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024 Indian Polity & Constitution Previous Year Questions

Indian Polity & Constitution Previous Year Questions

Q1. What is the subject of the 91st Constitutional Amendment Act, 2003?
(a) Right to Information
(
b) Limiting the size of Council of Ministers
(
c) Right to Education
(
d) Elimination of Corruption at all Levels
Ans: (b)

Q2. Article 15 of the Constitution of India empowers the State to make special provisions for
(a) Reservation in employment for freedom fighters
(
b) Women and children
(
c) Reservation in employment for physically handicapped persons
(
d) Relaxation of minimum qualifying marks for admission to those belonging to SC and ST category
Ans: (b)

Q3. Which of the following are provided for by the Constitution (74th Amendment) Act in respect of planning of urban and rural local governments?
1. Constitution of the District Planning Committee.
2. Not less than 2/3rd of the total members of the District Planning Committee should be elected by, from amongst, the elected members of district panchayats and municipalities.
3. All other details regarding the composition of the District Planning Committee are left to the State Legislatures.
4. Constitution of the Metropolitan Planning Committee.
Select the correct answer using the codes given below:
(a) 1, 2 and 3
(
b) 2 and 4
(
c) 1, 3 and 4
(
d) 1, 2, 3 and 4
Ans: (c)

Q4. Which one of the under mentioned rights is guaranteed to citizens as right to freedom under Article 19?
(a) The right to vote
(
b) The right to citizenship
(
c) The right to contest an election
(
d) The right to assemble peaceably and without arms
Ans: (d)

Q5. Which of the following statements regarding the residuary powers in the Constitution of India are correct?
1. Residuary powers have been given to the Union Parliament
2. In the matter of residuary powers, the Constitution of India follows the Constitution of Australia
3. The final authority to decide whether a particular matter falls under the residuary power or not is the Parliament
4. The Government of India Act, 1935 placed residuary powers in the hands of the Governor-General
Select the correct answer using the codes given below:
(a) 1, 2 and 3
(
b) 2 and 3
(
c) 1 and 4
(
d) 3 and 4
Ans: (c)

Q6. “There shall be a Council of Ministers with the Prime Minister at the head to aid and advice the President who shall in the exercise of his functions act in accordance with such advice”. This provision in the Constitution has been laid down by which one of the following Constitutional Amendment Acts?
(a) 41st Amendment
(
b) 42nd Amendment
(
c) 43rd Amendment
(
d) 72nd Amendment
Ans: (b)

Q7. The Speaker of Lok Sabha is the President of all the Parliamentary Forums except the:
(a) Parliamentary Forum on Population and Public Health
(
b) Parliamentary Forum on Global Warming and Climate Change
(
c) Parliamentary Forum on Water Conservation and Management
(
d) Parliamentary Forum on Children
Ans: (a)

Q8. Who / which of the following can extend (with restrictions or modifications) to Sikkim any law which is in force in a state of the Indian Union?
(a) Parliament of India
(
b) President of India
(
c) Governor of Sikkim
(
d) Legislative Assembly of Sikkim
Ans: (b)

Q9. Consider the following statements:
A member of the Union Public Service Commission is:
1. Debarred from re-appointment as a member
2. Ineligible for any other employment under the Central or State Government
3. Disqualified from becoming a constitutional functionary like a Governor Of the above statements:
(a) 1, 2 and 3 are correct
(
b) 2 and 3 are correct
(
c) 1 and 3 are correct
(
d) 1 and 2 are correct
Ans: (d)

Q10. The Central Information Commission submits its annual report to the:
(a) President
(
b) Parliament
(
c) Supreme Court
(
d) Central Government
Ans: (d)

Q11. In which of the following years, India adopted its nuclear doctrine?
(a) 2000
(
b) 2002
(
c) 2003
(
d) 2004
Ans: (c)

Q12. Which one of the following matters stands excluded from the jurisdiction of Inter-State Council?
(a) Enquiring into and advising upon disputes which may have arisen between the States
(
b) Adjudication of any dispute or complaint with respect to the use, distribution or control of water of any inter-state river or river-valley
(
c) Investigation and discussion of subjects in which some or all of the States or the Union and one or more States, have a common interest
(
d) Recommendation on any such subject, in particular, recommendation for a better coordination of policy and action with respect to that subject
Ans: (b)

Q13. Who among the following is not a member of the committee which makes recommendation to the President of India for appointment as Chief Information Commissioner and Information Commissioners?
(a) Prime Minister
(
b) Leader of Opposition in the Lok Sabha
(
c) A Union Cabinet Minister to be nominated by the Prime Minister
(
d) Union Law Minister
Ans: (d)

Q14. Which one of the following pairs is correctly matched?
(a) Indian Councils Act, 1892 : Principle of Election
(
b) Indian Councils Act, 1909 : Responsible Government
(
c) Government of India Act, 1919 : Provincial Autonomy
(
d) Government of India Act, 1935 : Dyarchy in States
Ans: (a)

Q15. Match List I with List II and select the correct answer using the codes given below:
List-I List-II
(Writs) (Meanings)
A. Habeas Corpus – 1. What warrant or authority
B. Mandamus – 2. Certified or to be made certain
C. Certiorari – 3. Command to perform public duty
D. Quo-Warranto – 4. Produce the body of a person
Codes:

A B C D
(a) 4 3 2 1
(
b) 3 4 2 1
(
c) 4 3 1 2
(
d) 3 4 1 2
Ans: (a)

Q16. Consider the following statements:
1. Sarkaria Commission recommended that the Union Government may persuade the State Governments for constitution of an All-India Service for education.
2. All-India Services are included in the Concurrent List of the Constitution of India.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a) Only 1
(
b) Only 2
(
c) Both 1 and 2
(
d) Neither 1 nor 2
Ans: (a)

Q17. Consider the following statements:
1. The nature of a Bill, if it is certified by the Speaker of the House of People as a Money Bill, is not open to question in a Court of Law.
2. The President of India has the power to question the nature of a Bill to be taken as a Money Bill even if it is certified to be so by the Speaker of the House of People.
Which of the statement (s) given above is / are correct?
(a) Only 1
(
b) Only 2
(
c) Both 1 and 2
(
d) Neither 1 nor 2
Ans: (a)

Q18. The Supreme Court of India is different from its counterpart in the U.S.A.:
(a) In its role as the guardian of the Constitution
(
b) In its advisory role
(
c) In its role as the supreme authority in the judicial field in the country
(
d) In its writ jurisdiction
Ans: (b)

Q19. What is the minimum population below which Panchayats at the intermediate level are not constituted as per provision of the Constitution (Seventy-third Amendment) Act?
(a) 20 lakhs
(
b) 25 lakhs
(
c) 30 lakhs
(
d) 35 lakhs
Ans: (a)

Q20. Which one of the following functions does not require consultation with the State Public Service Commission as per provisions of the Constitution of India?
(a) Methods of recruitment to civil services and civil posts
(
b) Principles to be followed in making appointments to civil services
(
c) The manner in which any provision may be made for the reservation of appointments or posts in favour of any backward class of citizens
(
d) Any claim for the award of a pension in respect of injuries suffered by a person while serving under the Government of the State in a civil capacity
Ans: (c)

Q21. The Central Bureau of Investigation was set-up by:
(a) An Act of the Parliament
(
b) An Amendment to the Constitution
(
c) A Resolution of the Home Ministry
(
d) A Resolution of the Personnel Ministry
Ans: (c)

Q22. Public Order is included in the Constitution as an item in
(a) Union list
(
b) State list
(
c) Concurrent list
(
d) Both Union and State lists
Ans: (b)

Q23. Match List I with List II and select the correct answer using the codes given below:
List-I List-II
(Provisions Pertaining To) (Schedules in the Constitution)
A. The tribal areas in the states of Assam, Meghalaya, Tripura and Mizoram – 1. Second Schedule
B. All-India services – 2. Fifth Schedule
C. Control of scheduled areas and scheduled tribes – 3. Sixth Schedule
D. Comptroller and Auditor-General of India – 4. Seventh Schedule
– 5. Eighth Schedule
Codes:

A B C D
(a) 1 3 4 5
(
b) 2 4 3 5
(
c) 4 3 1 2
(
d) 3 4 2 1
Ans: (d)

Q24. The Governor of a State in his role as Administrator of an adjoining Union Territory exercises his functions, as such independently of:
(a) The President of India
(
b) The State Council of Ministers
(
c) The Prime Minister
(
d) The Union Home Minister
Ans: (b)

Q25. Which of the following statements about the Constitution of India is/are correct?
1. Popular sovereignty and adult franchise are the basic features of the Constitution.
2. The Constitution, in so far as the division of powers between the Centre and the States is concerned, is rigid.
3. The Constitution recognises the interdependence of civil and economic rights.
4. The Constitution mentions direct control by the people such as referendum, initiative and recall.
Select the correct answer from the codes given below:
(a) Only 1
(
b) 1, 2 and 4
(
c) 2, 3 and 4
(
d) 1, 2 and 3
Ans: (d)

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