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053 Indian Polity & Constitution Previous Year Questions

Indian Polity & Constitution Previous Year Questions

Q1. Which one of the following is not an automatic consequence of the Proclamation of Emergency?
(a) Suspension of the enforcement of fundamental rights except those conferred by Articles 20 and 21.
(
b) Extension of the Union’s executive power to the issue of directions to any State as to the manner in which its executive power has to be exercised.
(
c) Extension of the power of Parliament to the making of legislation in regard to items of the State List
(
d) Suspension of Article
Ans: (a)

Q2. If a member of either House of Parliament is without the permission of the House absent from all meetings thereof for more than a certain period, the House may declare his seat vacant. What is the duration of this period?
(a) 60 days
(
b) 45 days
(
c) 30 days
(
d) 15 days
Ans: (a)

Q3. On which of the following issues can a Governor make recommendation to the President?
1. Dismissal of the State Council of Ministers
2. Removal of the Judges of the High Court
3. Dissolution of the State Legislative Assembly
4. Declaration of the breakdown of the Constitutional Machinery in the State
Select the correct answer using the codes given below:
(a) 1, 2 and 3
(
b) 2, 3 and 4
(
c) 1, 3 and 4
(
d) 1, 2 and 4
Ans: (c)

Q4. The Eleventh Schedule of the Constitution relating to the Panchayats contains:
(a) 18 items
(
b) 28 items
(
c) 19 items
(
d) 29 items
Ans: (d)

Q5. The separate National Commission for SCs came into existence in:
(a) 2000
(
b) 2002
(
c) 2004
(
d) 2006
Ans: (c)

Q6. Assertion (A) :Recruitment to the public services is to be regulated by the Acts of appropriate legislatures.
Reason (R) :The Constitution does not have provisions to regulate the recruitment of the civil servants.
Codes:
(a) Both A and R are individually true and R is the correct explanation of A.
(
b) Both A and R are individually true but R is not the correct explanation of A.
(
c) A is true but R is false.
(
d) A is false but R is true.
Ans: (a)

Q7. Part IV-A was added to the Constitution of India by the:
(a) Twenty-fifth Amendment Act
(
b) Forty-second Amendment Act
(
c) Forty-fourth Amendment Act
(
d) Fifty-second Amendment Act
Ans: (b)

Q8. Which of the following are the Fundamental Duties mentioned in the Constitution of India?
1. To follow the principles of morality
2. To uphold and protect the sovereignty, unity and integrity of India
3. To value and preserve the rich heritage of our composite culture
4. To safeguard public property and to abjure violence Choose the correct answer from the codes given below:
(a) 1, 2, 3 and 4
(
b) 1 and 4
(
c) 1, 2 and 3
(
d) 2, 3 and 4
Ans: (d)

Q9. Who, among the following, was not a member of the States Reorganisation Commission (SRC) appointed by Pandit Jawaharlal Nehru ?
(a) Justice Fazl Ali
(
b) Potti Sriramulu
(
c) K.M. Panikkar
(
d) Hridayanath Kunzru
Ans: (b)

Q10. Restriction of the writ jurisdiction of the High Courts under Article 226 of the Constitution is possible through:
(a) An amendment of the Constitution passed by two-third majority of members present and voting and a majority of the total membership of each House of Parliament.
(
b) An amendment of the Constitution passed by a simple majority of members present and voting in both Houses of Parliament.
(
c) An amendment of the Constitution passed by two-third majority of members present and voting, and a majority of the total membership of each House of Parliament together with the ratification of half of the State Legislatures.
(
d) An amendment of the Constitution passed by two-third majority of members present and voting and a majority of the total membership of each House of Parliament together with the ratification of three quarters of the State Legislatures.
Ans: (c)

Q11. Assertion (A) :No public expenditure can be incurred except with the sanction of the Parliament.
Reason (R) :During an emergency, the President of India is empowered to authorize the expenditure from the Consolidated Fund of India.
Codes:
(a) Both A and R are individually true and R is the correct explanation of A
(
b) Both A and R are individually true but R is not the correct explanation of A
(
c) A is true but R is false
(
d) A is false but R is true
Ans: (c)

Q12. Which of the following statements is/are correct?
1. No Member of the Parliament shall be liable to any proceedings in any Court in respect of any vote given by him in any Committee of the Parliament.
2. A House of the Parliament can try anyone or any case directly, as a Court of Justice.
3. No Member of the Parliament shall be liable to any proceedings in any Court in respect of anything said in the Parliament.
Select the correct answer using the codes given below:
(a) 1, 2 and 3
(
b) 2 and 3
(
c) 1 and 3
(
d) Only 1
Ans: (c)

Q13. Consider the following statements with respect to duties of the Chief Minister of a State according to the Constitution of India:
1. To make rules for the more convenient transaction of business of the State Government, and for the allocation among Ministers of the said business.
2. If the Governor of the State so requires, to submit for consideration of the Council of Ministers any matter on which a decision has been taken by a Minister but which has not been considered by the Council.
Which of the statements given above is / are correct?
(a) Only 1
(
b) Only 2
(
c) Both 1 and 2
(
d) Neither 1 nor 2
Ans: (b)

Q14. Nagar Palika bill was first introduced in Parliament during the prime ministership of
(a) V.P. Singh
(
b) Chandrasekhar
(
c) Rajiv Gandhi
(
d) Narasimha Rao
Ans: (c)

Q15. Consider the following statements:
All the Reports of the Comptroller and Auditor-General of India:
1. Relating to accounts of the Union and accounts of States are submitted to the President of India
2. Relating to accounts of a State are submitted to the Governor of the State
3. Relating to accounts of States are submitted to the Union Minister of Finance Which of the statements given above is correct?
(a) Only 1
(
b) Only 2
(
c) Only 3
(
d) None
Ans: (b)

Q16. Assertion (A) :Article 300 of the Constitution of India has specifically removed the distinction between sovereign and non-sovereign functions with respect to government’s liability for tort in India.
Reason (R) :Government is liable for tort which is the result of its non-sovereign function.
Codes:
(a) Both A and R are individually true and R is the correct explanation of A
(
b) Both A and R are individually true but R is not the correct explanation of A
(
c) A is true but R is false
(
d) A is false but R is true
Ans: (d)

Q17. Who of the following has not been a Chief Justice of India?
(a) R.C. Lahoti
(
b) G.B. Pattanaik
(
c) M.S. Gill
(
d) V.N. Khare
Ans: (c)

Q18. Assertion (A) :Whenever Government seeks to replace an Ordinance by a Bill, a statement explaining the circumstances which necessitated promulgation of Ordinance must accompany the Bill.
Reason (R) :President shall have the power to legislate on any subject through an Ordinance which is co-extensive with the legislative powers of the Parliament.
Codes:
(a) Both A and R are individually true and R is the correct explanation of A
(
b) Both A and R are individually true but R is not the correct explanation of A
(
c) A is true but R is false
(
d) A is false but R is true
Ans: (b)

Q19. Which one of the following pairs is not correctly matched?
(a) Article 15 : Special provisions for socially and educationally backward classes.
(
b) Article 22 : Safeguards under Preventive Detention
(
c) Article 20 : Immunity from double punishment
(
d) Article 16 : Discrimination in favour of women in service under the State
Ans: (d)

Q20. In the parliamentary form of Government, the members of the Council of Ministers are collectively responsible to:
(a) The Head of State
(
b) The Chairman of the Upper House and the Speaker of the Lower House
(
c) The popular House of the Parliament
(
d) The Prime Minister
Ans: (c)

Q21. When the President of India is satisfied that the financial credit of Government of India is threatened, he may:
(a) Direct reduction in the number of members in the Finance Commission
(
b) Proclaim financial emergency
(
c) Impose President’s Rule in any State
(
d) Direct Parliament to pass a special Financial Bill.
Ans: (b)

Q22. A grant provided by the Parliament in respect of the estimated expenditure for the part of the ensuing financial year pending the regular passage of the budget is called:
(a) Appropriation account
(
b) Token cut
(
c) Vote on account
(
d) Cut motion
Ans: (c)

Q23. Consider the following statements:
1. No discussion can take place in the Legislature of a State with respect to the conduct of any Judge of the Supreme Court as per the provisions of Constitution of India.
2. There is no restriction on the discussion to take place in the Legislature of a State with respect to the conduct of any Judge of the State’s High Court as per provisions of the Constitution of India.
3. Courts cannot enquire into any proceedings of the Legislatures as per the provisions of the Constitution of India.
Which of the statements given above are correct?
(a) 1 and 2
(
b) 2 and 3
(
c) 1 and 3
(
d) 1, 2 and 3
Ans: (c)

Q24. In which one of the following Schedules of the Constitution of India, is Urban Local Self-Government mentioned?
(a) Seventh Schedule
(
b) Eighth Schedule
(
c) Eleventh Schedule
(
d) Twelfth Schedule
Ans: (a)

Q25. The Planning Commission was established immediately after the inauguration of the Constitution to:
1. Determine the machinery for implementing the Directive Principles
2. Assess national resources and plan for their effective and balanced use
3. Lay down the conditions for government participation in agriculture and industry
Select the correct answer using the codes given below:
(a) Only 1
(
b) Only 2
(
c) 1 and 2
(
d) 2 and 3
Ans: (b)

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