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054 Indian Polity & Constitution Previous Year Questions

Indian Polity & Constitution Previous Year Questions

Q1. In which of the following circumstances, are the courts debarred from interfering in electoral matters?
1. Delimitation of constituencies
2. Allotment of seats to the constituencies
Select the correct answer using the codes given below:
(a) Only 1
(
b) Only 2
(
c) Both 1 and 2
(
d) Neither 1 nor 2
Ans: (c)

Q2. Match List I with List II and select the correct answer using the codes given below:
List-I List-II
(Political Events) (Took Place In)
A. Formation of the Bharatiya Janata Party – 1. 1990
B. Acceptance of the Mandal Commission Report – 2. 1980
C. Formation of the First Communist Government in an Indian State – 3. 1957
D. Passing of the 42nd Amendment Act – 4. 1976
– 5. 1947
Codes:

A B C D
(a) 1 2 4 5
(
b) 1 2 3 4
(
c) 2 1 3 4
(
d) 2 1 4 5
Ans: (c)

Q3. In which one of the following states, is provision relating to reservation for Scheduled Castes in panchayats under 73rd Constitutional Amendment not applicable?
(a) Nagaland
(
b) Mizoram
(
c) Meghalaya
(
d) Arunachal Pradesh
Ans: (d)

Q4. Which one of the following is the best justification for the affirmative action policies in India?
(a) The principle of non-discrimination
(
b) The principle of equal opportunity
(
c) The principle of group disadvantage
(
d) The principle of radical redistribution
Ans: (b)

Q5. Which one among the following pairs of level of government and legislative power is not correctly matched ?
(a) Central Government : Union List
(
b) Local Governments : Residuary Powers
(
c) State Governments : State List
(
d) Central and State Governments : Concurrent List
Ans: (b)

Q6. Statement I: The Prime Minister of India can exercise control over other branches of government through a coterie of advisors.
Statement II:The Prime Minister and his Cabinet function on the basis of collective responsibility.
Codes:
(a) Both the statements are individually true and Statement II is the correct explanation of Statement I
(
b) Both the statements are individually true but Statement II is not the correct explanation of Statement I
(
c) Statement I is true but Statement II is false
(
d) Statement I is false but Statement II is true
Ans: (d)

Q7. Q – 1. Examination of Appropriation Accounts
B. Public Accounts Committee – 2. Considers matters of procedure in the House
C. Committee on Subordinate – 3. Examination of rules made by the executive Legislation departments under the Acts passed by the Parliament
D. Committee on Public – 4. Review of the working of the Undertakings public sector undertakings
– 5. Control of the department of public enterprises
Codes:

A B C D
(a) 1 2 3 5
(
b) 2 1 3 4
(
c) 3 4 1 2
(
d) 5 1 2 3
Ans: (b)

Q8. Who appoints the judicial officers of the subordinate judiciary other than the district judges?
(a) Union Public Service Commission
(
b) State Public Service Commission
(
c) Governor in accordance with the rules made by him in consultation with the High Court and State Public Service Commission
(
d) Governor in consultation with the High Court exercising jurisdiction in relation to such state
Ans: (c)

Q9. The Autonomous District Council, under the Sixth Schedule of the Constitution, is not operative in which one of the following states of North-East India?
(a) Assam
(
b) Tripura
(
c) Nagaland
(
d) Meghalaya
Ans: (c)

Q10. The National Human Rights Commission consists of a chairman and:
(a) Three members
(
b) Four members
(
c) Five members
(
d) Six members
Ans: (b)

Q11. Match List I with List II and select the correct answer using the codes given below:
List-I List-II
(Parties) (Trade Unions)
A. Indian National Congress – 1. C.I.T.U.
B.
Bhartaiya Janata Party – 2. A.I.T.U.C.
C.
Communist Party of India – 3. B.M.S.
D.
Communist Party of India (Marxist) – 4. I.N.T.U.C.
– 5. B.K.S.
Codes:
A B C D
(a) 3 4 2 1
(
b) 4 3 1 5
(
c) 3 4 1 5
(
d) 4 3 2 1
Ans: (d)

Q12. Which among the following statements with respect to the Comptroller and Auditor-General of India is/are correct?
1. The procedure and grounds for his removal from the office are the same as that of a Judge of the Supreme Court.
2. He prescribes the form in which accounts of the Union and the States are to be kept.
Select the correct answer using the codes given below:
(a) Only 1
(
b) Only 2
(
c) Both 1 and 2
(
d) Neither 1 nor 2
Ans: (c)

Q13. In which one of the following States, is unified personnel system operating in municipal corporations?
(a) Andhra Pradesh
(
b) West Bengal
(
c) Gujarat
(
d) Kerala
Ans: (a)

Q14. Consider the following statements:
1. Quo-warranto is a very powerful instrument for safeguarding against the usurpation of public offices.
2. A High Court can issue a mandamus to compel a court or judicial tribunal to exercise its jurisdiction when it has refused to exercise it.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a) Only 1
(
b) Only 2
(
c) Both 1 and 2
(
d) Neither 1 nor 2
Ans: (c)

Q15. Which one of the following is the correct statement?
The rule of repugnancy has application in a case where:
(a) Both Union and State occupy two different fields in different Lists
(
b) Both Union and State laws are enacted under the Concurrent List
(
c) The Union law is enacted under List III and State law is enacted under List II
(
d) The Union and State laws are enacted under the State List
Ans: (b)

Q16. Statement I:The number, nomenclature and composition of the Cabinet Committees varies from time to time.
Statement II:The Cabinet Committees are set up by the Prime Minister according to the exigencies of the time and requirements of the situation.
Codes:
(a) Both the statements are individually true and Statement II is the correct explanation of Statement I.
(
b) Both the statements are individually true but Statement II is not the correct explanation of Statement I.
(
c) Statement I is true but Statement II is false.
(
d) Statement I is false but Statement II is true.
Ans: (a)

Q17. In the appointment of the Judges of the Supreme Court, the recommendations of the collegium consisting of the Chief Justice of India and four of the senior most Judges of the Supreme Court is binding on the President of India, because:
(a) It is so provided in the Constitution of India
(
b) It has been the consistent practice for a long time
(
c) It has been laid down by the Parliament
(
d) It has been laid down by the Supreme Court
Ans: (d)

Q18. Consider the following statements:
1. The Eleventh Schedule was inserted in the Constitution of India by the Constitution (Seventy Third Amendment) Act, 1992.
2. The Eleventh Schedule of the Constitution of India corresponds to Article 243-W of the Constitution of India.
Which of the statements given above is / are correct?
(a) Only 1
(
b) Only 2
(
c) Both 1 and 2
(
d) Neither 1 nor 2
Ans: (a)

Q19. Which of the following does not concern the Union Public Service Commission?
(a) Recruitment
(
b) Classification of services
(
c) Disciplinary matters
(
d) Promotion
Ans: (b)

Q20. How can a State Information Commissioner be removed from office?
(a) By the order of the State Chief Information Commissioner.
(
b) By the order of Supreme Court of India.
(
c) By the order of the Governor after the Supreme Court, on a reference made to it by the Governor, has on inquiry reported that the State Information Commissioner ought to be removed.
(
d) In a manner similar to the removal of a Judge of a High Court.
Ans: (c)

Q21. Which of the following Articles of the Constitution of India gives the right to Ministers and Attorney-General to speak in or to take part in the proceedings of either House of Parliament?
(a) Article 84
(
b) Article 85
(
c) Article 87
(
d) Article 88
Ans: (d)

Q22. A writ of Prohibition is an order issued by the Supreme Court or High Court which:
(a) Affects the subject of production and consumption of liquor
(
b) Prohibits the police from arresting a person
(
c) Forbids the administrative authority from taking a particular action
(
d) Prohibits a quasi-judicial authority from proceeding with a case
Ans: (d)

Q23. Assertion (A) :The principles which govern the grants-in-aid of the revenues of the States out of the Consolidated Fund of India are determined by the Finance Commission.
Reason (R) :The Finance Commission is a constitutional body to deal with financial relations between the Union and the States.
Codes:
(a) Both A and R are individually true and R is the correct explanation of A
(
b) Both A and R are individually true but R is not the correct explanation of A
(
c) A is true but R is false
(
d) A is false but R is true
Ans: (a)

Q24. Match List I with List II and select the correct answer using the codes given below:
List-I
(Provisions) List-ll
(Acts)
A. Designation of the Governor-General of Bengal as the Governor-General of India and his Government as the Government of India – 1. Charter Act of 1833
B. Dyarchy introduced in Indian Government – 2. Government of India Act, 1858
C. Twin features of All-India Federation and Provincial Autonomy – 3. Government of India Act, 1919
D. Control of the Government of India transferred from East India Company to the British Crown – 4. Government of India Act, 1935
Codes:

A B C D
(a) 1 4 3 2
(
b) 2 3 4 1
(
c) 1 3 4 2
(
d) 2 4 3 1
Ans: (c)

Q25. Which of the following statements about the changes made by the forty second amendment to the Constitution relating to the Directive Principles of State Policy are correct?
1. It enabled State to provide free legal aid to its citizens.
2. It provided for the State to secure the participation of workers in the management of undertakings.
3. It required the state to minimise inequalities in income and status.
Select the correct answer using the codes given below:
(a) 1 and 2
(
b) 1 and 3
(
c) 2 and 3
(
d) 1, 2 and 3
Ans: (a)

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