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045 English Language Previous Year Questions for CTET & TET Exams

English Language Previous Year Questions for CTET & TET Exams

Q1. After whom, according to the passage, was ADA named?
(1) Stanley Babbage
(2) Lord Byro
(3) Augusta Lovelace
(4) Pentagon
Ans: (3) According to the passage ADA was named after Lady Augusta Ada Lovelace (line 18). Hence option (3) would be correct..

Q2. Why did the Pentagon want a new computer language?
(1) To execute routine tasks
(2) To launch simple defense operations
(3) To maintain their schedules
(4) All of the above
Ans: (1) Line 4 and 5 indicate that Pentagon wanted a new Computer Language to execute routine tasks. Hence option (1) would be correct.
3. Why did the DoD find it difficult to choose a name for their new computer language?
(1) Every name had been already used
(2) No name seemed precise
(3) They did not have any repository of the available names
(4) They were unable to get approval of the president for the chosen names
Ans: (2)
3. No name seemed ‘precise enough’ to the Dept. of Defense (line 17). Hence option (2) would be correct.

Q4. Why have European militaries adopted ADA?
(1) They are under agreement with the US
(2) Is easy and simple to use
(3) Can work on many parameters at a time
(4) All of the above
Ans: (3) Last line of the first para indicate that ADA is being adopted by the Western militaries because it can work on many parameters at a time. Hence option (3) would be correct.

Q5. Why does the civilian world not need ADA?
(1) Other languages are economical
(2) Other languages are relatively simple
(3) Other languages are less complex
(4) All of the above
Ans: (4) The last paragraph clearly indicates that civilians don’t need ADA because it is tough, costly and complex and other languages are relatively simple, economical and less complex. Hence option (4) would be correct.

Q6. Identify the world closest in meaning to the word ‘Precise’
(1) permissive
(2) defined
(3) mild
(4) diffused
Ans: (2) The word ‘Precise’ means defined. Hence option (2) would be correct.

Q7. Identify the word opposite in meaning to the word “Cumbersome”
(1) bulky
(2) awkward
(3) manageable
(4) unwieldy
Ans: (3) The word ‘Cumbersome’ means awkward and bulky, so, its opposite will be manageable. Hence option (3) would be correct.
Directions (Q. Nos. 8-15) Read the passage carefully and answer the questions that follow by choosing the best alternative. What is the future which awaits our children? The underlying assumption of the question that Indian children have a common future is itself dubious. It can legitimately be asked whether a student who is well fed, attending a boarding school in the salubrious climate of the hills and learning to use computers has any future in common with a malnourished child who goes to a school with no blackboards, if indeed he does go to school. The (परीक्षा तिथि : 18-11-2011) latter may have no worthwhile future at all. And it might be worthwhile to analyze the significance of this marginalization of more than seventy five percent of the children of this country. The failure to provide an infrastructure for primary education in the villages of India more than 60 years after independence is in sharp contrast with the sophisticated institutions, for technical institutes of higher education are funded by the government, which essentially means that the money to support them comes from taxes. And since indirect taxation forms a substantial part of the taxes collected by the government, the financial burden is borne by all the people. L K Jha put it graphically when he observed that 25 paise of every rupee spent on education an IIT student comes from the pockets of men and women whose children may never enter a proper classroom.

Q8. The author is trying to highlight which of the following
(1) need to have common future for Indian children
(2) the greatness of L K Jha
(3) need of sophisticated education for rural poor
(4) faulty system of direct taxes
Ans: (1) The author is trying to highlight the need to have common future for the Indian children (line 3). Hence option (1) would be correct.

Q9. What seems to be likely answer of the author to the question posed by him in the first sentence of the passage? I. There is no common future for the Indian children. II. The future is worthwhile for majority of Indian children. III. The majority may never enter a proper classroom.
(1) Only II
(2) Only I
(3) Only III
(4) Both I and II
Ans: (2) The likely answer to the question is that there is no common future for the Indian children (line 5). Hence option (2) would be correct.

Q10. Which of the following pairs have been termed as ‘sharp contrast’ by the author? I. Infrastructure for technical education. II. Lack of infrastructure for rural primary schools. III. Twenty five paise of every rupee earned by government is spent on education. IV. The financial burden of higher technical education is borne by all people.
(1) II and III
(2) II and IV
(3) III and IV
(4) I and II
Ans: (4) The sharp contrast is in Infrastructure for technical education and lack of infrastructure for rural primary schools (line 7-9). Hence option (4) I and II.

Q11. According to the author, who among the following does not have a hopeful and a prosperous future? I. All students from technical institutes. II. All students financially supported by the government.
(1) Only II
(2) Only I
(3) Both I and II
(4) Neither I nor II
Ans: (4) It is clear from the passage that only poor and malnourished student’s don’t have a prosperous future. Hence option (4) would be correct.

Q12. Which of the following statements is not true? I. The author welcomes Government’s initiative on primary education. II. 75% of the children have a bright future. III. 25% cost of education a technocrat comes from poor people.
(1) Only II
(2) Only I
(3) Only III
(4) I and II
Ans: (1) Line 6 states that 75% of the children of this country are marginalized and deprived of a prosperous future. Hence option (1) would be correct.

Q13. Identify the word closest in meaning to the word “Dubious”.
(1) Uncertain
(2) Unarguable
(3) Undoubted
(4) Undeniable
Ans: (1) The word ‘dubious’ means uncertain. Hence option (1) would be correct.

Q14. Identify the word opposite in meaning to the word “Sophisticated.”
(1) Stylish
(2) Complicated
(3) Difficult
(4) Facile
Ans: (4) The antonym of ‘sophisticated’ is ‘facile’ or smooth, free etc. Hence option (4) would be correct.

Q15. What is the major concern reflected in the passage?
(1) Indian children do not enjoy common future.
(2) The gap between different sections in Indian society is increasing.
(3) Both (2) and (1)
(4) Only (1)
Ans: (3) The major concern in the passage is the increasing gap between the different sections of Indian society and the deplorable condition of education of Indian poor children. Hence option (3) Both (2) and (1) would be correct.

Q16. Language acquisition occurs only when
(1) the child is given a reward
(2) the child is taught the rules of grammar
(3) the child has exposure to the language
(4) the child absorbs the language without conscious attention
Ans: (3) Language acquisition occurs only when the child has exposure to the language. Hence option (3) would be correct.

Q17. Correct the pronunciation of individual sounds is related to
(1) fluency
(2) accuracy
(3) both accuracy and fluency
(4) neither accuracy nor fluency
Ans: (3) Correct pronunciation of individual sounds is related to both accuracy and fluency. Hence option (3) would be correct.

Q18. For teaching grammar, the best grammar that a teacher can use is
(1) modern grammar
(2) traditional grammar
(3) pedagogic grammar
(4) no grammar is needed
Ans: (3) For teaching grammar, pedagogic grammar must be used. Hence option (3) would be correct.

Q19. Organization of arguments and ideas in paragraphs is an important aspect of
(1) writing memos
(2) writing essays
(3) writing stories
(4) writing personal letters
Ans: (2) Organization of arguments and ideas in paragraphs is an important aspect of writing essays. Hence option (2) would be correct.

Q20. When a child is asked to recite a poem, it can help the teacher to test
(1) proficiency in speaking
(2) knowledge of literature
(3) acting talent
(4) comprehension
Ans: (1) Recitation of a poem tests a students’s proficiency in speaking. Hence option (1) would be correct.

Q21. One of the principles of materials preparation for language learning is that
(1) grading of materials should be done
(2) complex materials should be chosen
(3) any kind of material can be chosen
(4) a small amount of material should be introduced
Ans: (4) For language learning less use of materials prepared is a principle and focus is on exposure to the language through reading, writing and speaking. Hence option (4) would be correct.

Q22. The structure ‘He goes to school’ it is often produced by learners due to
(1) mother tongue interference
(2) failure of intelligence
(3) over generalization of rules
(4) wrong teaching
Ans: (1) Mother tongue interference results in use of such language structures by the learners. Hence option (1) would be correct.

Q23. A test of listening comprehension is a test of
(1) productive skill
(2) receptive skill
(3) hearing ability
(4) phonology
Ans: (2) A test of listening comprehension is a test of receptive skill. Hence option (2) would be correct.

Q24. Mother-tongue influence can be effectively minimized in the classroom by
(1) giving examples from the mother tongue
(2) using the mother-tongue more often
(3) giving a lot of exposure in the target language
(4) giving inputs from the target language in a simple, graded manner
Ans: (4) Mother-tongue influence can be effectively minimized by giving inputs from the target language in a simple, graded manner. Hence option (4) would be correct.

Q25. A test which is administered at the end of a language course is
(1) placement test
(2) diagnostic test
(3) achievement test
(4) memory test
Ans: (3) At the end of a language course achievement test is administered. Hence option (3) would be correct.

Q26. ‘Interactive’ listening is
(1) listening for mood and tone
(2) listening and responding
(3) listening for word stress and emphasis
(4) listening for finding out speaker’s attitude
Ans: (2) Interactive listening involves both listening and responding. Hence option (2) would be correct.

Q27. Which of the following is an incorrect assumption in language teaching?
(1) Learner’s first language plays an important role in learning
(2) Learners acquire language by trying to use it in real situations
(3) Language teaching should have a focus in communicative activities
(4) Language teaching should give importance to writing rather than speech
Ans: (4) Statement (4) is wrong speech is given importance in language teaching. Hence option (4) would be correct.

Q28. Reading skills can be developed best by
(1) focusing on the use of words from context in the text
(2) writing answers to questions on the text
(3) doing vocabulary exercises
(4) doing quizzes and playing word games
Ans: (1) Reading skills can be developed best by focusing on the use of words from context in the text. Hence option (1) would be correct.

Q29. ‘Brainstorming’ means
(1) to do some mental exercises
(2) to collect all kinds of ideas on a topic
(3) to make efforts to understand something
(4) to give some kind of stimulus to the brain
Ans: (1) Brainstorming is a group mental exercise to solve a given problem. Hence option (1) would be correct.

Q30. Practice of grammatical structures in a controlled manner can be done by
(1) gap-filling grammar exercises
(2) correcting wrong sentences produced by learners
(3) writing paragraphs and essays
(4) explaining the use of particular structures
Ans: (1) Gap-filling grammar exercises are helpful in practice of grammatical structures in a controlled manner. Hence option (1) would be correct.
Directions : Answer the following question by selecting the most appropriate option.

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