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069 Indian Polity & Constitution Previous Year Questions

Indian Polity & Constitution Previous Year Questions

Q1. The President of India is not empowered to proclaim:
(a) Emergency arising out of war, external aggression or armed rebellion
(
b) Emergency due to breakdown of constitutional machinery in states
(
c) Financial emergency in the state of Jammu and Kashmir
(
d) Emergency arising out of threat to financial stability
Ans: (c)

Q2. Consider the following statements:
1. After the Annual Financial Statement is presented before the House of the People, it is examined by the Public Accounts Committee.
2. The Public Accounts Committee examines the report of the Comptroller and Auditor-General of India after it is laid before the Parliament.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a) Only 1
(
b) Only 2
(
c) Both 1 and 2
(
d) Neither 1 nor 2
Ans: (b)

Q3. What is the time-limit within which a non-money Bill has to be sent to the State Legislature by the Governor for reconsideration?
(a) 14 days
(
b) One month
(
c) Three months
(
d) No time limit specified
Ans: (d)

Q4. The State Government’s administrative control over municipalities does not include power:
(a) Of inspection
(
b) Of approving bye-laws and rules
(
c) To decide over-borrowings
(
d) Of dissolution and supersession
Ans: (c)

Q5. Which one of the following agencies does not have statutory oversight over public expenditure?
(a) The Parliament
(
b) The Planning Commission
(
c) The Comptroller and Auditor-General
(
d) The Finance Ministry
Ans: (b)

Q6. The Representation of the People (Amendment) Act, 2003, passed by the Parliament of India sought to:
(a) Provide the facility to opt to vote through proxy to the service voters belonging to armed forces
(
b) Introduce open ballot system for elections to the Council of States
(
c) Insert provision regarding supply of copies of electoral rolls to candidates of recognized political parties
(
d) Make it mandatory for political parties to report all cases of contributions received above Rs.20,000 to Election Commission
Ans: (b)

Q7. Who among the following was elected President of India unopposed?
(a) Dr. Rajendra Prasad
(
b) Dr. S. Radhakrishnan
(
c) Neelam Sanjeeva Reddy
(
d) K.R. Narayanan
Ans: (c)

Q8. Which of the following is/are the provisions of Article 18 of the Constitution of India which pertains to the Right to Equality?
(a) No title, not being military or academic distinction, shall be conferred by the State
(
b) No citizen of India shall accept any title from any foreign State
(
c) No person holding any office of profit or trust under the State, shall without the consent of the President, accept any present, emolument or office of any kind from or under any foreign State
(
d) All the above three
Ans: (d)

Q9. Which one of the following pairs is not correctly matched?
(a) Right to Equality : Includes the principle of natural justice
(
b) Right to personal liberty : Includes right to livelihood
(
c) Protections available to an accused person : Includes protection against ex-post facto laws in civil matters
(
d) Protections against arrest and detention : Includes right to consult and to be defended by a legal practitioner of one’s choice
Ans: (c)

Q10. Consider the following statements:
1. With the consent of the Government of India, the Governor of a State may entrust on the Union Government or to its officers functions relating to a State subject , to which executive power of that State extends.
2. The President of India cannot entrust to any State Government or to its officers, functions in relation to any matter to which the executive power of the Union extends.
3. There is a provision in the Constitution of India to create the National Integration Council.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a) 1, 2 and 3
(
b) 2 and 3 only
(
c) 1 and 3 only
(
d) Only 1
Ans: (d)

Q11. Which of the following are included in Article 78 of the Indian Constitution, defining the duties of Prime Minister?
1. To communicate to the President all decisions of the Council of Ministers relating to the administration of the affairs of the Union and proposals for legislation.
2. To take prior presidential sanction for the budget before submitting it in the Parliament.
3. To furnish the information called for by President regarding administration of affairs of the Union.
4. If the President so requires, to submit for consideration of the Council of Ministers a matter on which a minister has taken a decision without submitting the same for consideration by the Council beforehand.
Choose the correct answer from the codes given below:
(a) 1 and 2
(
b) 1, 3 and 4
(
c) 2 and 4
(
d) 1 and 3
Ans: (b)

Q12. Consider the following statements:
1. Members of Rajya Sabha are not associated with the Committee on Public Undertakings.
2. Railway Convention Committee is an ad hoc Parliamentary Committee Which of these statements is/are correct?
(a) Only 2
(
b) 1 and 2
(
c) None
(
d) Only 1
Ans: (a)

Q13. The power of the President of India to declare that Article 370 (under which the state of J & K enjoys a special status) shall cease to be operative, is subject to:
1. Public notification
2. Recommendation of Parliament
3. Advice of the Union Council of Ministers
4. Recommendation of the Constituent Assembly of J & K Of these statements:
(a) 1 and 3 are correct
(
b) 1 and 2 are correct
(
c) 2 and 4 are correct
(
d) 1 and 4 are correct
Ans: (d)

Q14. In the Lok Sabha elections, who among the following can order adjournment of poll or countermanding of election on the ground of booth capturing?
(a) Chief Election Commissioner
(
b) Election Commission of India
(
c) Chief Electoral Officer of the State
(
d) Returning Officer of the Constituency
Ans: (b)

Q15. The Protection of Human Rights Act of 1993 provides for the creation of:
(a) National Human Rights Commission
(b) State Human Rights Commission
(c) Joint State Human Rights Commission (d) Human Rights Courts Select the correct answer from the codes given below
(a) 1 and 2
(
b) 1, 2 and 4
(
c) 1, 2, 3 and 4
(
d) 1, 2 and 3
Ans: (b)

Q16. Who of the following is the Chairman of the National Integration Council?
(a) President of India
(
b) Chief Justice of India
(
c) Speaker of the Lok Sabha
(
d) Prime Minister of India
Ans: (d)

Q17. The Chief Election Commissioner of India can be removed from office during his tenure:
(a) By the Chief Justice of India if some charges are proved against him
(
b) By the President on the basis of a resolution of the Union Cabinet
(
c) By a Committee consisting of Chief Justice of India, Law Minister of India and the Vice-President of India
(
d) By the President on the basis of resolution passed by the Parliament by two-thirds majority
Ans: (d)

Q18. The most important device of supplying power to the judiciary to invalidate a Statute in India is provided by:
(a) The Directive Principles of State Policy
(
b) The Fundamental Rights
(
c) Articles 350 and 351
(
d) Prerogative Writs
Ans: (b)

Q19. The 86th Constitutional Amendment deals with which of the following ?
(a) Allocation of more number of parliamentary seats for recently created states.
(
b) Reservation of 30% posts for women in Panchayati Raj Institutions.
(
c) Insertion of Article 21A related with free and compulsory education for all children between the age of 6 and 14 years.
(
d) Continuation of reservation for backward classes in government employment.
Ans: (c)

Q20. In case of inconsistency between laws made by Parliament and the laws made by the State Legislatures, which one of the following shall prevail?
(a) The law made by Parliament before the law made by the legislature of the State
(
b) The law made by Parliament after the law made by the legislature of the State
(
c) The law made by Parliament before or after the law made by the legislature of the State
(
d) The law made by the legislature of the State
Ans: (c)

Q21. Consider the following statements:
1. A Bill pending in the Rajya Sabha which has not been passed by the Lok Sabha shall lapse on dissolution of the Lok Sabha.
2. A Bill pending in Parliament shall lapse by reason of the prorogation of the Houses.
Which of the statements given above is / are correct?
(a) Only 1
(
b) Only 2
(
c) Both 1 and 2
(
d) Neither 1 nor 2
Ans: (d)

Q22. Assertion (A) :Judicial Review is a process to restrain the executive or the legislature from exercising power which may not be sanctioned by the Constitution.
Reason (R) :The source of the power of judicial review is Article 13 of the Constitution.
Codes:
(a) Both A and R are individually true and R is the correct explanation of A
(
b) Both A and R are individually true but R is not the correct explanation of A
(
c) A is true but R is false
(
d) A is false but R is true
Ans: (b)

Q23. Who makes provisions with respect to the maintenance of accounts by the Panchayats and the auditing of such accounts?
(a) Finance Commission of the concerned State
(
b) Legislature of the State
(
c) Comptroller and Auditor General of India
(
d) District Collector
Ans: (b)

Q24. Immediately before 26 January, 1950, the Union Public Service Commission was known as:
(a) Public Service Commission
(
b) Federal Public Service Commission
(
c) Central Public Service Commission
(
d) Imperial Public Service Commission
Ans: (b)

Q25. Consider the following statements:
1. The Central Vigilance Commission was set up by an Act of Parliament.
2. The Central Vigilance Commission has been broadly given the measure of independence and autonomy as that given to the Union Public Service Commission.
Which of the statements given above is / are correct?
(a) Only 1
(
b) Only 2
(
c) Both 1 and 2
(
d) Neither 1 nor 2
Ans: (b)

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