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038 Indian Polity & Constitution Previous Year Questions

Indian Polity & Constitution Previous Year Questions

Q1. In 1955, the President appointed an Official Language Commission under the chairmanship of:
(a) G.B. Pant
(
b) S.K. Dhar
(
c) B.G. Kher
(
d) H.N. Kunzru
Ans: (c)

Q2. Match List I with List II and select the correct answer using the codes given below:
List-I List-II
(Amendment) (Nature of Amendment)
A. 42nd Amendment Act, 1976 – 1. Disqualification for defection
B. 52nd Amendment Act, 1985 – 2. It amended Schedule VIII to the Constitution and added Sindhi as recognised language.
C.
62nd Amendment Act, 1989 – 3. This Amendment inserted three new words ‘Socialist’, ‘Secular’ and ‘Integrity’ in the Preamble.
D.
21st Amendment Act, 1966 – 4. This Amendment has extended the reservation of seats for SCs and STs in the House of the People and State Legislative Assemblies.
Codes:
A B C D
(a) 3 1 2 4
(
b) 1 3 4 2
(
c) 3 1 4 2
(
d) 1 3 2 4
Ans: (c)

Q3. Which one of the following Articles of the Constitution of India provides for the creation of the All-India Services?
(a) Article 300
(
b) Article 312
(
c) Article 320
(
d) Article 321
Ans: (b)

Q4. The Parliament of India passed the States Reorganisation Act in 1956 to create:
(a) 16 States and 3 Union Territories
(
b) 15 States and 5 Union Territories
(
c) 14 States and 6 Union Territories
(
d) 24 States and 9 Union Territories
Ans: (c)

Q5. Protection of lakes is an objective expressly stated in which one of the following ?
(a) Fundamental Duties
(
b) Directive Principles of State Policy
(
c) Fundamental Rights
(
d) Eleventh Schedule to the Constitution
Ans: (a)

Q6. The President of India:
(a) Can be a member of Parliament
(
b) Is part of Parliament
(
c) Cannot stand for election for more than two terms
(
d) Presides over joint sittings of both the Houses of Parliament
Ans: (b)

Q7. Which one among the following carries out demarcation of electoral constituencies in each State and allocation of seats in the Lok Sabha to different States?
(a) Election Commission
(
b) Register General
(
c) Delimitation Commission
(
d) States Reorganisation Commission
Ans: (c)

Q8. When there is no majority party in the State Legislative Assembly, the principal consideration governing the choice of the Chief Minister by the Governor of the State is the:
(a) Ability of the person who is most likely to command a stable majority in the House
(
b) Largest political party in the Legislative Assembly
(
c) The combination of several parties as a unit
(
d) The loyalty and support of the party members to their respective party programmes and policies
Ans: (a)

Q9. Which one of the following statements with regard to Finance Commission in States is not correct?
(a) The 74th Amendment of the Constitution of India provides for the establishment of a Finance Commission by a State to review the financial position of the municipalities.
(
b) The Chief Minister of the State decides the composition of the Finance Commission and nominates the Chairman.
(
c) The Finance Commission is expected to recommend the division of resources between the State and the municipalities within the State.
(
d) The Finance Commission is authorised to make recommendations with regard to grants-in-aid to the Panchayats from the Consolidated Fund of a State.
Ans: (b)

Q10. Who/Which among the following performs the watchdog functions in the financial management in the Government of India?
1. The Controller General of Accounts
2. The Comptroller and Auditor-General of India
3. The Public Accounts Committee
4. The Finance Minister Choose the correct answer from the codes given below:
(a) 1 and 2
(
b) 2 and 3
(
c) Only 3
(
d) 1 and 4
Ans: (b)

Q11. Which Article of the Constitution of India deals with administrative tribunals?
(a) Article 322
(
b) Article 323
(
c) Article 323-A
(
d) Article 323-B
Ans: (c)

Q12. Who among the following was never a Deputy Prime Minister of India?
(a) Devi Lal
(
b) G.L. Nanda
(
c) L.K. Advani
(
d) Y.B. Chavan
Ans: (b)

Q13. In which one of the following cases, the Supreme Court gave verdict which has a direct bearing on the Centre-State relations?
(a) Keshavananda Bharati case
(
b) Vishakha case
(
c) S R Bommai case
(
d) Indira Sawhney case
Ans: (c)

Q14. Match List I with List II and select the correct answer using the codes given below:
List-I List-II
(Writs) (Ground)
A. Habeas Corpus – 1. Non-performance of public duties
B. Mandamus – 2. Unlawful detention
C. Quo-Warranto – 3. Correctional directions to subordinate courts
D. Certiorari – 4. Unlawful occupation of public office
Codes:

A B C D
(a) 3 4 1 2
(
b) 2 1 4 3
(
c) 3 1 4 2
(
d) 2 4 1 3
Ans: (b)

Q15. Statement I:By amendment, Parliament cannot destroy the basic features of the Constitution.
Statement II:The power to amend does not include the power to abrogate the Constitution.
Codes:
(a) Both the statements are individually true and Statement II is the correct explanation of Statement I.
(
b) Both the statements are individually true but Statement II is not the correct explanation of Statement I.
(
c) Statement I is true but Statement II is false.
(
d) Statement I is false but Statement II is true.
Ans: (a)

Q16. Assertion (A) :The President of India can issue a proclamation of emergency under Article 352 on the advice of the Prime Minister.
Reason (R) :When a proclamation of emergency is in operation, the President may suspend the operation of all the fundamental rights except Articles 20 and 21.
Codes:

(a) Both A and R are individually true and R is the correct explanation of A
(
b) Both A and R are individually true but R is not the correct explanation of A
(
c) A is true but R is false
(
d) A is false but R is true
Ans: (d)

Q17. The question asked orally after the Question Hour in the House is called:
(a) Supplementary question
(
b) Short-notice question
(
c) Starred question
(
d) Unstarred question
Ans: (a)

Q18. The Upper Chamber of the State Legislature, besides other members, consists of:
(a) 1/12 elected by teachers’ electorate; 1/3 elected by municipalities; 1/12 elected by registered graduates
(
b) 1/12 elected by registered graduates; 1/12 elected by women; 1/3 elected by trade unions and co-operative institutions
(
c) 1/12 elected by women; 1/12 elected by municipalities and other local bodies; 1/3 elected by teachers’ electorate
(
d) 1/3 directly elected by the people; 1/12 elected by registered graduates; 1/12 elected by co-operative banks, women’s organisations and other co-operative bodies
Ans: (a)

Q19. The Chairperson of a District Planning Committee forwards the development plan recommended by the Committee to which one of the following?
(a) The State Government
(
b) The District Development Officer
(
c) The District Collector
(
d) Chairperson, Zilla Parishad
Ans: (a)

Q20. Consider the following statements with regard to the Advocate General of a State:
1. He holds office during the pleasure of the President of India.
2. He can take part in the proceedings of the State Legislative Assembly.
3. His salary is paid from the Consolidated Fund of India.
4. He advises the State Government on legal matters.
Which of these is/are correct?
(a) 2 and 4
(
b) Only 3
(
c) Only 1
(
d) 1, 2, 3 and 4
Ans: (a)

Q21. Who among the following advocated party-less democracy in India?
(a) Mahatma Gandhi
(
b) M.N. Roy
(
c) Jayaprakash Narayan
(
d) Acharya Vinoba Bhave
Ans: (c)

Q22. Consider the following statements associated with Fundamental Duties in Part IV-A of the Constitution.
It shall be the duty of every citizen of India:
1. To owe allegiance to the nation and to uphold and protect the sovereignty and security of India
2. To uphold and protect the sovereignty, unity and integrity of India
3. To defend the country and render national service when called upon to do so Which of the above statements are correct?
(a) 1, 2 and 3
(
b) 2 and 3
(
c) 1 and 2
(
d) 1 and 3
Ans: (b)

Q23. Match List I with List II and select the correct answer using the codes given below:
List-I List-II
(Institutions) (Articles of Constitution)
A. Comptroller & Auditor General of India – 1. Article 315
B. Finance Commission – 2. Article 280
C. Administrative Tribunals – 3. Article 148
D. Union Public Service Commission – 4. Article 323 (A)
Codes:

A B C D
(a) 3 4 2 1
(
b) 1 2 4 3
(
c) 3 2 4 1
(
d) 1 4 2 3
Ans: (c)

Q24. Match List I with List II and select the correct answer using the codes given below:
List-I (Writ) List-II (Purpose)
A. Writ of mandamus – 1. Prohibition of an action
B. Writ of injunction – 2. Direction to the official for the performance of a duty
C. Writ of certiorari – 3. Trial of the right to a title or elective office
D. Writ of quo-warranto – 4. Transferring of a case from lower court to a court of higher jurisdiction
Codes:

A B C D
(a) 2 1 4 3
(
b) 1 2 3 4
(
c) 3 4 2 1
(
d) 4 3 1 2
Ans: (a)

Q25. Assertion (A) :K.C. Wheare calls Indian Constitution a quasi-federal Constitution.
Reason (R) :There are three lists (Union, State and Concurrent) in the Seventh Schedule of the Constitution of India dividing powers between the Centre and the state and giving residuary powers to the central government.
Codes:
(a) Both A and R are individually true and R is the correct explanation of A
(
b) Both A and R are individually true but R is not the correct explanation of A
(
c) A is true but R is false
(
d) A is false but R is true
Ans: (a)

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