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072 Indian Polity & Constitution Previous Year Questions

Indian Polity & Constitution Previous Year Questions

Q1. A Constitutional amendment shall also be ratified by legislatures of not less than one-half of the States by a resolution if it is meant to make any change in:
(a) Fundamental Rights
(
b) Directive Principles
(
c) Fundamental Duties
(
d) High Court Provisions
Ans: (d)

Q2. Which one of the following statements about the executive powers of the President is incorrect?
(a) All important appointments are made by the President on the advice of the Council of Ministers.
(
b) The Prime Minister and all Union Ministers are appointed by the President.
(
c) The President has the absolute power to appoint and remove the chairmen and the members of statutory bodies at his discretion.
(
d) The President is the supreme commander of the Armed Forces.
Ans: (c)

Q3. Match List I with List II and select the correct answer by using the codes given below:
List-I List-II
(Grants) (Meanings)
A. Vote on account – 1. Lumpsum money granted without detailed estimates
B. Vote on credit – 2. Additional expenditure not covered in the approved budget
C. Supplementary demand for grants – 3. Amount spent in excess of the grants
D. Excess demand for grants – 4. Grants in advance pending budgetary approval
Codes:

A B C D
(a) 1 4 3 2
(
b) 1 4 2 3
(
c) 4 1 2 3
(
d) 4 1 3 2
Ans: (c)

Q4. Which of the Articles of the Constitution of India are relevant to analyse the constitutional provisions that deal with the relationship of the Governor with the State Council of Ministers?
(a) Articles 161, 165 and 166
(
b) Articles 163, 164 and 167
(
c) Articles 162, 163 and 168
(
d) Articles 164, 165 and 169
Ans: (b)

Q5. Match List I with List II and select the correct answer using the codes given below:
List-II List-I
(Institution) (Functionary)
A. Sarpanch – 1. Municipal Corporation
B. Chairman – 2. Village Panchayat
C. Mayor – 3. Municipality
D. Counsellor – 4. Cantonment Board
– 5. Ward
Codes:

A B C D
(a) 3 4 1 5
(
b) 4 3 2 1
(
c) 2 3 1 5
(
d) 2 5 4 3
Ans: (c)

Q6. The provisions of the Act relating to the duties of the Comptroller and Auditor-General of India are to audit and report on all the expenditure from which of the following?
1. Consolidated Fund of India
2. Consolidated Fund of each State
3. Contingency Fund of India
4. Public Account of India
Select the correct answer using the codes given below:
(a) 1, 2, 3 and 4
(
b) 1, 2 and 3, only
(
c) 2, 3 and 4, only
(
d) 1, 3 and 4, only
Ans: (a)

Q7. Which of the following Constitutional Amendment Acts made a provision with respect to an authoritative text of the Constitution of India in the Hindi language?
(a) 56th Amendment Act
(
b) 58th Amendment Act
(
c) 54th Amendment Act
(
d) 55th Amendment Act
Ans: (b)

Q8. The Parliament does not have exclusive power to make any law with respect to which one of the following subjects?
(a) Shipping and navigation
(
b) Stock exchanges
(
c) Trade and commerce in foodstuffs
(
d) Insurance
Ans: (c)

Q9. Which one of the following does not fall within the scope of the Committee on Public Undertakings?
(a) Examination of the reports and accounts of such public undertakings as have been specifically allotted to the committee
(
b) Matters of major government policy as distinct from business or commercial functions of the public undertakings
(
c) Examination of the reports of the Comptroller and Auditor General
(
d) Examination of the autonomy and efficiency of the public undertakings
Ans: (b)

Q10. Which of the following is not included in Article 19 of the Constitution of India, pertaining to the Right to Freedom?
(a) Right to reside and settle in any part of the territory of India
(
b) Right of minorities to establish and administer educational institutions
(
c) Right to form associations or unions
(
d) Right to assemble peaceably and without arms
Ans: (b)

Q11. Assertion (A) :Parliamentary system of government is based on the principle of collective responsibility.
Reason (R) :A parliamentary defeat is not necessarily a sufficient cause for resignation of the Ministry.
Codes:
(a) Both A and R are individually true and R is the correct explanation of A
(
b) Both A and R are individually true but R is not the correct explanation of A
(
c) A is true but R is false
(
d) A is false but R is true
Ans: (c)

Q12. Consider the following statements:
The President of India has the power to address both the Houses of Parliament at the commencement of:
1. The first session after the general elections
2. Each session
3. The first session of each year
4. The budget session of each year Which of these are correct?
(a) 2 and 3
(
b) 1 and 4
(
c) 1 and 3
(
d) 2 and 4
Ans: (c)

Q13. Consider the following statements:
1. The Parliamentary Committee on Empowerment of Women was constituted in 1997.
2. The Parliamentary Committee on Empowerment of Women consists of 20 members of the Lok Sabha and 10 members of the Rajya Sabha.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a) Only 1
(
b) Only 2
(
c) Both 1 and 2
(
d) Neither 1 nor 2
Ans: (c)

Q14. Which one of the following is not correct with respect to the powers of the Governor regarding a Bill passed by the State Legislature?
(a) He may give his assent to the Bill
(
b) He may withhold the Bill
(
c) He may reserve the Bill for the consideration of the President
(
d) He shall have no alternative but to give his assent to the Bill
Ans: (d)

Q15. Consider the following statements:
1. The Constitution (74th Amendment) Act introduced a new part IX-A in the Constitution of India.
2. The provisions of the Constitution (74th Amendment) Act also apply to the Scheduled Areas and Tribal Areas.
3. The Constitution (74th Amendment) Act specifies the manner and procedure of election of the Chairperson of a Municipal Corporation.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a) 1 only
(
b) 3 only
(
c) l and 2
(
d) 1, 2 and 3
Ans: (a)

Q16. Which one of the following is not a function of the Planning Commission?
(a) Formulation of a plan
(
b) Execution of development plans
(
c) Appraisal of plan progress
(
d) Making recommendations on policy and administration
Ans: (b)

Q17. Indrajit Gupta Committee is related to:
(a) Registration of political parties
(
b) Criminalisation of politics
(
c) State funding of elections
(
d) Anti-defection law
Ans: (c)

Q18. Consider the following statements:
1. The Committee on Public Accounts examines the report of the Comptroller and Auditor-General of India before it is presented before each House of Parliament.
2. The President of India causes the reports of the Comptroller and Auditor-General of India to be laid before each House of Parliament.
3. After the Annual Financial Statement is presented before the Lok Sabha, the Committee on Public Accounts examines the estimates.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a) 1, 2 and 3
(
b) 1 and 3
(
c) Only 1
(
d) Only 2
Ans: (d)

Q19. Consider the following statements:
1. The Council of Ministers of a State in India is collectively as well as individually responsible to the Legislative Assembly of the State.
2. The Governor of a State has the power to appoint the Members of the State Public Service Commission as well as the State High Court Judges.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a) Only 1
(
b) Only 2
(
c) Both 1 and 2
(
d) Neither 1 nor 2
Ans: (d)

Q20. Which of the following Fundamental Rights cannot be suspended during emergency?
(a) Freedoms under Article 19
(
b) Right to constitutional remedies under Articles 32 and 226
(
c) Rights under Articles 21 and 22
(
d) Rights under Articles 20 and 21
Ans: (d)

Q21. What is the implication of the Union Government giving ‘Special Status’ to a State?
(a) Subsequently large percentage of the Central assistance will be grants-in-aid
(
b) Current account budgetary deficit will be bridged by the Union Government
(
c) The extent of loan as a percentage of total assistance will be high
(
d) The Union Government meets entire expenditure of the State during the period of ‘Special Status’
Ans: (a)

Q22. Which of the following are not mentioned in the Constitution of India?
1. Council of Ministers
2. Collective Responsibility
3. Resignation of Ministers
4. Office of the Deputy Prime Minister Select the correct answer from the codes given below:
(a) 1 and 2
(
b) 2 and 3
(
c) 3 and 4
(
d) 1 and 3
Ans: (c)

Q23. Consider the following statements:
1. The Public Accounts Committee consists of 10 members from Lok Sabha and 5 members from Rajya Sabha.
2. The Public Accounts Committee examines both the Appropriation and Finance Reports submitted by the Comptroller and Auditor-General of India.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a) Only 1
(
b) Only 2
(
c) Both 1 and 2
(
d) Neither 1 nor 2
Ans: (b)

Q24. Originally, the head of the state in Jammu & Kashmir was designated as:
(a) Sadar-i-Azam
(
b) Sadar-i-Riyasat
(
c) Wazir-i-Riyasat
(
d) Wazir-i-Azam
Ans: (b)

Q25. The Chief Election Commissioner of India holds office for a period of
(a) Six years
(
b) During the pleasure of the President
(
c) For six years or till the age of 65 years, whichever is earlier
(
d) For five years or till the age of 60 years, whichever is earlier
Ans: (c)

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