Indian Polity & Constitution Previous Year Questions
Q1. Statement I:If in a cut motion during discussion of demands for grants in the Annual Financial Statement, the reduction demanded is either in the form of a lump sum or omission or reduction of an item in the demand, the motion which enables such cut is known as ‘Economy Cut’.
Statement II:The motion in the above case represents disapproval of the policy underlying the demand.
(a) Both the statements are individually true and Statement II is the correct explanation of Statement I.
(b) Both the statements are individually true but Statement II is not the correct explanation of Statement I.
(c) Statement I is true but Statement II is false.
(d) Statement I is false but Statement II is true.
Q2. Match List I with List II and select the correct answer using the codes given below:
(Provisions in the Constitution of India) (Source)
A. Emergency Provisions – 1. Ireland
B. Fundamental Rights – 2. The United Kingdom
C. Parliamentary System – 3. The United States of America
D. Directive Principles of State Policy – 4. Germany
A B C D
(a) 4 1 2 3
(b) 2 3 4 1
(c) 4 3 2 1
(d) 2 1 4 3
Q3. Which one of the following statements regarding the current status of the relationship between Fundamental Rights and Directive Principles is correct?
(a) Directive Principles cannot get priority over Fundamental Rights in any case.
(b) Directive Principles always get priority over Fundamental Rights.
(c) Fundamental Rights always get priority over Directives Principles.
(d) In some cases Directive Principles may get priority over Fundamental Rights.
Q4. Proclamation of Emergency under Article 352, when Lok Sabha stands dissolved has to be approved by:
(a) Rajya Sabha and then it will continue till the reconstitution of new Lok Sabha, which must approve it within 30 days of its first sitting.
(b) New Lok Sabha within six months of its constitution.
(c) Lok Sabha in the next session after six months.
(d) Rajya Sabha only.
Q5. The Lok Sabha Secretariat comes under direct supervision of the:
(a) Ministry of Home Affairs
(b) Ministry of Parliamentary Affairs
(c) Prime Minister’s Office
(d) Speaker of the Lok Sabha
Q6. In the performance of his duties and in the exercise of his powers, the Governor
(a) Is answerable in a court of law
(b) Is not answerable in a court of law
(c) Can be impeached in the Vidhan Sabha
(d) Is answerable to the Vidhan Sabha
Q7. Which of the following are provided for in the 73rd Constitutional Amendment?
1. Elections through the Chief Election Commissioner.
2. Devolution of functions by the state government.
3. Creation of the State Finance Commission.
4. Setting up a three-tiered Indian Federation.
Select the correct answer from the codes given below:
(a) 1 and 2
(b) 2 and 3
(c) 3 and 4
(d) 2, 3 and 4
Q8. Which Article of the Constitution of India deals with the National Commission for SCs?
(a) Article 336
(b) Article 337
(c) Article 338
(d) Article 338-A
Q9. In the context of All-India Service, which one of the following finds mention in Article 312 of the Constitution of India?
(a) All-India Service of Engineers
(b) All-India Revenue Service
(c) All-India Judicial Service
(d) All-India Medical and Health Service
Q10. The Constitution (93rd Amendment) Act deals with:
(a) Local self-government
(b) Extension of reservation in educational institutions
(c) Basic structure of the Constitution of India
(d) Appointment of judges in the Supreme Court of India
Q11. A part of the Preamble of the Constitution reads as under:
“We the people of India, having solemnly resolved to constitute India into a Sovereign Socialist Secular Democratic Republic …..” Certain words in the above part were inserted by:
(a) The Constitution (Seventh Amendment) Act, 1956
(b) The Constitution (Eighteenth Amendment) Act, 1966
(c) The Constitution (Thirty-fifth Amendment) Act, 1974
(d) The Constitution (Forty-second Amendment) Act, 1976
Q12. Who among the following was the head of the Linguistic Provinces Commission appointed in the year 1948, to enquire into the desirability of linguistic provinces?
(a) Jawaharlal Nehru
(b) Justice S.K. Dhar
(c) Justice Fazl Ali
(d) Pattabhi Sitaramayya
Q13. Consider the following statements:
1. An amendment of the Constitution of India can be initiated by the introduction of a Bill only in the Lok Sabha.
2. The Bill for amendment of the Constitution of India has to be passed in each House by a majority of the total membership of that House and by a majority of not less than two-thirds of the members of that House present and voting.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a) Only 1
(b) Only 2
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
Q14. Match List I with List II and select the correct answer using the codes given below:
A. Article 61 – 1. The President of India
B. Article 54 – 2. Term of President’s Office
C. Article 52 – 3. Impeachment of President
D. Article 56 – 4. Election of President
A B C D
(a) 3 2 4 1
(b) 2 4 1 3
(c) 2 1 3 4
(d) 3 4 1 2
Q15. Which one of the following statements is correct with regard to the power of Parliament in enacting the Budget?
(a) It can increase a tax, but not reduce it.
(b) It can increase a tax, as well as reduce or abolish it.
(c) It cannot increase a tax, but can reduce or abolish it.
(d) It can neither increase a tax nor reduce it.
Q16. Consider the following statements:
The Chief Minister as the head of the State Council of Ministers:
1. Has a free hand in the distribution of portfolios
2. Can reshuffle the Ministers and ask any Minister to resign
3. Is bound by the advice of the Ministers
4. Advises the Ministers in day-to-day administration of departments Which of the statements given above are correct?
(a) 1 and 2
(b) 2 and 3
(c) 1, 2 and 4
(d) 3 and 4
Q17. To whom does the Chairperson of every Metropolitan Planning Committee forward the development plan, as recommended by such a Committee?
(a) The Planning Commission
(b) The Finance Minister, Government of India
(c) The Urban Development Minister, Government of India
(d) The Government of the State
Q18. The Comptroller and Auditor-General of India submits his audit reports to the:
(a) Prime Minister
(d) Chief Justice of India
Q19. Article 361 of the Constitution of India guarantees the privilege to the President of India that, he shall:
(a) Not participate in Parliamentary proceedings
(b) Only be answerable to the Chief Justice of India
(c) Address both the Houses of Parliament at the time of joint session
(d) Not be answerable to any court for the exercise of the powers of his office
Q20. Who among the following was the first Speaker of the Lok Sabha?
(a) M.A. Ayyangar
(b) G.V. Mavalankar
(c) Sardar Hukam Singh
(d) N Sanjiva Reddy
Q21. Which one of the following statements is not correct?
(a) A Minister is appointed by the Governor on the advice of the Chief Minister.
(b) Before a Minister enters upon his office, the Governor shall administer to him the oath of office and of secrecy.
(c) There shall be a Council of Ministers with the Chief Minister at the head to aid and advise the Governor who shall, in the exercise of his functions, act in accordance with such advice.
(d) Only the Governor of Jammu & Kashmir is vested with the power to impose Governor’s rule in Jammu & Kashmir.
Q22. Which of the following rights is not explicitly mentioned in the Fundamental Rights but has been upheld to be so by several pronouncements of the Supreme Court?
(a) Equity before law
(b) Right to non-discrimination in public employment
(c) Right to form associations or unions
(d) Right to freedom of Press
Q23. The Constitution of India establishes parliamentary form of Government, and the essence of this form of government is its responsibility to the:
(a) People of India
(c) Prime Minister
Q24. Who amongst the following decides about the disqualification of the Members of Parliament?
(a) Election Commission
(b) Supreme Court
(d) President of India
Q25. Pending the passage of Finance Bill in the Parliament, the Provisional Collection of Taxes Act, 1931 empowers the government to collect taxes for a period of:
(a) 50 days
(b) 60 days
(c) 75 days
(d) 90 days