You are here
Home > QB Subjectwise > 027 Indian Polity & Constitution Previous Year Questions

027 Indian Polity & Constitution Previous Year Questions

Indian Polity & Constitution Previous Year Questions

Q1. Which Article of the Constitution of India has provided for the office of the Attorney General of India?
(a) Article 76
(
b) Article 74
(
c) Article 78
(
d) Article 77
Ans: (a)

Q2. Which of the following correctly indicates the features of regional political parties in India?
1. Regional political parties identify with region’s culture.
2. Regional political parties use regional language for their electoral gains.
3. Regional political parties enter into electoral alliance with national parties.
4. Regional political parties are a post-independence political phenomenon.
Select the correct answer using the codes given below:
(a) 1 and 2
(
b) 1, 2 and 3
(
c) 1, 3 and 4
(
d) 2 only
Ans: (b)

Q3. Which one of the following Prime Ministers did not head a minority government?
(a) I.K. Gujaral
(
b) V.P. Singh
(
c) Chandrashekhar
(
d) Morarji Desai
Ans: (d)

Q4. Which of the following are provided for by the 74th Constitutional Amendment in respect of Municipal Corporations?
1. Seats to be filled by direct elections on the basis of wards.
2. Reservation of seats for SC/ST.
3. Reservation of seats for backward classes.
4. One-third reservation of seats for women.
Choose the correct answer from the codes given below:
(a) 1, 2 and 3
(
b) 1, 2 and 4
(
c) 2, 3 and 4
(
d) 1, 2, 3 and 4
Ans: (b)

Q5. On which one of the following freedoms, can reasonable restrictions be imposed on the ground of the security of the state?
(a) Speech and expression
(
b) Peaceful assembly
(
c) Association or union
(
d) Movement
Ans: (a)

Q6. The best form of federalism suited for countries like India is:
(a) Centralised federalism
(
b) Bargaining federalism
(
c) Cooperative federalism
(
d) Conflicting federalism
Ans: (c)

Q7. Which one of the following statements is not correct?
(a) The Vice-President of India holds office for a period of five years.
(
b) The Vice-President of India is eligible for re-election.
(
c) The Vice-President of India can act as President only for a maximum period of nine months.
(
d) The Supreme Court of India has to look into all disputes with regard to the election of the Vice-President of India.
Ans: (c)

Q8. Which one of the following committees recommended for the creation of Committee on Public Undertakings?
(a) Krishna Menon Committee
(
b) Ashok Chanda Committee
(
c) Gorwala Committee
(
d) T. Krishnamachari Committee
Ans: (a)

Q9. The High Court having the jurisdiction in judicial matters relating to the largest number of States / Union Territories is:
(a) Calcutta High Court
(
b) Kerala High Court
(
c) Bombay High Court
(
d) Guwahati High Court
Ans: (d)

Q10. In the case of Puducherry, the President of India can legislate by making regulations only:
(a) When the Parliament passes a resolution to that effect
(
b) When the Assembly passes a resolution to that effect
(
c) When the Assembly is suspended or dissolved
(
d) When the Lt. Governor requests him to do so
Ans: (c)

Q11. Match List I with List II and select the correct answer using the codes given below:
List-I List-II
(Bodies) (Functions)
A. The Finance Commission – 1. Plan Grants
B. The National Development Council – 2. Certificate of Net Proceeds
C. The Planning Commission – 3. Common Economic Policies
D. The C&AG – 4. Allocation of I.T. Proceeds
Codes:

A B C D
(a) 2 1 4 3
(
b) 4 3 1 2
(
c) 3 4 2 1
(
d) 2 1 3 4
Ans: (b)

Q12. Who/Which of the following decides the question of disqualification of a member of the Parliament, arising on the ground of defection?
(a) President of India
(
b) Supreme Court
(
c) Presiding Officer of the House
(
d) Election Commission
Ans: (c)

Q13. Match List I with List II and select the correct answer using the codes given below:
List-I List-II
(Schedule) (Content)
A. Third Schedule – 1. Powers, authority, responsibilities of the Municipalities
B. Seventh Schedule – 2. Distribution of powers between the union and the states
C. Ninth Schedule – 3. Oaths and affirmations
D. Twelfth Schedule – 4. Allocation of seats in the council of states
– 5. Land reform laws
Codes:

A B C D
(a) 3 2 5 1
(
b) 5 1 3 4
(
c) 3 1 5 4
(
d) 5 2 3 1
Ans: (a)

Q14. Which one of the following statements regarding secularism is not correct?
(a) ‘Secular Republic’ implies a republic in which there is equal respect for all religions.
(
b) It was decided in the S.R. Bommai case that secularism is a basic feature of the Constitution of India
(
c) According to the Supreme Court, the concept of secularism means that the ‘State’ will have no religion
(
d) The word ‘secular’ was introduced under the Constitution by the 44th Amendment
Ans: (d)

Q15. Assertion (A) :In Minerva Mills v. Union of India, Art.31-C as amended by the Constitution (Forty-second Amendment) Act, 1976 was held invalid.
Reason (R) :The amendment of Art. 31-C destroyed the basic structure of the Constitution.
Codes:
(a) Both A and R are individually true and R is the correct explanation of A
(
b) Both A and R are individually true but R is not the correct explanation of A
(
c) A is true but R is false
(
d) A is false but R is true
Ans: (a)

Q16. Assertion (A) :The Constitution makes a distinction between the legislative power to levy a tax and the power to appropriate the proceeds of tax so levied.
Reason (R) :The constitution provides for grants-in-aid to the states from the central resources.
Codes:
(a) Both A and R are individually true and R is the correct explanation of A
(
b) Both A and R are individually true but R is not the correct explanation of A
(
c) A is true but R is false
(
d) A is false but R is true
Ans: (b)

Q17. Article 74 of the Constitution provides that:
(a) There shall be a Council of Ministers with the Prime Minister at the head, to aid and advise the President in exercise of his functions.
(
b) There shall be a Council of Ministers with the Prime Minister at the head, to aid and advise the President, who shall in exercise of his functions, act in accordance with such advice.
(
c) There shall be a Council of Ministers with the Prime Minister at the head, to aid and advise the President, who shall in exercise of his functions act in accordance with such advice provided that the President may require the Council of Ministers to reconsider such advice, either generally or otherwise and the President shall act in accordance with the advice tendered after such reconsideration.
(
d) There shall be a Council of Ministers with the Prime Minister at the head, to aid and advise the President, who shall in exercise of his functions, act in accordance with such advice or otherwise on his own.
Ans: (c)

Q18. What is the strength of a Parliamentary Forum (excluding the President and ex-officio Vice-Presidents) ?
(a) 21 Members
(
b) 15 Members
(
b) 31 Members
(
d) 25 Members
Ans: (c)

Q19. The temporary, transitional and special provisions mentioned in Part XXI of the Constitution of India relate to which State (s) ?
1. Jammu & Kashmir
2. Nagaland
3. Assam
4. Andhra Pradesh
Select the correct answer using the codes given below:
(a) Only 1
(
b) 3 and 4
(
c) 1, 2 and 3
(
d) 1, 2, 3 and 4
Ans: (d)

Q20. Assertion (A) :The Union Public Service Commission must be consulted as regards the reservation of posts for Backward classes, Scheduled Castes and Scheduled Tribes.
Reason (R) :The functions of the Union Public Service Commission are only advisory and the Government need not act upon the advice of the Commission in any case.
Codes:
(a) Both A and R are individually true and R is the correct explanation of A
(
b) Both A and R are individually true but R is not the correct explanation of A
(
c) A is true but R is false
(
d) A is false but R is true
Ans: (d)

Q21. An Information Commissioner can be removed from the office by the President on the advise / recommendation of the:
(a) Supreme Court
(
b) Parliament
(
c) Central Vigilance Commission
(
d) Union Public Service Commission
Ans: (a)

Q22. Consider the following statements:
1. The Gujral Doctrine of India is formulated on India’s accommodating approach towards its smaller neighbours on the basis of the principle of non-reciprocity.
2. The Gujral Doctrine of India was initiated in 1994. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a) Only 1
(
b) Only 2
(
c) Both 1 and 2
(
d) Neither 1 nor 2
Ans: (a)

Q23. Consider the following duties:
1. To value and preserve the rich heritage of our composite culture
2. To safeguard private property
3. To develop scientific temper, humanism and spirit of enquiry and reform Of these, fundamental duties include:
(a) 1, 2 and 3
(
b) 1 and 2
(
c) 2 and 3
(
d) 1 and 3
Ans: (d)

Q24. In case of difference of opinion amongst the Chief Election Commissioner and other Election Commissioners in the Election Commission of India:
(a) the matter is to be referred to the Supreme Court of India.
(
b) the opinion of the Chief Election Commissioner is final.
(
c) the matter is to be referred to the Law Commission.
(
d) the matter is decided by the Election Commission by majority.
Ans: (d)

Q25. Assertion (A) :Notwithstanding the introduction of Provincial Autonomy, the Government of India Act, 1935 retained control of the Central Government over the Provinces in a certain sphere.
Reason (R) :The Governor was required to act in his own discretion in certain matters for which he was to act without ministerial advice and under the control and directions of the Governor-General.
Codes:
(a) Both A and R are individually true and R is the correct explanation of A
(
b) Both A and R are individually true but R is not the correct explanation of A
(
c) A is true but R is false
(
d) A is false but R is true
Ans: (a)

Top
error: Content is protected !!