Setting up of a State Finance Commission
3. Empowering the State Election Commission to hold periodic local government elections
4. Constitution of a District Planning Committee
Select the correct answer using the codes given below:
(a) 1, 2 and 4
(
b) 2 and 3
(
c) 1 and 3
(
d) 1, 2 and 3
Ans: (d)

Q21. Assertion (A) :The qualifications which shall be requisite for appointment as the members of the Finance Commission are distinctly stated in the Constitution of India.
Reason (R) :Finance Commission is constituted under Article 280 of the Constitution of India.
Codes:
(a) Both A and R are individually true and R is the correct explanation of A
(
b) Both A and R are individually true but R is not the correct explanation of A
(
c) A is true but R is false
(
d) A is false but R is true
Ans: (d)

Q22. Consider the following statements:
1. The Parliament may make provisions for the incorporation and regulation of co-operative societies.
2. The maximum number of directors of a co-operative society shall not exceed twenty-five.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a) Only 1
(
b) Only 2
(
c) Both 1 and 2
(
d) Neither 1 nor 2
Ans: (d)

Q23. Which of the following are contained in the form of oath of the President of India?
1. To faithfully execute the office
2. To preserve, protect and defend the Constitution and the law
3. To devote himself to the service and well-being of the people of India
4. To uphold the sovereignty and integrity of India
Select the correct answer using the codes given below:
(a) 2, 3 and 4
(
b) 1, 2 and 3
(
c) 1, 2 and 4
(
d) 1, 2, 3 and 4
Ans: (b)

Q24. With reference to the Constitution of India, which one of the following pairs is not correctly matched?
(a) Stock Exchanges : The State List
(
b) Forests : The Concurrent List
(
c) Insurance : The Union List
(
d) Marriage and Divorce : The Concurrent List
Ans: (a)

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