You are here
Home > QB Subjectwise > 026 Indian Polity & Constitution Previous Year Questions

026 Indian Polity & Constitution Previous Year Questions

Indian Polity & Constitution Previous Year Questions

Q1. “Directive Principles of State Policy are the conscience of the Constitution which embody the social philosophy of the Constitution” was described by:
(a) Granville Austin
(
b) A.V. Dicey
(
c) Dr. B.R. Ambedkar
(
d) K.C. Wheare
Ans: (a)

Q2. If the President of India exercises his power as provided under Article 356 of the Constitution in respect of a particular State, then:
(a) The Assembly of the State is automatically dissolved
(
b) Article 19 is suspended in that State
(
c) Parliament assumes the power to legislate on the subjects in the State list
(
d) The President can make laws relating to that state
Ans: (c)

Q3. Which one of the following is not a measure of control exercised by the Parliament over government?
(a) Asking questions
(
b) Committees system
(
c) Review of decision
(
d) No-confidence motion
Ans: (c)

Q4. Consider the following statements:
The Governor of a State has the power to appoint:
1. Judges of the High Court
2. Members of the State Public Service Commission
3. Members of the State Finance Commission
4. The Accountant General Which of these statements are correct?
(a) 1 and 2
(
b) 2 and 3
(
c) 1, 3 and 4
(
d) 1, 2, 3 and 4
Ans: (b)

Q5. Which one of the following government documents first suggested for having elections of Panchayati Raj Institutions on political party basis?
(a) Report of the Administrative Reforms Commission
(
b) Ashok Mehta Committee Report
(
c) Balwant Rai Mehta Committee Report
(
d) Diwakar Committee Report
Ans: (b)

Q6. Which one among the following is the function of the Finance Commission?
(a) Preparation of the Central Budget
(
b) Assessing income tax proceeds
(
c) Determining the principles governing grants-in-aid the states
(
d) Exercising control over Government expenditure
Ans: (c)

Q7. In which of the following years, the Parliament enacted the Official Language Act?
(a) 1963
(
b) 1965
(
c) 1957
(
d) 1955
Ans: (a)

Q8. With reference to the definitions under the Constitution, consider the following statements:
1. Proclamation of emergency means a proclamation issued under Article 356.
2. Railway does not include any other line of communication wholly situated in one state and declared by the State Legislature by law not to be a railway.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a) Only 1
(
b) Only 2
(
c) Both 1 and 2
(
d) Neither 1 nor 2
Ans: (d)

Q9. Statement I:The Directive Principles of State Policy, enshrined in the Constitution, aim at providing the social and economic base of a genuine democracy.
Statement II:The Directive Principles are merely directives which the government has to keep in mind while framing policy and are not enforceable through courts.
Codes:
(a) Both the statements are individually true and Statement II is the correct explanation of Statement I.
(
b) Both the statements are individually true but Statement II is not the correct explanation of Statement I.
(
c) Statement I is true but Statement II is false.
(
d) Statement I is false but Statement II is true.
Ans: (b)

Q10. Consider the following statements:
1. The Parliament is empowered to alter the boundaries of any existing State of India.
2. A Bill pertaining to the alteration of the boundaries of any existing State of India can be introduced only in the Rajya Sabha and only on the recommendation of the President of India.
Which one of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a) Only 1
(
b) Only 2
(
c) Both 1 and 2
(
d) Neither 1 nor 2
Ans: (a)

Q11. Consider the following statements:
Fundamental duties:
1. Have always been a part of the Constitution of India
2. Have been added through an amendment
3. Are mandatory on all citizens of India Which of these statements is/are correct?
(a) 1 and 3
(
b) Only 1
(
c) Only 2
(
d) 2 and 3
Ans: (c)

Q12. Consider the following statements:
The charge of violation of the Constitution by the President of India for his impeachment cannot be preferred by a House unless:
1. A resolution containing the proposal is moved after a seven days’ notice in writing signed by not less than 1/4th of the total number of the members of that House.
2. The resolution is passed by a majority of not less than 2/3rd of the total membership of that House.
Which of the statement (s) given above is / are correct?
(a) Only 1
(
b) Only 2
(
c) Both 1 and 2
(
d) Neither 1 nor 2
Ans: (b)

Q13. Which of the following statements are correct in respect of parliamentary debate on Appropriation Bill?
1. No amendments can be moved on the amount of expenditure.
2. Speaker is empowered to withhold permission on matters of repetitive nature.
3. Rajya Sabha has power to amend or reject the Bill.
Select the correct answer using the codes given below:
(a) 1 and 2 only
(
b) 1 and 3 only
(
c) 2 and 3 only
(
d) 1, 2 and 3
Ans: (a)

Q14. Which of the following are included in Article 167 of the Indian Constitution, defining the duties of Chief Minister?
1. To communicate to the Governor of the State all decisions of the Council of Ministers relating to the administration of the affairs of the State and proposals for legislation.
2. To take prior Governor’s sanction for the budget before submitting it in the State Legislative Assembly.
3. To furnish the information called for by the Governor regarding administration of affairs of the State.
4. If the Governor so requires, to submit for consideration of the Council of Ministers a matter on which a Minister has taken a decision without submitting the same for consideration by the Council beforehand.
Choose the correct answer from the codes given below:
(a) 1 and 2
(
b) 1, 3 and 4
(
c) 2 and 4
(
d) 1 and 3
Ans: (b)

Q15. According to the Constitution of India, it is obligatory to constitute ‘Ward Committees’ in the area of a municipality. The population of such municipality should be:
(a) One lac or more
(
b) Two lacs or more
(
c) Three lacs or more
(
d) Five lacs or more
Ans: (c)

Q16. Which of the following Constitutional Amendment Acts made a provision for the Special Officer for Linguistic Minorities?
(a) Fourth Amendment Act
(
b) Seventh Amendment Act
(
c) Thirteenth Amendment Act
(
d) Fifteenth Amendment Act
Ans: (b)

Q17. The Central Administrative Tribunal was set up on the recommendation of:
(a) The Ministry of Law and Justice
(
b) The Administrative Reforms Commission
(
c) The Law Commission
(
d) The Sarkaria Commission
Ans: (b)

Q18. Consider the following statements:
1. The National Flag shall be rectangular in shape.
2. The ratio of the length to the height (width) of the flag shall be 4: – 3. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a) Only 1
(
b) Only 2
(
c) Both 1 and 2
(
d) Neither 1 nor 2
Ans: (a)

Q19. Who among the following determines the authority who shall readjust the allocation of seats in the Lok Sabha to the states, and division of each State into territorial constituencies?
(a) The President of India
(
b) The Parliament of India
(
c) The Chief Election Commissioner of India
(
d) The Lok Sabha alone
Ans: (b)

Q20. Consider the following statements:
1. A Constitutional amendment inserting a regulation in the Ninth Schedule can be challenged on the ground of violation of basic structure of the Constitution.
2. Any legislation enacted by Parliament cannot be successfully challenged for affecting the basic structure of the Constitution.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a) Only 1
(
b) Only 2
(
c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2
Ans: (a)

Q21. Which one of the following statements is correct ?
(a) The Constitution clearly lays down what its basic structure is
(
b) The Supreme Court has elaborately defined the basic structure of the Constitution
(
c) The Law Commission of India with the help of Attorney-General of India has defined the basic structure of the Constitution
(
d) Neither the Supreme Court nor the Parliament have defined the basic structure of the Constitution
Ans: (d)

Q22. Who among the following do not participate in the election of the President of India?
(a) Elected Members of the Rajya Sabha
(
b) Elected Members of the Lok Sabha
(
c) Elected Members of the Vidhan Sabhas
(
d) Elected Members of the Vidhan Parishads
Ans: (d)

Q23. Consider the following statements with respect to the Rajya Sabha:
1. The origin of the Rajya Sabha can be traced back to 1919, when in pursuance to the Government of India Act, 1919, a second chamber known as the Council of States was created.
2. The Rajya Sabha has special powers to declare that it is necessary and expedient in the national interest that Parliament may make laws with respect to a matter in the State List.
Which of the statement (s) given above is / are correct?
(a) Only 1
(
b) Only 2
(
c) Both 1 and 2
(
d) Neither 1 nor 2
Ans: (c)

Q24. According to Article 163 of the Constitution, which of the following statements relating to the question whether any, and if so what, advice was tendered by Ministers to the Governor would be correct?
(a) It shall not be inquired into in any court.
(
b) It can be inquired into in the Supreme Court.
(
c) It can be inquired into in all the courts.
(
d) It cannot be inquired into in the High Court.
Ans: (a)

Q25. Which of the following are the sources of revenue of urban local bodies?
1. Property tax
2. Octroi
3. Sales tax
4. Animal tax
Select the correct answer using the codes given below:
(a) 1 and 2
(
b) 2, 3 and 4
(
c) 1, 3 and 4
(
d) 1, 2 and 4
Ans: (d)

Top
error: Content is protected !!