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044 Indian Polity & Constitution Previous Year Questions

Indian Polity & Constitution Previous Year Questions

Q1. The Constitution of India divided the states of India in categories A, B, C and D in the year 1950. In this context which of the following statements is correct?
(a) The Chief Commissioner was the executive head of category A states. The Rajpramukh was the executive head of category B states. The Governor was the executive head of categories C and D states.
(
b) The Rajpramukh was the executive head of category A states. The Chief Commissioner was the executive head of categories B and C states. The Governor was the executive head of the category D states.
(
c) The Governor was the executive head of category A states. The Rajpramukh was the executive head of category B states. The Chief Commissioner was the executive head of categories C and D states.
(
d) The Governor was the executive head of category A states. The Chief Commissioner was the executive head of category B states. The Rajpramukh was the executive head of categories C and D states.
Ans: (c)

Q2. Which of the following Articles of the Constitution of India relate to the protection and improvement of environment ?
(a) Article 48A only
(
b) Article 51A only
(
c) Both Article 48A and Article 51A
(
d) Neither Article 48A nor Article 51A
Ans: (c)

Q3. Which one of the following propositions is a correct description of the powers of the President of India under Article 356 of the Constitution?
(a) If the Chief Minister inspite of commanding the confidence of the Legislative Assembly, cannot run his government in accordance with the Constitution, the President can proclaim emergency.
(
b) If the law and order in a state completely breaks-down, the President can proclaim emergency.
(
c) The President can refer the matter to the Supreme Court for advice and act in accordance with such advice.
(
d) The President cannot make a proclamation of emergency if the governor refuses to make a report.
Ans: (a)

Q4. Which one of the following is true of the Appropriation Act?
(a) It is the demand for grants approved by the Parliament.
(
b) It applies to approval of the budget by the Parliament.
(
c) Authorisation by the Parliament for withdrawal of money from the consolidated fund
(
d) Authorisation by the Parliament for withdrawal of money from the contingency fund
Ans: (c)

Q5. Assertion (A) :The Chief Minister of a State is the head of the Council of Ministers of that State.
Reason (R) :The Chief Minister is responsible to the State Legislative Assembly and enjoys the support of a majority in the House.
Codes:
(a) Both A and R are individually true and R is the correct explanation of A
(
b) Both A and R are individually true but R is not the correct explanation of A
(
c) A is true but R is false
(
d) A is false but R is true
Ans: (a)

Q6. Municipal Area means the territorial area of a Municipality as is notified by the:
(a) Governor
(
b) Municipal Commissioner
(
c) Municipal Council
(
d) Council of Ministers
Ans: (a)

Q7. Which one of the following statements about Comptroller and Auditor-General of India is not correct?
(a) No minister can represent him in the Parliament.
(
b) His salary and emoluments are chargeable on the Consolidated Fund of India.
(
c) He cannot disallow any expenditure which in his opinion violates the Constitution.
(
d) He has been debarred from holding any office of profit under the Union or State Governments after his retirement.
Ans: (c)

Q8. Which one of the following was affirmed by the Supreme Court, with respect to the sovereign immunity of the State?
(a) Doctrine of sovereign immunity has relevance in the present day context.
(
b) State can succeed in pleading its immunity by showing that the tort was committed by its servants in the course of discharge of statutory functions.
(
c) State cannot claim sovereign immunity if its officers are negligent in exercise of their powers.
(
d) State can claim sovereign immunity even if its officers are negligent in exercise of their powers.
Ans: (c)

Q9. Who has been the only Lok Sabha Speaker to have become the President of India?
(a) Giani Zail Singh
(
b) V.V. Giri
(
c) Neelam Sanjiva Reddy
(
d) K.R. Narayanan
Ans: (c)

Q10. Who among the following come under the jurisdiction of the Central Vigilance Commission?
1. Members of All-India Services serving in connection with the affairs of the Union and Group A officers of the Central Government.
2. Senior officers in the Public Sector Undertakings of the Central Government.
3. Senior officers in the Public Sector Banks.
4. Senior officers in the Insurance Companies in the Public Sector.
Select the correct answer using the codes given below:
(a) Only 1
(
b) Only 2, 3 and 4
(
c) Only 1 and 2
(
d) 1, 2, 3 and 4
Ans: (d)

Q11. In Indian Constitution, the power to issue a writ of ‘Habeas Corpus’ is vested only in:
(a) The Supreme Court
(
b) The High Courts
(
c) The Subordinate Courts
(
d) The Supreme Court and the High Courts
Ans: (d)

Q12. Which of the following are the principles on the basis of which the Parliamentary system of government in India operates?
1. Nominal Executive Head
2. Vice-President as the Chairman of the Upper House
3. Real executive authority with the Council of Ministers
4. Executive responsibility to the Lower House Choose the correct answer from the codes given below:
(a) 1, 2 and 3
(
b) 1, 2 and 4
(
c) 1, 3 and 4
(
d) 2, 3 and 4
Ans: (c)

Q13. The impeachment of the President of India can be initiated in:
(a) Either House of Parliament
(
b) A joint sitting of both Houses of Parliament
(
c) The Lok Sabha alone
(
d) The Rajya Sabha alone
Ans: (a)

Q14. Match List I with List II and select the correct answer using the codes given below:
List-I List-II
(Terms) (Implications)
A. Voting on the demands for grants – 1. Prior consent of the President
B. Budget – 2. Not subject to vote of Parliament
C. Money Bill – 3. An instrument of socio-economic change
D. Charged Expenditure – 4. Enactment of Budget
– 5. Public Accounts Committee
Codes:

A B C D
(a) 4 3 1 2
(
b) 3 4 2 5
(
c) 1 3 4 2
(
d) 1 4 3 2
Ans: (a)

Q15. Assertion (A) :A Bill which, if enacted and brought into operation, would involve expenditure from the consolidated fund of a State must have been recommended by the Governor to a House of the Legislature of the State for consideration of the Bill.
Reason (R) :Such a bill cannot be passed by the House without the recommendation of the Governor for consideration of the Bill.
Codes:
(a) Both A and R are individually true and R is the correct explanation of A
(
b) Both A and R are individually true but R is not the correct explanation of A
(
c) A is true but R is false
(
d) A is false but R is true
Ans: (a)

Q16. When was the first municipal corporation in India at Madras set up?
(a) 1587
(
b) 1687
(
c) 1787
(
d) 1887
Ans: (b)

Q17. Which Article of the Constitution of India has provided for the office of the Advocate General of the States?
(a) Article 163
(
b) Article 168
(
c) Article 165
(
d) Article 169
Ans: (c)

Q18. Which one of the following statements is not correct?
(a) Communist Party of India was formed in 1925
(
b) Bharatiya Janata Party was formed in 1978
(
c) Shiromani Akali Dal was formed in 1920
(
d) AIADMK was formed in 1972
Ans: (b)

Q19. Consider the following statements about the Attorney-General of India:
1. He is appointed by the President of India.
2. He has the right to take part in the proceedings of the Parliament.
3. He has the right of audience in all courts in India.
Which of the statements given above are correct?
(a) 1 and 2
(
b) 1 and 3
(
c) 2 and 3
(
d) 1, 2 and 3
Ans: (d)

Q20. Consider the following statements:
President’s Rule in a State can be proclaimed if:
1. There is constitutional breakdown in a State.
2. The Governor sends a report to the President to that effect.
3. The Governor of a State fails to perform his constitutional functions.
4. The State Administration fails to function in accordance with the provisions of the Constitution.
Which of these statements are correct?
(a) 1, 2 and 3
(
b) 1, 2 and 4
(
c) 2, 3 and 4
(
d) 1, 3 and 4
Ans: (b)

Q21. Which one of the following Fundamental Rights is guaranteed only to the citizens of India and not to the foreigners living in India?
(a) Equality before law and equal protection of laws
(
b) Freedom of speech and expression
(
c) Right to life and liberty
(
d) Right to the freedom of religion
Ans: (b)

Q22. Match List I with List II and select the correct answer using the codes given below:
List-I List-II
(Forms of Government) (Essential Features)
A. Cabinet Government – 1. Separation of powers
B. Presidential Government – 2. Collective responsibility
C. Federal Government – 3. Concentration of powers
D. Unitary Government – 4. Division of powers
– 5. Administrative law
Codes:

A B C D
(a) 3 4 2 5
(
b) 2 1 4 3
(
c) 3 5 1 2
(
d) 4 1 2 5
Ans: (b)

Q23. Which of the following bodies are headed by the Prime Minister?
1. National Integration Council
2. National Water Resources Council
3. National Development Council
4. Inter-State Council
5. Zonal Councils Select the correct answer from the codes given below:
(a) 1, 3, 4 and 5
(
b) 3, 4 and 5
(
c) 1, 2, 3 and 4
(
d) 2, 3 and 4
Ans: (c)

Q24. Which of the following statements does not reflect the jurisdiction of the Estimates Committee?
(a) It suggests alternative policies in order to bring efficiency and economy in administration
(
b) It examines whether the money is well laid out within the limits of the policy implied in the estimates
(
c) It suggests the form in which estimates are to be presented to Parliament
(
d) It helps in checking Governmental extravagance in making demands as its report is debated in the House
Ans: (d)

Q25. Consider the following statements:
1. The district judge exercises both judicial and administrative powers.
2. The sessions judge has no power to impose capital punishment.
Which of the statements given above is / are correct?
(a) Only 1
(
b) Only 2
(
c) Both 1 and 2
(
d) Neither 1 nor 2
Ans: (a)

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