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036 Indian Polity & Constitution Previous Year Questions

Indian Polity & Constitution Previous Year Questions

Q1. Consider the following Vice-Presidents of India:
1. V.V. Giri
2. M. Hidayatullah
3. B.D. Jatti
4. G.S. Pathak Which one of the following is the correct chronology of their tenures?
(a) 1-4-3-2
(
b) 2-1-3-4
(
c) 3-2-1-4
(
d) 4-1-3-2
Ans: (a)

Q2. Match List I with List II and select the correct answer using the codes given below:
List-I List-II
(Officials) (Functions)
A. The Speaker – 1. Fixes the time limit for discussion of Demands
B. The Finance Minister – 2. Examines the financial operation of the executive
C. The President – 3. Makes mention in the Parliament about the annual financial statement
D. The Comptroller and Auditor-General – 4. Participates in the formulation of Five Year Plans
Codes:

A B C D
(a) 1 4 3 2
(
b) 4 1 2 3
(
c) 1 4 2 3
(
d) 4 1 3 2
Ans: (a)

Q3. Which of the following are envisaged by the Right Against Exploitation in the Constitution of India?
1. Prohibition of traffic in human beings and forced labour
2. Abolition of untouchability
3. Protection of the interests of minorities
4. Prohibition of employment of children in factories and mines
Select the correct answer using the codes given below:
(a) 1 and 2
(
b) 1 and 3
(
c) 2, 3 and 4
(
d) 1 and 4
Ans: (d)

Q4. Which one of the following cases prompted the Parliament to enact 24th Constitutional Amendment Act ?
(a) Golaknath case
(
b) Shankari Prasad case
(
c) Kesavananda Bharati case
(
d) Minerva Mills case
Ans: (a)

Q5. Which one of the following is not correct regarding the executive powers of the President?
(a) He must be kept informed by the Prime Minister of all decisions of the Cabinet.
(
b) He presides over the meetings of the Council of Ministers when he deems fit.
(
c) He can ask the Prime Minister to submit a decision of any minister for the consideration of the Council of Ministers.
(
d) He must be supplied with such other information about the administration of the country as he asks for it.
Ans: (b)

Q6. The estimates of expenditure from the Consolidated Fund of India included in the budget and required to be voted by the Lok Sabha are submitted in the form of:
(a) Charged Expenditure
(
b) Capital Budget
(
c) Demands for Grants
(
d) Revenue Budget
Ans: (c)

Q7. Consider the following statements:
1. Parliament may by law provide for the abolition of the Legislative Council of a State having such a council or for the creation of such a council in a state having no such council.
2. The total number of members in the Legislative Council of a State having such a council shall not exceed one half of the total number of members in the Legislative Assembly of that State.
Which of the statements given above is / are correct?
(a) Only 1
(
b) Only 2
(
c) Both 1 and 2
(
d) Neither 1 nor 2
Ans: (a)

Q8. In which pair of Schedules of the Constitution, the functions of Panchayats and Municipalities are incorporated?
(a) 8th and 9th
(
b) 9th and 10th
(
c) 10th and 11th
(
d) 11th and 12th
Ans: (d)

Q9. Consider the following statements:
1. Like the Judge of a High Court, the Advocate-General of a State is appointed by the President of India.
2. A person who is qualified to be appointed a judge of a High Court, can be appointed as Advocate General.
Which of the statement (s) given above is / are correct?
(a) Only 1
(
b) Only 2
(
c) Both 1 and 2
(
d) Neither 1 nor 2
Ans: (b)

Q10. Consider the following political parties of India:
1. DMK
2. CPI (M)
3. AGP
4. TDP Which one of the following is the correct chronology of their formation?
(a) 1-2-4-3
(
b) 1-2-3-4
(
c) 2-1-4-3
(
d) 4-3-2-1
Ans: (a)

Q11. Statement I:Adjournment is a short recess within the session of the Parliament ordered by the Presiding Officer of the House.
Statement II:When the Presiding Officer adjourns the House without fixing any date or time of the next meeting of the House, it is known as adjournment sine die.
Codes:
(a) Both the statements are individually true and Statement II is the correct explanation of Statement I.
(
b) Both the statements are individually true but Statement II is not the correct explanation of Statement I.
(
c) Statement I is true but Statement II is false.
(
d) Statement I is false but Statement II is true.
Ans: (b)

Q12. In the Constitution of India, economic and social planning is included in the:
(a) Union List of the VII Schedule
(
b) State List of the VII Schedule
(
c) Concurrent List of the VII Schedule
(
d) None of the above
Ans: (c)

Q13. The Right to Property was converted into a legal right from a Fundamental Right, because it:
(a) Tied the hands of the government to prevent corruption
(
b) Gave rise to litigations that made judiciary overburden
(
c) Led to severe conflict between judiciary and the Parliament
(
d) Increased public resentment
Ans: (c)

Q14. Indian Federation closely resembles:
(a) U.S.A.
(
b) Canada
(
c) Australia
(
d) Nigeria
Ans: (b)

Q15. Consider the following statements:
1. No ground has been mentioned in the constitution for the removal of Vice-President.
2. No resolution for the removal of Vice-President can be moved unless at least 21 days’ advance notice has been given.
Which of the statements given above is / are correct?
(a) Only 1
(
b) Only 2
(
c) Both 1 and 2
(
d) Neither 1 nor 2
Ans: (a)

Q16. Which one of the following committees scrutinize in detail the report of the Comptroller and Auditor-General of India?
(a) Public Accounts Committee
(
b) Estimates Committee
(
c) Select Committee of Expenditure
(
d) Consultative Committee of the Finance Ministry
Ans: (a)

Q17. Under the provisions of the Constitution of India, who is entitled to be consulted by the President of India in the matter of the appointments of the Judges of the High Courts?
(a) The Union Minister of Law and Justice
(
b) The Advocate General of the State
(
c) The Attorney-General of India
(
d) The Governor
Ans: (d)

Q18. Sixth Schedule to the Constitution of India makes special administrative provisions in regard to the tribal areas in:
(a) Assam, Meghalaya, Tripura and Mizoram
(
b) Meghalaya, Assam, Nagaland and Manipur
(
c) Tripura, Manipur, Mizoram and Meghalaya
(
d) Arunanchal Pradesh, Nagaland, Assam and Tripura
Ans: (a)

Q19. Consider the following statements:
1. The National Human Rights Commission is the watchdog of human rights in the country.
2. The National Human Rights Commission is an independent body.
Which of the statements given above is / are correct?
(a) Only 1
(
b) Only 2
(
c) Both 1 and 2
(
d) Neither 1 nor 2
Ans: (c)

Q20. Which one of the following statements is not an explanation of the general characteristics of a pressure group?
(a) A major objective of a pressure group is to acquire, consolidate and extend political power.
(
b) A pressure group aims at projecting and fulfilling specific interests.
(
c) A pressure group seeks to influence decision-makers in a manner favourable to its specific interests.
(
d) A pressure group is generally too limited in its organisation and goals to be mistaken for a bonafide political party.
Ans: (a)

Q21. Which one of the following pairs is correctly matched?
(a) Writ of Habeas Corpus : Issued only to the state
(
b) Writ of Mandamus : Issued to the public servant
(
c) Writ of Quo-Warranto : Issued to the subordinate courts
(
d) Writ of Prohibition : Issued to the private individual
Ans: (b)

Q22. Match List I with List II and select the correct answer using the codes given below:
List-I List-II
(Fund) (Explanation)
A. Consolidated Fund – 1. Unforeseen expenditure
B. Contingency Fund – 2. Safety net to workers in sick enterprises and to finance their training
C. Public Account – 3. Receipts through PF, small savings and other deposits
D. National Renewal Fund – 4. All revenue receipts, loans raised and recovery of loans
Codes:

A B C D
(a) 2 3 1 4
(
b) 2 1 3 4
(
c) 4 3 1 2
(
d) 4 1 3 2
Ans: (d)

Q23. Assertion (A) :An accused person has been guaranteed the right to be informed of the nature and cause of accusation.
Reason (R) :The accused person can get his conviction quashed upon vague and obscure charges.
Codes:
(a) Both A and R are individually true and R is the correct explanation of A
(
b) Both A and R are individually true but R is not the correct explanation of A
(
c) A is true but R is false
(
d) A is false but R is true
Ans: (a)

Q24. The idea of the Union giving directions to the States was adopted by the makers of the Indian Constitution from:
(a) The Government of India Act, 1935
(
b) The US Constitution
(
c) The Soviet Constitution
(
d) The Australian Constitution
Ans: (a)

Q25. Which one among the following features of the Constitution of India is indicative of the fact that the real executive power is vested in the Council of Ministers headed by the Prime Minister?
(a) Federalism
(
b) Representative legislature
(
c) Universal adult franchise
(
d) Parliamentary democracy
Ans: (d)

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