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029 Indian Polity & Constitution Previous Year Questions

Indian Polity & Constitution Previous Year Questions

Q1. Consider the following objectives:
1. Bringing about uniformity in the structure of local governments throughout the country
2. Ensuring regular and rational flow of funds from the State’s revenue
3. Having properly elected governments at regular intervals
4. Having single unified authority for the city’s management and development Which of these did the 74th Amendment to the Constitution of India, try to inject into the working of urban local bodies?
(a) 1 and 2
(
b) 1, 3 and 4
(
c) 1, 2 and 3
(
d) 2, 3 and 4
Ans: (c)

Q2. Consider the following statements:
1. The Comptroller and Auditor-General of India has no control over the issue of money from the Consolidated Fund of India.
2. The term of the office of the Comptroller and Auditor General of India has been fixed by an Act enacted by Parliament.
Which of the statement (s) given above is / are correct?
(a) Only 1
(
b) Only 2
(
c) Both 1 and 2
(
d) Neither 1 nor 2
Ans: (c)

Q3. In which one of the following cases, did the Supreme Court rule that the power of judicial review vested in the High Courts in respect of the decisions given by the Service Tribunals, cannot be ousted or excluded even by a Constitutional Amendment?
(a) High Court of Judicature at Bombay v. Shirish Kumar
(
b) Sampath Kumar v. Union of India
(
c) Chandra Kumar v. Union of India
(
d) All India Judges Association v. Union of India
Ans: (c)

Q4. The privilege of flying the national flag on motor cars is limited to the:
1. President
2. Vice-President
3. Governors
4. Lieutenant Governors
Select the correct answer using the codes given below:
(a) 1 and 2
(
b) 1, 2 and 3
(
c) 1, 2, 3 and 4
(
d) 1 and 3
Ans: (c)

Q5. Which of the following are the functions of the Chief Minister?
1. To communicate to the Central Government all the decisions of the Council of Ministers relating to the administration of the State.
2. To instruct District Collectors to carry out all the decisions of the Council of Ministers relating to the administration of the State.
3. To communicate to the Governor all decisions of the Council of Ministers relating to the administration of the State.
4. To communicate to the Governor all decisions of the Council of Ministers regarding proposals for legislation.
Select the correct answer from the codes given below:
(a) 1 and 2
(
b) 1 and 4
(
c) 2 and 3
(
d) 3 and 4
Ans: (d)

Q6. Which one of the following pairs is not correctly matched?
(a) Freedom of speech and expression : Include the freedom of Press
(
b) Freedom of conscience : Include the right to wear and carry kirpans by Sikhs
(
c) Right to personal liberty : Include the right to carry on any trade or business
(
d) Right to equality : Include the principle of natural justice
Ans: (c)

Q7. Which one of the following Amendments inserted provision saying that “Nothing in Article 13 shall apply to any amendments made under Article 368” ?
(a) Forty-second Amendment Act
(
b) Forty-fourth Amendment Act
(
c) Twenty-fourth Amendment Act
(
d) Twenty-second Amendment Act
Ans: (c)

Q8. Assertion (A) :The President is part of the Parliament.
Reason (R) :A bill passed by the two Houses of Parliament cannot become law without the assent of the President.
Codes:
(a) Both A and R are individually true and R is the correct explanation of A
(
b) Both A and R are individually true but R is not the correct explanation of A
(
c) A is true but R is false
(
d) A is false but R is true
Ans: (a)

Q9. Charged expenditure upon the Consolidated Fund of India:
(a) Is submitted to the vote of the Parliament
(
b) Is not submitted to the vote of Rajya Sabha
(
c) Is not submitted for the sanction of the President
(
d) Is not submitted to the vote of the Parliament
Ans: (d)

Q10. How are the salaries and allowances of the State Ministers determined?
(a) By the Home Department
(
b) By the State Legislature
(
c) By the Finance Department
(
d) By the Law Department
Ans: (b)

Q11. Consider the following statements:
1. The State Finance Commissions receive grants directly from the Finance Commission set up by the Union Government.
2. The State Finance Commissions review the economic conditions of the various Panchayati Raj Institutions and Municipal Bodies in the States.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a) Only 1
(
b) Only 2
(
c) Both 1 and 2
(
d) Neither 1 nor 2
Ans: (b)

Q12. The remuneration of the Attorney General of India is determined by:
(a) Parliament of India
(
b) President of India
(
c) Prime Minister of India
(
d) Union Cabinet
Ans: (b)

Q13. On the basis of the criterion issued by the Election Commission of India, what is the minimum number of states in which a political party must be recognised to be termed as a ‘national party’ throughout the whole of India?
(a) 3 states
(
b) 4 states
(
c) 5 states
(
d) 6 states
Ans: (b)

Q14. Which of the following are the advantages of the 73rd amendment to the Constitution of India?
1. Constitutional protection to panchayats
2. Holding of panchayat elections at regular intervals
3. Reservation of seats for SCs and STs
4. Reservation of seats for Backward Classes Select the correct answer from the codes given below:
(a) 1, 2 and 4
(
b) 1, 3 and 4
(
c) 2, 3 and 4
(
d) 1, 2 and 3
Ans: (d)

Q15. Which one of the following is not the duty of the Prime Minister?
(a) To communicate to the President all the decisions of the Council of Ministers
(
b) To furnish to the President information relating to the administration of the affairs of the State
(
c) To submit to the President the agenda of the Cabinet meeting for his approval
(
d) To submit any matter for the consideration of the Council of Ministers, if the President so requires
Ans: (c)

Q16. Which of the following are mentioned under separate Articles in Part III of the Constitution of India pertaining to Fundamental Rights?
1. Abolition of untouchability
2. Abolition of titles
3. Freedom as to payment of taxes for promotion of any particular religion
4. Protection of interests of minorities Select the correct answer by using the codes given below:
(a) 1 and 2
(
b) 2, 3 and 4
(
c) 3 and 4
(
d) 1, 2, 3 and 4
Ans: (d)

Q17. Under the Indian Constitution, the residuary powers are vested in the:
(a) Executive
(
b) Judiciary
(
c) Parliament
(
d) State legislatures
Ans: (c)

Q18. Assertion (A) :During any period when the Vice-President of India acts as President of India or discharges the functions of the President, he continues to perform the duties of the office of the chairman of the Council of States.
Reason (R) :The Vice-President of India is the ex-officio Chairman of the Council of States.
Codes:
(a) Both A and R are individually true and R is the correct explanation of A
(
b) Both A and R are individually true but R is not the correct explanation of A
(
c) A is true but R is false
(
d) A is false but R is true
Ans: (d)

Q19. Which one of the following pairs is not correctly matched?
(a) Committee on Petitions: Standing Committee to inquire
(
b) Committee on Government Assurances: Standing Committee to scrutinize
(
c) Committee on Subordinate Legislation: Standing Committee to inquire
(
d) Select or Joint Committee on Bills: Ad hoc Committee
Ans: (c)

Q20. A Judge of a High Court can be removed from office during his tenure by:
(a) The Governor, if the State Legislature passes a resolution to this effect by two-thirds majority
(
b) The President, on the basis of a resolution passed by the Parliament by two-thirds majority
(
c) The Chief Justice of the Supreme Court, on the recommendation of the Parliament
(
d) The Chief Justice of the High Court, on the recommendation of the State Legislature
Ans: (b)

Q21. Consider the following statements:
1. The Constitution of India contains separate provisions for the administration of acquired territories.
2. The constitutional provisions for the administration of union territories also apply to the acquired territories.
Which of the statements given above is / are correct?
(a) Only 1
(
b) Only 2
(
c) Both 1 and 2
(
d) Neither 1 nor 2
Ans: (b)

Q22. For which one of the following, has a provision not been explicitly stated in the Constitution of India?
(a) Inter-State Council
(
b) All India Services
(
c) Contingency Fund of India
(
d) National Development Council
Ans: (d)

Q23. Consider the following statements:
1. The anti-defection law is intended to strengthen the fabric of Indian Parliamentary democracy.
2. The anti-defection law was enacted during the Prime Ministership of P.V. Narasimha Rao.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a) Only 1
(
b) Only 2
(
c) Both 1 and 2
(
d) Neither 1 nor 2
Ans: (a)

Q24. Consider the following statements:
1. Salary and allowances of the Speaker of the Lok Sabha are charged on the Consolidated Fund of India.
2. In the Warrant of Precedence, the Speaker of Lok Sabha ranks higher than all the Union Cabinet Ministers other than Prime Minister.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a) Only 1
(
b) Only 2
(
c) Both 1 and 2
(
d) Neither 1 nor 2
Ans: (a)

Q25. The President enjoys the right to issue regulations with regard to:
(a) Andaman and Nicobar Islands
(
b) Lakshadweep
(
c) Both Andaman and Nicobar Islands, and Lakshadweep
(
d) Neither Andaman and Nicobar Islands nor Lakshadweep
Ans: (c)

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