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062 Indian Polity & Constitution Previous Year Questions

Indian Polity & Constitution Previous Year Questions

Q1. The Panchayati Raj is included in the:
(a) Union List
(
b) State List
(
c) Concurrent List
(
d) Residuary List
Ans: (b)

Q2. Which of the following is/are the issue (s) on which recommendations to be made by the Finance Commission to the President of India are specified in the Constitution of India?
1. The principles which should govern the grants-in-aid of the revenues of the States out of the Consolidated Fund of India
2. Measures needed to augment the Consolidated Fund of a State to supplement the resources of the Panchayats in the State
3. Measures needed to augment the Consolidated Fund of a State to supplement the resources of the Municipalities in the State
Select the correct answer using the codes given below:
(a) 1, 2 and 3
(
b) 2 and 3 only
(
c) 1 only
(
d) 2 only
Ans: (a)

Q3. The Administrative Reforms Commission (1966) , recommended the establishment of ‘Lokpal’ in India on the lines of Ombudsman of which of the following countries?
1. Finland
2. Denmark
3. Norway
4. Switzerland
Select the correct answer using the codes given below:
(a) 1, 2 and 4
(
b) 1 and 2
(
c) 1, 2 and 3
(
d) 3 and 4
Ans: (c)

Q4. Who of the following is placed at the fifth position in the Order of Precedence?
(a) Chief Justice of India
(
b) Deputy Prime Minister
(
c) Speaker of Lok Sabha
(
d) Former Presidents
Ans: (d)

Q5. Consider the following statements:
1. For election of the President of India, each elected member of either House of Parliament shall have such number of votes as may be obtained by dividing the total number of votes assigned to the members of the Legislative Assemblies of the States by the number of the members of the Lok Sabha.
2. The Vice-President of India is elected by the members of an electoral college consisting of the members of both the Houses of Parliament and the elected members of the Legislative Assemblies of each State.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a) Only 1
(
b) Only 2
(
c) Both 1 and 2
(
d) Neither 1 nor 2
Ans: (d)

Q6. Q

Q7. Consider the following statements:
The salient features of the Indian Constitution provide for:
1. Single citizenship for the whole of India.
2. Strictly federal form of government.
3. Unique blend of rigidity and flexibility.
Of the above statements:
(a) 1, 2 and 3 are correct
(
b) 1 and 2 are correct
(
c) 2 and 3 are correct
(
d) 1 and 3 are correct
Ans: (d)

Q8. Which one of the following is not a correct description of the Directive Principles of State Policy?
(a) Directive Principles are not enforceable by the courts.
(
b) Directive Principles have a political sanction.
(
c) Directive Principles are declaration of objectives for State Legislation.
(
d) Directive Principles promise equal income and free health care for all Indians.
Ans: (d)

Q9. Consider the following statements in respect of provisions as to financial emergency:
1. A proclamation of financial emergency has to be laid before each House of Parliament.
2. A proclamation of financial emergency ceases to operate at the expiration of six months, unless before the expiration of that period, it has been approved by resolutions of both Houses of Parliament.
Which of the statements given above is / are correct?
(a) Only 1
(
b) Only 2
(
c) Both 1 and 2
(
d) Neither 1 nor 2
Ans: (a)

Q10. Which one of the following statements related to Money Bills is not correct?
(a) It cannot be introduced in the Council of States.
(
b) If any question arises whether the bill is Money Bill or not, the decision of the Lok Sabha Speaker is final.
(
c) In case of a deadlock over a Money Bill, the President can summon a joint sitting of Parliament.
(
d) A Money Bill cannot be introduced except on the recommendation of the President.
Ans: (c)

Q11. Consider the following matters:
1. Reservation of the State Bill for the consideration of the President
2. Delivery of Speech in the House of the Legislature
3. Recommendation to the President to impose the President’s Rule Under Article 163 of the Constitution of India, the Governor is required to act in accordance with the advice of the Council of Ministers; but in relation to which of the matters given above, the said rule is not applicable?
(a) 1 and 3
(
b) 1, 2 and 3
(
c) 2 and 3
(
d) Only 2
Ans: (a)

Q12. Which one of the following provisions has been left to the will of the State Governments in the 73rd Constitutional Amendment Act?
(a) Providing reservation to the Backward Classes
(
b) All posts at all levels to be filled by direct elections
(
c) Reservation of seats for SC/ST in proportion to their population
(
d) Reservation up to 1/3 seats for women in panchayats
Ans: (a)

Q13. Which one of the following is a Constitutional Body?
(a) National Commission for Scheduled Tribes
(
b) National Commission for Minorities
(
c) National Commission for Women
(
d) Planning Commission
Ans: (a)

Q14. The Article in the Constitution of India that says that the Parliament may by law, provide for the creation of an All India Service is:
(a) Article 300
(
b) Article 312
(
c) Article 320
(
d) Article 420
Ans: (b)

Q15. Consider the following statements:
1. The Sixth Schedule to the Constitution (Amendment) Act, 1988 included certain modifications in the Sixth Schedule of the Constitution in its application to the State of Assam.
2. The Sixth Schedule to the Constitution (Amendment) Act, 1995 included certain modifications in the Sixth Schedule of the Constitution in its application to the states of Tripura and Mizoram.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a) Only 1
(
b) Only 2
(
c) Both 1 and 2
(
d) Neither 1 nor 2
Ans: (d)

Q16. Consider the following statements:
1. The First Amendment to the Constitution of India was made in 195
– 5.
2. The First Amendment to the Constitution of India made some changes in Article 19 and Article 31. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a) Only 1
(
b) Only 2
(
c) Both 1 and 2
(
d) Neither 1 nor 2
Ans: (d)

Q17. Consider the following statements:
1. A person who was born on 26th January, 1951 in Rangoon, whose father was a citizen of India by birth at the time of his birth, is deemed to be an Indian citizen by descent.
2. A person who was born on 1st July, 1988 in Itanagar, whose mother is a citizen of India at the time of his birth but the father was not, is deemed to be a citizen of India by birth.
Which one of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a) Only 1
(
b) Only 2
(
c) Both 1 and 2
(
d) Neither 1 nor 2
Ans: (c)

Q18. The constituent power of Parliament to amend the Constitution:
(a) Includes power to amend by way of addition, variation or repeal of the provision of the Constitution
(
b) Is unrestricted by any inherent and implied limitations
(
c) Is not procedurally limited and restricted
(
d) Is extra-constituent
Ans: (a)

Q19. “The President may require the Council of Ministers to reconsider the advice tendered by the latter and shall act in accordance with the advice tendered after such reconsideration.” The above provision was inserted in the Indian Constitution by the:
(a) 38th Amendment
(
b) 42nd Amendment
(
c) 44th Amendment
(
d) 52nd Amendment
Ans: (c)

Q20. The Demands for Supplementary Grants must be presented to and passed by the House:
(a) Before the end of the respective financial year
(
b) Before the budget of the following year is passed
(
c) After the withdrawal of money from the Consolidated Fund
(
d) After the submission of report of C.A.G.
Ans: (a)

Q21. There is a constitutional requirement to have a Minister in-charge of Tribal Welfare for the States of:
(a) Assam, Nagaland and Manipur
(
b) Himachal Pradesh, Haryana and Rajasthan
(
c) Madhya Pradesh, Odisha, Chhattisgarh and Jharkhand
(
d) Manipur, Tripura and Meghalaya
Ans: (c)

Q22. Which of the following functions have been laid down in the 12th Schedule of the Constitution of India for the municipalities?
1. Urban poverty alleviation
2. Planning for economic and social development
3. Regulation for tanneries
4. Urban forestry
Select the correct answer using the codes given below:
(a) 1, 2 and 3
(
b) 2, 3 and 4
(
c) 1 and 4
(
d) 1, 2, 3 and 4
Ans: (d)

Q23. Who among the following can only be removed from the office in like manner and on the like grounds as a Judge of the Supreme Court?
1. Comptroller and Auditor-General of India
2. Chief Election Commissioner
3. Chairman, Union Public Service Commission
4. Attorney General for India
Select the correct answer using the codes given below:
(a) 1, 2, 3 and 4
(
b) 1, 2 and 4 only
(
c) 1 and 2 only
(
d) 2 and 3 only
Ans: (c)

Q24. Consider the following statements:
1. The President shall cause to be published under his authority the translation of the Constitution in Hindi language.
2. The President shall cause to be published under his authority the translation in Hindi of every amendment of the Constitution made in English.
Which of the statements given above is / are correct?
(a) Only 1
(
b) Only 2
(
c) Both 1 and 2
(
d) Neither 1 nor 2
Ans: (c)

Q25. Consider the following statements:
Article 20 of the Constitution of India provides that:
1. No person shall be prosecuted and punished for the same offence more than once.
2. No person accused of any offence shall be compelled to be a witness against himself.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a) Only 1
(
b) Only 2
(
c) Both 1 and 2
(
d) Neither 1 nor 2
Ans: (c)

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