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028 Indian Polity & Constitution Previous Year Questions

Indian Polity & Constitution Previous Year Questions

Q1. Under the provisions of the Indian Constitution, a community can be declared a minority community on the basis of:
(a) Religion only
(
b) Either religion or language
(
c) Either language or caste
(
d) Either religion or race
Ans: (b)

Q2. Consider the following statements:
The Constitution of India provides that no law of a State shall impose, or authorise the imposition of a tax on the sale or purchase of goods where such sale or purchase:
1. Takes place even within the territory of the State.
2. Takes place in the course of the import of the goods into, or export of the goods out of the territory of India.
Which of the statements given above is / are correct?
(a) Only 1
(
b) Only 2
(
c) Both 1 and 2
(
d) Neither 1 nor 2
Ans: (b)

Q3. Assertion (A) :The estimates that relate to the expenditure charged upon the Consolidate Fund of India shall not be submitted to the vote of Parliament.
Reason (R) :Parliament is not empowered to discuss expenditure charged upon the Consolidated Fund of India.
Codes:
(a) Both A and R are individually true and R is the correct explanation of A
(
b) Both A and R are individually true but R is not the correct explanation of A
(
c) A is true but R is false
(
d) A is false but R is true
Ans: (c)

Q4. Match List I with List II and select the correct answer by using the codes given below:
List-I List-II
(Jurisdiction of Supreme Court) (Type of Cases)
A. Appellate Jurisdiction – 1. Acts as a court of record and also has power to review its own judgements
B. Advisory Jurisdiction – 2. Any question of law or fact of public importance referred
C. Miscellaneous Powers – 3. Civil cases, criminal cases and constitutional cases
D. Original Jurisdiction – 4. Acts as a federal court
Codes:

A B C D
(a) 3 2 1 4
(
b) 2 3 1 4
(
c) 3 4 2 1
(
d) 2 4 3 1
Ans: (a)

Q5. State Finance Commission is appointed by a State Government every five years to determine:
(a) Financial resources of the State for placing State’s requirement before the Union Government
(
b) Development requirements of the State for formulating State Five Year Plan
(
c) Budgetary requirements of various departments of the State Government
(
d) Pattern of distribution of State’s tax revenue between the State Government and local bodies (both rural and urban) and the pattern of grants-in-aid to local bodies
Ans: (d)

Q6. Which one of the following statements is correct?
The Union Public Service Commission may agree to serve all or any of the needs of a State:
(a) On request by the Governor of the State
(
b) On request by the Governor of the State subject to approval of the President of India
(
c) On request by the Chief Minister of the State
(
d) Only if Parliament by law, so prescribes
Ans: (b)

Q7. Statement I:The Central Bureau of Investigation (CBI) is a statutory body.
Statement II:The CBI derives its powers from the Delhi Special Police Establishment Act, 1946.
Codes:

(a) Both the statements are individually true and Statement II is the correct explanation of Statement I.
(
b) Both the statements are individually true but Statement II is not the correct explanation of Statement I.
(
c) Statement I is true but Statement II is false.
(
d) Statement I is false but Statement II is true.
Ans: (d)

Q8. Which one among the following pairs is not correctly matched?
(a) Union List : Banking
(
b) State List : Agriculture
(
c) Concurrent List : Marriage
(
d) Residuary List : Education
Ans: (d)

Q9. Consider the following statements:
1. Zonal Councils have been set up under a provision of the Constitution of India.
2. Parliament may by law provide for the exclusion of the jurisdiction of all Courts, except the Supreme Court for the adjudication of any dispute with respect to use, distribution or control of waters of, or in, any inter-State river or river valley.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a) Only 1
(
b) Only 2
(
c) Both 1 and 2
(
d) Neither 1 nor 2
Ans: (d)

Q10. Which one of the following statements is not correct?
(a) Indian Constitution provides for unified judicial system
(
b) Judiciary has power to scrutinize the acts of all branches of government
(
c) Independence of judiciary is built through elaborate constitutional scheme
(
d) Review of the constitutional amendments on substantive grounds is not permitted
Ans: (d)

Q11. Consider the following statements related to secularism in India:
1. It entails strict separation of religion from politics.
2. It bans parties with religious affiliations from contesting elections.
3. It grants religious liberty to all communities.
4. It accepts community personal laws.
Which of the statements given above are correct?
(a) 3 and 4
(
b) 1 and 2
(
c) 1, 3 and 4
(
d) 1, 2, 3 and 4
Ans: (c)

Q12. Which part of the Constitution of India refers to the responsibility of the state towards international peace and security?
(a) Fundamental Rights
(
b) Directive Principles of State Policy
(
c) Emergency provisions
(
d) Preamble to the Constitution
Ans: (b)

Q13. When a proclamation of emergency is issued by the President under Article 352 of the Constitution of India:
(a) Fundamental Rights are automatically suspended
(
b) The freedoms under Article 19 are automatically suspended and other Fundamental Rights can be suspended by an order of the President
(
c) The freedoms under Article 19 are automatically suspended and other Fundamental Rights, except those under Articles 20 and 21, can be suspended by an order of the President
(
d) Only the freedoms under Article 19 are suspended and other Fundamental Rights cannot be suspended
Ans: (c)

Q14. Consider the following statements:
1. A Bill returned by the President for reconsideration does not lapse on the dissolution of the Lok Sabha.
2. A Bill passed by the Lok Sabha and pending in the Rajya Sabha lapses on the dissolution of the Lok Sabha.
3. A Bill under consideration of the Lok Sabha lapses when the Lok Sabha is prorogued.
4. A Bill pending in the Rajya Sabha but not passed by the Lok Sabha does not lapse on the dissolution of the Lok Sabha.
Which of the statements given above are correct?
(a) 2, 3 and 4 only
(
b) 1 and 2 only
(
c) 3 and 4 only
(
d) 1, 2 and 4 only
Ans: (d)

Q15. On receipt of the report from the Governor of a State that the Government of the State cannot be carried on in accordance with the provisions of the Constitution, the President of India under Article 356:
(a) Has to proclaim President’s Rule in the State
(
b) Has to dismiss the State Government and dissolve the Legislative Assembly
(
c) Has to dismiss the Government but keep that Legislative Assembly in a state of suspended animation
(
d) May refuse to impose President’s Rule in the State
Ans: (a)

Q16. Consider the following with respect to the revolutionary features of the 73rd Constitutional Amendment:
1. Bestowal of Constitutional status on Panchayati Raj Institutions (PRIs) .
2. Mandatory elections to PRIs.
3. Introduction of third tier of Government with powers in rural India.
4. 33% reservation of seats and chairpersonships for women in the Panchayats at each level.
Which of these are correct?
(a) 1 and 4
(
b) 1, 2 and 3
(
c) 3 and 4
(
d) 1, 2, 3 and 4
Ans: (d)

Q17. Which of the following is/are the functions of the Finance Commission?
1. Making recommendations as to the principles governing grants-in-aid of the revenues of the States.
2. To suggest measures to augment the Consolidated Fund of India.
Select the correct answer using the codes given below:
(a) Only 1
(
b) Only 2
(
c) Both 1 and 2
(
d) Neither 1 nor 2
Ans: (a)

Q18. Sindhi was included in the Eight Schedule of the Constitution of India by the:
(a) 21st Amendment Act
(
b) 15th Amendment Act
(
c) 27th Amendment Act
(
d) 23rd Amendment Act
Ans: (a)

Q19. The first Amendment to the Constitution (1951) made changes in relation to which of the following provisions?
1. Special provisions for advancement of socially and educationally backward classes.
2. Validation of certain Acts and Regulations specified in the Ninth Schedule.
3. Saving of certain laws giving effect to certain Directive Principles
4. Saving of laws providing for acquisition of estates
Select the correct answer using the codes given below:
(a) 1, 2 and 3
(
b) 1, 2 and 4
(
c) 2, 3 and 4
(
d) 1, 3 and 4
Ans: (b)

Q20. Which of the following statements is correct?
A joint session of the Parliament shall be:
1. Convened by the Speaker
2. Presided over by the seniormost member of the Parliament
3. Convened by the President
Select the correct answer using the codes given below:
(a) 1
(
b) 2
(
c) 3
(
d) None
Ans: (c)

Q21. Consider the following with respect to the Union of India:
1. Formation of the State of Nagaland.
2. States Reorganisation Act.
3. Formation of the State of Haryana.
4. Formation of the State of Gujarat.
Which one of the following is the correct chronological order of the above?
(a) 4-2-3-1
(
b) 2-4-3-1
(
c) 4-2-1-3
(
d) 2-4-1-3
Ans: (d)

Q22. Which one of the following is not a fundamental duty under Article 51-A of the Constitution of India?
(a) To render national service when called upon to do so
(
b) To cast vote in the elections
(
c) To strive for excellence
(
d) To develop scientific temper
Ans: (b)

Q23. The Constitution (Forty-Second Amendment) Act, 1976, made it obligatory for the President of India to act in accordance with the advice of the Council of Ministers.
For the above purpose, which one of the following Articles of the Constitution of India was amended by the Constitution (Forty-Second Amendment) Act, 1976?
(a) Article 73
(
b) Article 74
(
c) Article 75
(
d) Article 77
Ans: (b)

Q24. According to Parliamentary procedure, the term ‘guillotine’ means that the Speaker:
(a) Stops the business on hand and puts the
(
b) Adjourns the House before expiry of the time matter to vote
(
c) Disallows voting on a motion
(
d) Reprimands a member for misbehaviour
Ans: (a)

Q25. Which one of the following is constitutionally obligatory on the part of the Chief Minister of a State?
(a) As the Governor is the head of the State, the Chief Minister has to take all major decisions regarding administration only after prior approval by the Governor.
(
b) The Chief Minister has to communicate to the Governor all decisions of the cabinet relating to administration and proposals for legislation.
(
c) As the ministers are appointed by the Governor, the Chief Minister has to go by Governor’s discretion in the allocation of business among the ministers.
(
d) The Chief Minister, if he happens to be the leader of a party not having the required majority, should prove his majority strength in the State Legislative Assembly within the period stipulated by the Governor.
Ans: (b)

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