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031 Indian Polity & Constitution Previous Year Questions

Indian Polity & Constitution Previous Year Questions

Q1. Which of the following are the grounds on which discrimination of citizens for admission into educational institutions is constitutionally prohibited?
1. Religion and Race
2. Sex and Place of birth
3. Nationality and Colour
4. Age and Nativity Choose the correct answer from the codes given below:
(a) 1, 2, 3 and 4
(
b) 1 and 2
(
c) 1, 2 and 3
(
d) 1, 2 and 4
Ans: (b)

Q2. Which of the following is/are correctly matched?
– 1. Duty levied by the Union but collected and appropriated by the States :
Succession duty and estate duty in respect of property other than agricultural land – 2. Taxes levied and collected by the Union but assigned to the States :
Stamp duties and duties of excise on medicinal and toilet preparations Choose the correct answer from the codes given below:
(a) Only 1
(
b) Only 2
(
c) Both 1 and 2
(
d) Neither 1 nor 2
Ans: (d)

Q3. According to the Constitution of India, if the President so requires, it shall be the duty of the Prime Minister to submit for the consideration of the Council of Ministers any matter on which a decision has been taken by a Minister, but which has not been considered by the Council. This ensures:
(a) Collective responsibility
(
b) The status of the Prime Minister as the first among the equals
(
c) The power of the President to nullify the decision of the Minister
(
d) The inherent power of the Minister to take a decision independent of the Council of Ministers
Ans: (a)

Q4. Who is the Speaker of Lok Sabha when the first Parliamentary Forum was constituted?
(a) Ms. Meira Kumar
(
b) Manohar Joshi
(
c) Somnath Chatterjee
(
d) G.M.C. Balayogi
Ans: (c)

Q5. Under the provisions of Article 371-E of the Constitution of India, who/which of the following is empowered to provide for the establishment of a Central University in the State of Andhra Pradesh?
(a) President of India
(
b) Parliament of India
(
c) Legislative Assembly of Andhra Pradesh
(
d) Governor of Andhra Pradesh
Ans: (b)

Q6. Which of the following statements is not true?
(a) A member of the Union Public Service Commission (UPSC) holds office for a term of six years or until he attains the age of 65 years.
(
b) The Chairperson of UPSC is not eligible for further employment under the Government of India or Government of any State after retirement.
(
c) One half of the members of the UPSC should be persons who have held office for at least 10 years either under Government of India or Government of State.
(
d) The Chairperson and other members of the UPSC are appointed by the Prime Minister.
Ans: (d)

Q7. The Central Information Commission was established in:
(a) 2000
(
b) 2002
(
c) 2005
(
d) 2006
Ans: (c)

Q8. Which of the following in respect of the enlargement of Fundamental Rights were recommended by the “National Commission to Review the Working of the Constitution” constituted by the Government of India in the year 2000?
1. Every person has a right to respect for his private and family life.
2. Every person has a right to leave the territory of India and every citizen shall have the right to return to India.
3. Every person who has been illegally deprived of his right to life or liberty shall have an enforceable right to compensation.
Select the correct answer using the codes given below:
(a) 1 and 2 only
(
b) 2 and 3 only
(
c) 1 and 3 only
(
d) 1, 2 and 3
Ans: (d)

Q9. Which one of the following statements is correct?
The members of the Constituent Assembly were:
(a) Elected through indirect election by the members of the Provincial Legislative Assemblies
(
b) Elected directly by the people
(
c) Nominated by the Government
(
d) Elected by the local self-government bodies
Ans: (a)

Q10. Which of the following statements are not correct?
1. A Member of UPSC holds office for a term of six years or until he attains the age of 65 years.
2. A Member of UPSC is eligible for re-appointment for the same post for a second term.
3. A Member of UPSC can accept employment under Central or State government after retirement.
4. A Member of UPSC can accept employment as a member of State P.S.C. after retirement.
Select the correct answer from the codes given below:
(a) 1 and 2
(
b) 1 and 4
(
c) 1, 2 and 3
(
d) 2, 3 and 4
Ans: (d)

Q11. In the Federation established by the Act of 1935, residuary powers were given to the:
(a) Federal Legislature
(
b) Provincial Legislature
(
c) Governor General
(
d) Provincial Governor
Ans: (c)

Q12. Article 30 of the Indian Constitution deals with the :
(a) Freedom of conscience
(
b) Right to propagate religion
(
c) Right of minorities to establish and manage educational institutions
(
d) Cultural and educational rights of the majority community
Ans: (c)

Q13. Consider the following statements:
1. Parliament may by law provides that neither the Supreme Court nor any other court shall exercise jurisdiction in respect of any dispute with respect to the use, distribution or control of the waters of any Inter-State river or river valley.
2. River Boards Act, 1956, provides for reference of an Inter-State river dispute for arbitration by a Water Dispute Tribunal.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a) Only 1
(
b) Only 2
(
c) Both 1 and 2
(
d) Neither 1 nor 2
Ans: (a)

Q14. What does the ‘Rule of Lapse’ mean?
(a) All pending bills in Parliament lapse with its prorogation.
(
b) All appropriations voted by the Parliament expire at the end of the financial year.
(
c) The demand for grants of a ministry lapses with criticism of its policy by the opposition.
(
d) The appropriation bill lapses if it is not returned by the Rajya Sabha within 14 days.
Ans: (b)

Q15. Law declared by the Supreme Court shall be binding on all the courts within the territory of India. Here ‘courts’ mean
(a) All courts including the Supreme Court of India
(
b) All courts except the Supreme Court of India
(
c) All courts including the Supreme Court except such benches of the Supreme Court which consists of seven judges or more
(
d) All courts including Supreme Court except a bench of the Supreme Court which consists of all the judges of the Supreme Court
Ans: (b)

Q16. Which of the following is/are correct with respect to the 73rd Amendment to the Constitution of India?
1. Constitutional status to Panchayats
2. Reservation of seats for women belonging to the Scheduled Castes or the Scheduled Tribes
3. Providing permanent structures for district planning Select the correct answer from the codes given below:
(a) 1 and 2
(
b) Only 1
(
c) 2 and 3
(
d) Only 3
Ans: (a)

Q17. A Joint Public Service Commission for two or more States can be established by:
(a) The concerned States
(
b) An Act of Parliament
(
c) The Union Public Service Commission
(
d) The Government of India
Ans: (b)

Q18. The Central Bureau of Investigation was set-up in:
(a) 1962
(
b) 1963
(
c) 1964
(
d) 1965
Ans: (b)

Q19. Which one of the following is mentioned in the Union List?
(a) Excise duties on alcoholic liquor, opium, Indian hemp and other narcotic drugs
(
b) Sales tax
(
c) Corporation tax
(
d) Professional tax
Ans: (c)

Q20. Which one of the following is not correctly matched?
(a) Abolition of Untouchability : Article 17
(
b) Reservation of appointments or posts in favour of any backward class of citizens : Article 16
(
c) Prohibition of discrimination on grounds of religion, race, caste, sex or place of birth : Article 18
(
d) Laws inconsistent with or in derogation of the fundamental rights : Article 13
Ans: (c)

Q21. Which of the following are the common compulsory provisions of the 73rd and 74th Constitutional Amendment Acts?
1. Five yearly elections
2. Reservation for backward classes
3. Reservation for women
4. Nagar Panchayats
Select the correct answer using the codes given below:
(a) 2 and 3
(
b) 1 and 4
(
c) 1, 2, 3 and 4
(
d) 1 and 3
Ans: (d)

Q22. Which one of the following Schedules of the Constitution of India incorporates salaries and allowances of members of Parliament, the Chairman and Deputy Chairman of the Rajya Sabha, and Speaker and Deputy Speaker of the Lok Sabha, as one of the items ?
(a) Fifth Schedule
(
b) Seventh Schedule
(
c) Ninth Schedule
(
d) Tenth Schedule
Ans: (b)

Q23. Which of the following statements is/are correct?
1. 42nd Amendment to the Constitution of India gave primacy to Directive Principles over Fundamental Rights.
2. Minerva Mills case ruled that there has to be a balance between Part III and Part IV of the Constitution.
3. National Commission for Review of the Working of the Constitution has recommended that Directive Principles be made justiceable.
Select the correct answer using the codes given below:
(a) 1 and 2
(
b) 2 and 3
(
c) 1 and 3
(
d) 2 only
Ans: (a)

Q24. Which one of the following is the correct statement?
Proclamation of Emergency in a State under Article 356 can continue beyond one year if:
(a) The High Court of the State certifies that the situation in the State is very serious
(
b) The Governor of the State certifies that the law and order situation is not under control
(
c) The Election Commission certifies that it is difficult to hold elections to the Assembly
(
d) The President is satisfied about the grave situation in the State through independent investigation
Ans: (c)

Q25. During the discussion on the Demands for Grants, cut motions can be moved to reduce the amount of a demand. Which of the following categories are classified as cut-motion?
1. Policy cut
2. Economy cut
3. Token cut
4. Programme cut
Select the correct answer using the codes given below:
(a) 1 and 2
(
b) 2 and 4
(
c) 1, 2 and 3
(
d) 3 and 4
Ans: (c)

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