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059 Indian Polity & Constitution Previous Year Questions

Indian Polity & Constitution Previous Year Questions

Q1. As per Article 243-H of 73rd Constitutional Amendment Act, the Legislature of a State, may by law, provide for making grants-in-aid to the Panchayats from:
(a) Contingency Fund of the President
(
b) Contingency Fund of the Governor
(
c) Consolidated Fund of the State
(
d) Consolidated Fund of India
Ans: (c)

Q2. Consider the following statements:
1. The National Commission for Scheduled Tribes was constituted under the Constitution (Eighty-ninth Amendment) Act.
2. The first National Commission for Scheduled Tribes was constituted in 2006. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a) Only 1
(
b) Only 2
(
c) Both 1 and 2
(
d) Neither 1 nor 2
Ans: (a)

Q3. Which of the following services under the Government of India are termed as All-India Services?
(a) IAS, IPS and Indian Foreign Service
(
b) IAS only
(
c) IAS and IPS only
(
d) IAS, IPS and Indian Forest Service
Ans: (d)

Q4. Match List I with List II and select the correct answer using the codes given below:
List-I List-II
(Amendments of the Constitution) (Purpose of the Amendments)
A. 53rd Amendment – 1. Extension of reservation for SCs and STs and Anglo-Indians in the House of People and in the State Assemblies for a period of ten years
B. 61st Amendment – 2. Special provisions for Mizoram
C. 74th Amendment – 3. Lowering of voting age from 21 to 18
D. 79th Amendment – 4. Constitution of three types of Municipalities
Codes:

A B C D
(a) 2 4 3 1
(
b) 1 3 4 2
(
c) 2 3 4 1
(
d) 1 4 3 2
Ans: (c)

Q5. Which of the following is/are not the function (s) of the UPSC and State Public Service Commissions?
1. Advising the appropriate governments on matters relating to methods of recruitment to civil services and for civil posts
2. Consultation in creation of All-India Services
3. Consultation on disciplinary matters affecting a person serving the Government of India or of a person serving the Government of a State in a civil capacity
Select the correct answer using the codes given below:
(a) Only 1
(
b) 1 and 2
(
c) Only 2
(
d) 2 and 3
Ans: (c)

Q6. Match List I with List II and select the correct answer using the codes given below:
List-I List-II
(State) (Full Statehood Granted In)
A. Goa – 1. 1966
B. Haryana – 2. 1972
C. Meghalaya – 3. 1976
D. Sikkim – 4. 1987
Codes:

A B C D
(a) 3 1 2 4
(
b) 4 2 1 3
(
c) 3 2 1 4
(
d) 4 1 2 3
Ans: (d)

Q7. Which of the following are matters on which the Parliament has the power to modify provisions of the constitution by a simple majority?
1. Alternation of names, boundaries and areas of States
2. Appointment of additional judges
3. Abolition of the second chamber of a State Legislature
4. Administration of Scheduled Areas
Select the correct answer using the codes given below:
(a) 1, 2 and 3
(
b) 1, 2 and 4
(
c) 1, 3 and 4
(
d) 2, 3 and 4
Ans: (c)

Q8. Which one of the following statements is correct?
On receipt of a Constitutional Amendment Bill after its passing by each House of the Parliament, the President:
(a) Shall give his assent
(
b) May give his assent
(
c) May withhold his assent
(
d) May return the Bill for reconsideration
Ans: (a)

Q9. Who among the following chooses a member of the Council of States to be its Deputy Chairman?
(a) The President
(
b) The Union Minister of Parliamentary Affairs
(
c) The Prime Minister
(
d) The Council of States
Ans: (d)

Q10. Consider the following statements:
1. The Governor cannot function without the State Council of Ministers.
2. A person who is not a member of the State Legislature cannot be appointed as a minister.
3. The State Council of Ministers can function for sometime even after death or resignation of the Chief Minister.
4. In the absence of the Chief Minister, only the Home Minister can preside over emergency meetings of the State Council of Ministers.
Which of these is / are correct?
(a) Only 1
(
b) 3 and 4
(
c) 1, 2 and 4
(
d) 1, 2, 3 and 4
Ans: (a)

Q11. Under which Article of the Constitution of India, did the District Planning Committee come into existence?
(a) Article 243 ZD
(
b) Article 243 ZE
(
c) Article 244 ZD
(
d) Article 242 ZD
Ans: (a)

Q12. Consider the following statements:
The Comptroller and Auditor-General of India has to:
1. Audit government expenditure
2. Make financial policy
3. Sanction grants to various departments
4. See that public expenditure are in conformity with the government rules Of these statements:
(a) 2, 3 and 4 are correct
(
b) 1 and 3 are correct
(
c) 2 and 3 are correct
(
d) 1 and 4 are correct
Ans: (d)

Q13. Consider the following statements:
1. Originally, the Constitution of India did not make any provision with respect to an authoritative text of the Constitution in the Hindi language.
2. Later, a provision in this regard was made in 1978. Which of the statements given above is / are correct?
(a) Only 1
(
b) Only 2
(
c) Both 1 and 2
(
d) Neither 1 nor 2
Ans: (a)

Q14. Consider the following statements:
1. M.C. Setalvad was the first Attorney-General of India.
2. Sir Ross Barker was the first chairman of the UPSC.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a) Only 1
(
b) Only 2
(
c) Both 1 and 2
(
d) Neither 1 nor 2
Ans: (c)

Q15. Consider the following statements:
1. A Bill pending in the Parliament shall not lapse by reason of the prorogation of the Houses.
2. A Bill pending in the Council of States which has not been passed by the House of the People shall not lapse on dissolution of the House of the People.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a) Only 1
(
b) Only 2
(
c) Both 1 and 2
(
d) Neither 1 nor 2
Ans: (c)

Q16. Match List I with List II and select the correct answer using the codes given below:
List-I (Provisions) List-II (Contained In)
A. Liberty of thought and expression – 1. Right to freedom
B. Freedom of speech and expression – 2. Cultural and educational rights
C. Making special provision for women and children – 3. Preamble
D. Protection of interest of Minorities – 4. Protection of life and liberty
– 5. Right to equality
Codes:

A B C D
(a) 3 1 5 2
(
b) 2 5 4 1
(
c) 3 5 4 2
(
d) 2 4 5 1
Ans: (a)

Q17. Assertion (A) :In a parliamentary democracy like India the Government goes out of power if the Lower House passes a no-confidence motion against the Government.
Reason (R) :The Constitution of India provides for the removal of the Prime Minister through a no-confidence motion passed in the Lok Sabha.
Codes:
(a) Both A and R are individually true and R is the correct explanation of A
(
b) Both A and R are individually true but R is not the correct explanation of A
(
c) A is true but R is false
(
d) A is false but R is true
Ans: (b)

Q18. The President of India has power to declare emergency under Article 352 on which of the following grounds?
1. War
2. Internal disturbance
3. External aggression
4. Armed rebellion
Select the correct answer using the codes given below:
(a) 1, 2 and 3
(
b) 1, 3 and 4
(
c) 1, 2 and 4
(
d) 2, 3 and 4
Ans: (b)

Q19. The charged expenditure includes:
(a) Any sums required to satisfy any judgement, decree or award of any court or arbitral tribunals
(
b) Debt charges for which the Government of India is liable
(
c) The salaries and allowances of certain high officials
(
d) All the above
Ans: (d)

Q20. Assertion (A) :Governor can withhold a non-Money Bill passed by the State Legislature.
Reason (R) :Governors are empowered by the Article 200 of the Constitution of India to do so.
Codes:
(a) Both A and R are individually true and R is the correct explanation of A
(
b) Both A and R are individually true but R is not the correct explanation of A
(
c) A is true but R is false
(
d) A is false but R is true
Ans: (a)

Q21. A metropolitan committee can be set up in an area having a population of:
(a) 3 lac –
4. 99 lac
(
b) 5 lac –
9. 99 lac
(
c) Upto 10 lac
(
d) Above 10 lac
Ans: (d)

Q22. Which one of the following statements is not correct in regard to the functions performed by the Planning Commission?
(a) It makes an assessment of the material, economic and human resources of the country.
(
b) It makes recommendations to the President of India with regard to distribution of proceeds of taxes between the Union and the States.
(
c) It formulates plans for the most effective and balanced utilisation of country’s resources.
(
d) It appraises from time to time the progress made in the execution of each stage of the plan and recommends adjustments in policy and measures which it deems necessary.
Ans: (b)

Q23. The area of a Lok Sabha constituency for the purpose of general election is determined by the:
(a) Delimitation Commission
(
b) Election Commission of India
(
c) Census Commission
(
d) President
Ans: (a)

Q24. What is the procedure required to be followed for the abolition of an existing Legislative Council in a State?
1. The Rajya Sabha must pass a resolution to that effect.
2. The State Legislative Assembly must pass a resolution to that effect by a special majority as prescribed in the Constitution.
3. Parliament must enact a law abolishing the Legislative Council.
4. The State Legislative Assembly must pass a resolution with an ordinary majority as in the case of a bill.
Select the correct answer using the codes given below:
(a) 2 and 3
(
b) 1 and 2
(
c) 1 and 4
(
d) 3 and 4
Ans: (a)

Q25. Consider the following statements:
1. The Parliament has exclusive power to make any law with respect to any matter enumerated in List I.
2. State Legislatures have exclusive power to make any law with respect to any matter enumerated in List II.
3. The Parliament as well as State Legislatures have concurrent power to make any law with respect to any matter not enumerated in any of the three lists.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a) 1 and 2
(
b) Only 1
(
c) Only 2
(
d) 1 and 3
Ans: (a)

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