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057 Indian Polity & Constitution Previous Year Questions

Indian Polity & Constitution Previous Year Questions

Q1. The ultimate responsibility of taking due action on the comments of the Comptroller and Auditor-General of India vests with the:
(a) President of India
(
b) Supreme Court
(
c) Parliament
(
d) National Development Council
Ans: (c)

Q2. No criminal proceedings shall be instituted or continued against which one of the following in any court during the term of his office?
(a) President, Vice-President and Governor
(
b) President, Prime Minister and Governor
(
c) President and Governor only
(
d) President, Vice-President and Prime Minister
Ans: (c)

Q3. Consider the following statements:
1. A.K. Chanda was the first Comptroller and Auditor-General of India.
2. K.V.K. Sundaram was the first Chief Election Commissioner of India.
Which of the statements given above is / are correct?
(a) Only 1
(
b) Only 2
(
c) Both l and 2
(
d) Neither 1 nor 2
Ans: (d)

Q4. For the purpose of inquiring into and advising upon inter-state dispute, if at any time, it appears to the President that the public interest would be served by the establishment of such council, he is empowered to establish which one of the following?
(a) Zonal Council
(
b) Inter-State Council
(
c) Inter-State Zonal Council
(
d) The Central Inter-Zonal Council
Ans: (b)

Q5. Which of the following statements is/are correct of the writ of prohibition?
1. It is an order issued by a higher court commanding a lower court to cease from proceeding in some matters not within its jurisdiction.
2. It can be claimed by an aggrieved party as a matter of right.
Select the correct answer using the codes given below:
(a) Only 1
(
b) Only 2
(
c) Both 1 and 2
(
d) Neither 1 nor 2
Ans: (c)

Q6. Match List I with List II and select the correct answer using the codes given below:
List-I List-II
(Types of Government) (Characteristics)
A. Parliamentary Government – 1. Centralisation of powers
B. Presidential Government – 2. Division of powers
C. Federal System – 3. Separation of powers
D. Unitary System – 4. Collective responsibility
Codes:

A B C D
(a) 2 1 4 3
(
b) 4 3 2 1
(
c) 2 3 4 1
(
d) 4 1 2 3
Ans: (b)

Q7. In the event of occurrence of vacancies in the offices of both, the President and the Vice-President of India, who among the following shall discharge the functions of the President till a new President is elected?
(a) Speaker of the Lok Sabha
(
b) Leader of the majority party in the Lok Sabha
(
c) Chief Justice of India
(
d) Seniormost Governor
Ans: (c)

Q8. In the context of the budget, the term ‘guillotine’ is used with reference to:
(a) Appropriation Bill
(
b) Consolidated Fund charges
(
c) Voting of Demands
(
d) Finance Bill
Ans: (c)

Q9. The Legislative Assembly of a State can pass a resolution to abolish or create a Legislative Council in the State by a:
(a) Majority of not less than 2/3 of the members of the Legislative Assembly present and voting.
(
b) Majority of not less than 1/3 of the members of the Legislative Assembly present and voting
(
c) Majority of the total membership of the Legislative Assembly and by a majority of not less than 2/3 of the members present and voting
(
d) Simple majority of the members of the State Legislative Assembly
Ans: (c)

Q10. Which one of the following has the authority to constitute an area into a municipality or a municipal corporation or a panchayat?
(a) Central Government
(
b) Divisional Commissioner
(
c) District Collector
(
d) State Government
Ans: (d)

Q11. Which of the following is/are correct regarding the Planning Commission?
1. Deputy Chairman has always been a whole-time member.
2. Some Union Cabinet Ministers have been part-time members.
3. Members of the Planning Commission enjoy the status of a Cabinet Minister.
4. Number of whole-time expert members has varied.
Select the correct answer using the codes given below:
(a) 2 and 4
(
b) Only 4
(
c) 1 and 3
(
d) 1, 2 and 4
Ans: (d)

Q12. The registration of political parties is done as per the provisions/decision of:
(a) Article 324 of the Constitution
(
b) The Representation of the People Act, 1951
(
c) The Election Commission by itself
(
d) The Election Commission in consultation with cabinet committee on political affairs
Ans: (b)

Q13. According to the Anti-Defection Law, a legislator attracts disqualification under the Tenth Schedule if:
1. He voluntarily gives up the membership of the party on whose ticket he was elected.
2. He votes or abstains from voting contrary to any direction issued by his political party.
3. A nominated member joins any political party after six months.
4. A member who has been elected as an independent member joins any political party.
Select the correct answer using the codes given below:
(a) 2 and 3
(
b) 1, 2 and 4
(
c) 1 and 3
(
d) 1, 2, 3 and 4
Ans: (d)

Q14. Consider the following statements:
1. The Constitution of India grants personal immunity to the President of India and the Governor of a State for official acts, but no such immunity is granted to the Ministers.
2. Civil proceedings may be brought against the President of India or the Governor of a State in respect of their personal acts only if six months’ notice has been delivered to them.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a) Only 1
(
b) Only 2
(
c) Both 1 and 2
(
d) Neither 1 nor 2
Ans: (a)

Q15. Assertion (A) :The Indian Constitution recognizes the supremacy of judiciary.
Reason (R) :The question as to what constitutes a reasonable restriction on fundamental rights is to be determined by the courts of law.
Codes:
(a) Both A and R are individually true and R is the correct explanation of A
(
b) Both A and R are individually true but R is not the correct explanation of A
(
c) A is true but R is false
(
d) A is false but R is true
Ans: (a)

Q16. Who, among the following, expressed the view that the Indian Constitution is federal in as much as it establishes what may be called a Dual Polity ?
(a) H.M. Seervai
(
b) K.C. Wheare
(
c) B.R. Ambedkar
(
d) Ivor Jennings
Ans: (c)

Q17. The Constitution of India lays down that proposals for legislation are to be communicated to the President by the
(a) Prime Minister
(
b) Speaker of the Lok Sabha and Chairman of the Rajya Sabha
(
c) Minister for Law
(
d) Minister for Parliamentary Affairs
Ans: (a)

Q18. The Parliament exercises final control on public finance:
(a) Through the Public Accounts Committee
(
b) Through the Estimates Committee
(
c) Through the enactment of the Budget
(
d) Through the Comptroller and Auditor-General of India
Ans: (a)

Q19. Which one of the following is not a qualification for a person to be appointed as district judge?
(a) He should not already be in the service of the Central or the State Government.
(
b) He should have been an advocate or a pleader for seven years.
(
c) He should have completed the 30 years of age.
(
d) He should be recommended by the High Court for appointment.
Ans: (c)

Q20. How many members of a district council are nominated by the Governor of the State?
(a) 2 members
(
b) 4 members
(
c) 5 members
(
d) 7 members
Ans: (b)

Q21. The chairman of the National Human Rights Commission holds office for:
(a) 5 years or until the age of 65 years, whichever is earlier.
(
b) 6 years or until the age of 65 years, whichever is earlier.
(
c) 5 years or until the age of 70 years, whichever is earlier.
(
d) 6 years or until the age of 70 years, whichever is earlier.
Ans: (c)

Q22. Consider the following statements:
1. The National Integration Council is a recommendatory body.
2. The National Integration Council is a constitutional body.
Which of the statements given above is / are correct?
(a) Only 1
(
b) Only 2
(
c) Both 1 and 2
(
d) Neither 1 nor 2
Ans: (a)

Q23. The Vice-President of India can be removed from the office:
(a) By a resolution initiated in the Council of States and approved by the Lok Sabha
(
b) By a resolution passed in the Lok Sabha and agreed to by the Council of States
(
c) By a resolution adopted by the two Houses meeting in a joint session
(
d) Following a formal process of impeachment
Ans: (a)

Q24. What is the correct chronological sequence of the following events?
1. Montagu-Chelmsford Reforms
2. Inauguration of Provincial Autonomy
3. Morley-Minto Reforms Bill
Select the correct answer using the codes given below:
(a) 1–2–3
(
b) 2–3–1
(
c) 3–2–1
(
d) 3–1–2
Ans: (d)

Q25. Match List I with List II and select the correct answer using the codes given below:
List-I List-II
(Writs) (Implications)
A. Mandamus – 1. Direction to an official for the performance of duty
B. Habeas Corpus – 2. Release of an illegally detained person
C. Certiorari – 3. Transferring of a case from an interior court to a court of higher jurisdiction.
D.
Quo-warranto – 4. Calling upon one to show by what authority does he hold or claim a franchise or office.
Codes :
A B C D
(a) 1 2 3 4
(
b) 3 4 1 2
(
c) 1 4 3 2
(
d) 3 2 1 4
Ans: (a)

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