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033 Indian Polity & Constitution Previous Year Questions

Indian Polity & Constitution Previous Year Questions

Q1. Which of the following are not subject to the detailed audit of the Comptroller and Auditor General of India?
1. All cooperative societies
2. All public corporations
3. All civil expenditure
4. All defence expenditure Select the correct answer from the codes given below:
(a) 1 and 2
(
b) 2 and 3
(
c) 3 and 4
(
d) 1 and 4
Ans: (d)

Q2. Fundamental rights guaranteed in the Indian Constitution can be suspended only by:
(a) A proclamation of national emergency
(
b) An Act passed by the Parliament
(
c) An amendment of the Constitution
(
d) The judicial decisions of the Supreme Court
Ans: (a)

Q3. The structure of the Indian Constitution is:
(a) Federal in form and unitary in spirit
(
b) Unitary
(
c) Unitary in form and federal in spirit
(
d) Pure federal
Ans: (a)

Q4. The Vice-President of India can resign from his office at any time by addressing the resignation letter to the:
(a) Deputy Chairman of Rajya Sabha
(
b) Chief Justice of India
(
c) President of India
(
d) Speaker of Lok Sabha
Ans: (c)

Q5. Which one of the following statements is not correct with regard to Parliamentary Committees?
(a) The Public Accounts Committee and the Public Undertakings Committee are joint committees of both the Houses of Parliament.
(
b) Seventeen Departmentally Related Committees were set-up in early 1990s.
(
c) There are Standing and Ad hoc Committees.
(
d) The Estimates Committee and the Public Accounts Committee are always headed by a senior leader of the ruling party/coalition.
Ans: (d)

Q6. The power of judicial review means:
(a) The power of the courts to define and interpret constitution
(
b) The power of the courts to declare null and void any legislative or executive act, which is against the provisions of the Constitution
(
c) The power of the judiciary to define and interpret laws
(
d) The power of the courts to legislate when there is no statutory provision
Ans: (b)

Q7. Who/Which of the following is empowered to declare an area to be a scheduled area?
(a) Governor of the State
(
b) Legislative Assembly of the State
(
c) Parliament of India
(
d) President of India
Ans: (d)

Q8. Which one of the following is the first and foremost function of the National Development Council?
(a) To effect co-operation of efforts between the Union executive and the bureaucracy.
(
b) To effect co-operation of efforts between the Union executive and the Parliament.
(
c) To achieve the targets of the plan and to promote administrative efficiency.
(
d) To effect co-ordination of plan efforts among the Union Government, the Planning Commission and the State Governments.
Ans: (d)

Q9. Statement I:The provision of the Tenth Schedule pertaining to exemption from disqualification in case of split by one-third members of legislature party has been deleted by the 91st Amendment.
Statement II:The Dinesh Goswami Committee, the Law Commission of India and the Constitutional Review Commission recommended ommission of the provision of the Tenth Schedule pertaining to exemption from disqualification in case of splits.
Codes:
(a) Both the statements are individually true and Statement II is the correct explanation of Statement I.
(
b) Both the statements are individually true but Statement II is not the correct explanation of Statement I.
(
c) Statement I is true but Statement II is false.
(
d) Statement I is false but Statement II is true.
Ans: (a)

Q10. Consider the following statements:
1. No person is eligible for appointment as Governor unless he has completed the age of thirty years.
2. The same person can be appointed as Governor for three States.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a) Only 1
(
b) Only 2
(
c) Both 1 and 2
(
d) Neither 1 nor 2
Ans: (b)

Q11. Consider the following statements:
1. Like a Member of the Union Public Service Commission, the Chief Information Commissioner holds the office for a period of six years or till he attains the age of 65 years, whichever is earlier.
2. The Chief Information Commissioner shall only be removed from his office in like manner and on the like grounds as that for a Member of the Union Public Service Commission.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a) Only 1
(
b) Only 2
(
c) Both 1 and 2
(
d) Neither 1 nor 2
Ans: (b)

Q12. Which one of the following is the correct association?
(a) Indra Sawhney Case : Basic structure of the Constitution
(
b) Minerva Mills Case : Invocation of Article 356
(
c) Menaka Gandhi Case : Just, fair and reasonable procedure of law
(
d) Gopalan Case : Financial Emergency
Ans: (c)

Q13. Which of the following constitutional provisions facilitate Union control over States?
1. All-India services
2. Grants-in-aid
3. Inter-State Councils
Select the correct answer using the codes given below:
(a) 1 and 2 only
(
b) 2 and 3 only
(
c) 1 and 3 only
(
d) 1, 2 and 3
Ans: (d)

Q14. Consider the following statements:
1. All decisions of the Council of Ministers relating to the administration of the Union must be communicated to the President.
2. The President can call for information relating to proposals for legislation.
3. The President can direct that any matter on which decision has been taken by a Minister should be placed before the Council of Ministers.
4. The President has the right to address and send messages to the Council of Ministers to elicit specific information.
Which of these is / are correct?
(a) Only 1
(
b) 3 and 4
(
c) 1, 2 and 3
(
d) 1, 2, 3 and 4
Ans: (c)

Q15. Which one of the following is not a sub-forum of the Parliamentary Forum on Youth?
(a) Sub-Forum on Empowerment
(
b) Sub-Forum on Health
(
c) Sub-Forum on Education
(
d) Sub-Forum on Employment
Ans: (a)

Q16. Who/which of the following is authorized to provide for the creation of a committee of the Manipur Legislative Assembly consisting of the members elected from the Hill areas of the State?
(a) Governor of Manipur
(
b) Chief Minister of Manipur
(
c) Parliament of India
(
d) President of India
Ans: (d)

Q17. Under the Constitution of India, the power to extend functions of the Union Public Service Commission has been vested in the:
(a) President of India
(
b) Parliament
(
c) Chairman of the Commission
(
d) Ministry of Personnel
Ans: (b)

Q18. The Central Information Commission consists of a Chief Information Commissioner and not more than:
(a) Five Information Commissioners
(
b) Ten Information Commissioners
(
c) Six Information Commissioners
(
d) Eight Information Commissioners
Ans: (b)

Q19. Which of the following were the main areas of concern for the “National Commission to Review the Working of the Constitution” constituted by the Government of India in the year 2000?
1. Electoral Reforms
2. Union-State Relations
3. Enlargement of Fundamental Rights
4. Administrative System and Standards in Public Life
Select the correct answer using the codes given below:
(a) 1 and 2
(
b) 2 and 3
(
c) 1 and 3
(
d) 1, 2, 3 and 4
Ans: (d)

Q20. Assertion (A) :The Government cannot be held liable for the torts committed by its servants.
Reason (R) :It was affirmed by the Supreme Court that, if injury is caused to any citizen in consequence of negligent act of Government servant, the Government cannot claim sovereign immunity.
Codes:
(a) Both A and R are individually true and R is the correct explanation of A.
(
b) Both A and R are individually true but R is not the correct explanation of A.
(
c) A is true but R is false.
(
d) A is false but R is true.
Ans: (d)

Q21. An executive action taken during national emergency in violation of Article 19 of the Constitution of India:
(a) Can only be challenged during the emergency
(
b) Can only be challenged after the emergency is over
(
c) Cannot be challenged at all
(
d) Can be challenged during or after the emergency
Ans: (c)

Q22. Match List I with List II and select the correct answer using the codes given below:
List-I (Acts) List-II (Provisions)
A. Government of India Act, 1858 – 1. All-India Federation of Provinces and PrincelyStates
B. Indian Councils Act, 1861 – 2. Appointment of Secretary of State for India
C. Indian Councils Act, 1909 – 3. Beginning of representation and legislative devolution
D. Government of India Act, 1919 – 4. Dyarchy in Provinces
– 5. Morley-Minto Reforms
Codes:

A B C D
(a) 1 2 3 4
(
b) 2 3 5 4
(
c) 3 4 5 1
(
d) 2 3 4 1
Ans: (b)

Q23. The 93rd amendment to the Constitution of India deals with :
(a) Right to education
(
b) Rights in respect of physically handicapped persons for appointments in the services under the state
(
c) Reservation for admission in educational institutions
(
d) Reservation in the matters of promotion in the services under the State in favour of the other backward classes.
Ans: (c)

Q24. Which of the following are duties of the Inter-State Council created under Article 263 of the Constitution of India?
1. Inquiring into and advising upon disputes which may have arisen between/among States.
2. Investigating and discussing subjects in which some or all of the States, or the Union and one or more of the States have a common interest.
3. Making recommendations upon any such subject for the better coordination of policy and action with respect to that subject.
4. Ensuring that officers belonging to All-India Services posted in various States are not punished by the judiciary for acts of omission.
Choose the correct answer from the codes given below:
(a) 1, 2 and 3
(
b) 1, 2 and 4
(
c) 1, 3 and 4
(
d) 2, 3 and 4
Ans: (a)

Q25. Consider the following statements:
The expenditure charged on the Consolidated Fund of India comprises:
1. Pension payable to Judges of High Court
2. Debt charges for which the Government of India is liable
3. Salary, allowances and pension payable to Comptroller and Auditor General of India Which of the statements given above are correct?
(a) 1, 2 and 3
(
b) 1 and 3 only
(
c) 2 and 3 only
(
d) 1 and 2 only
Ans: (a)

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