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022 Indian Polity & Constitution Previous Year Questions

Indian Polity & Constitution Previous Year Questions

Q1. Consider the following statements:
1. In the Lok Sabha, 12 members are nominated by the President of India.
2. In the Rajya Sabha, a maximum of 2 members of the Anglo-Indian community can be nominated by the President of India.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a) Only 1
(
b) Only 2
(
c) Both 1 and 2
(
d) Neither 1 nor 2
Ans: (d)

Q2. Which one of the following is the correct statement?
Double Jeopardy means:
(a) Trying two persons jointly for the same offence
(
b) Trying the same person for two offences at two different times
(
c) Putting the same person on trial twice for the same offence
(
d) Trying a person for two offences committed by him in one incident
Ans: (c)

Q3. During the period of British rule in India, the rules made under which one of the following were known as the Devolution Rules?
(a) Government of India Act, 1919
(
b) Indian Councils Act, 1909
(
c) Indian Councils Act, 1892
(
d) Government of India Act, 1935
Ans: (a)

Q4. The right to property was removed from the list of Fundamental Rights enlisted in the Constitution through which one of the following Amendments ?
(a) 73rd Amendment
(
b) 23rd Amendment
(
c) 44th Amendment
(
d) 76th Amendment
Ans: (c)

Q5. Consider the following statements:
1. In extraordinary circumstances, the normal distribution of power between the Centre and the States is either suspended or the powers of the union parliament are extended over the state subjects.
2. The Indian Constitution vests the residuary power in the Union Parliament and the final decision as to whether a particular matter falls under the residuary power or not is that of the Supreme Court.
3. The Union Government has the power to give directions to the state governments to ensure due compliance with Union laws.
4. If the Legislatures of two or more states so resolve, Parliament can make laws with respect to any matter included in the state list relating to those states.
Which of these describe the nature of Indian Federalism?
(a) 1, 2, 3 and 4
(
b) 1, 2 and 3
(
c) 2 and 4
(
d) 1 and 3
Ans: (a)

Q6. According to the Constitution, the Lok Sabha must meet at least:
(a) Thrice each year with no more than two months between sessions
(
b) Twice each year with no more than three months between sessions
(
c) Twice each year with no more than four months between sessions
(
d) Twice each year with no more than six months between sessions
Ans: (d)

Q7. Appellate jurisdiction of the Supreme Court in appeals from High Courts in regard to civil matters pertains only to a:
(a) Substantial question of law
(
b) Question of law
(
c) Question of fact
(
d) Mixed question of fact and law
Ans: (a)

Q8. Which of the following provisions can be made by law by a State Legislature?
1. Representation of the members of the House of People in Panchayats subject to fulfilling certain conditions
2. Reservation of seats in any Panchayat in favour of backward class of citizens
3. Authorising a Panchayat to levy, collect and appropriate taxes
Select the correct answer using the codes given below:
(a) 1, 2 and 3
(
b) 1 and 2, only
(
c) 2 and 3, only
(
d) 1 and 3, only
Ans: (a)

Q9. Assertion (A) :It shall be the duty of the State Public Service Commission to conduct examinations for appointments.
Reason (R) :The functions of the State Public Service Commission are only advisory and not obligatory upon the Government to act upon.
Codes:
(a) Both A and R are individually true and R is the correct explanation of A
(
b) Both A and R are individually true but R is not the correct explanation of A
(
c) A is true but R is false
(
d) A is false but R is true
Ans: (b)

Q10. Consider the following statements:
1. The Director of Central Bureau of Investigation as Inspector-General of Police, Delhi Special Police Establishment, is responsible for the administration of the organisation.
2. With the enactment of CVC Act, 2003, the superintendence of Delhi Special Police Establishment vests with the Central Government save investigations of offences under the Prevention of Corruption Act, 1988, in which, the superintendence vests with the Central Vigilance Commission.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a) Only 1
(
b) Only 2
(
c) Both 1 and 2
(
d) Neither 1 nor 2
Ans: (c)

Q11. In which List is the subject of Preventive Detention enumerated?
(a) Union List
(
b) Both Union List & Concurrent List
(
c) State List
(
d) Concurrent List
Ans: (b)

Q12. Which of the following statements is/are correct?
Under the provisions of Article 200 of the Constitution of India, the Governor of a State may:
1. Withhold his assent to a Bill passed by the State Legislature.
2. Reserve the Bill passed by the State Legislature for consideration of the President.
3. Return the Bill, other than a money Bill, for reconsideration of the State Legislature.
Select the correct answer using the codes given below:
(a) Only 1
(
b) 1 and 2
(
c) 2 and 3
(
d) 1, 2 and 3
Ans: (d)

Q13. Consider the following statements:
The Comptroller and Auditor-General of India:
1. Audits all expenditures from the revenues of the Union and the States.
2. Ensures that total withdrawals by the Union Government do not exceed the amounts approved by the Parliament.
3. Can comment on correctness or otherwise of financial transactions of the Union and the States.
4. Points out cases of non-compliance of rules and regulations in expenditure.
Which of these are correct?
(a) 1 and 2
(
b) 2, 3 and 4
(
c) 1, 3 and 4
(
d) 1, 2, 3 and 4
Ans: (d)

Q14. Consider the following statements:
1. Dr. Sachchidanand Sinha was elected as the Provisional President of the Constituent Assembly.
2. H.C. Mukherjee was elected as the Vice-President of the Constituent Assembly.
Which of the statement (s) given above is/are correct?
(a) Only 1
(
b) Only 2
(
c) Both 1 and 2
(
d) Neither 1 nor 2
Ans: (c)

Q15. Which one of the following is not a Directive Principle of State Policy?
(a) Organisation of Village Panchayats
(
b) Uniform Civil Code for citizens as well as non-citizens
(
c) Right to work, to education and to public assistance in certain cases
(
d) Participation of workers in management of industries
Ans: (b)

Q16. Which of the following statements is the correct one?
(a) War, external aggression, internal disturbance and armed rebellion are the grounds for proclaiming emergency.
(
b) Words “armed rebellion” were replaced by the word “war” by the 44th Amendment.
(
c) Actual existence of any one or more grounds mentioned in Article 352 is necessary for proclaiming emergency.
(
d) The President proclaims emergency on the basis of any ground mentioned in Article 352 or possibility thereof.
Ans: (d)

Q17. Vote of Credit provides for making
(a) An exceptional grant which forms no part of current service of any financial year
(
b) Any grant in advance in respect of estimated expenditure for a part of any financial year
(
c) A grant for meeting an unexpected demand upon resources of India
(
d) A grant for additional expenditure upon new service not contemplated in the financial year
Ans: (c)

Q18. The de-jure head of a State Government is the:
(a) Chief Minister of the State
(
b) Law Minister of the State
(
c) Home Minister of the State
(
d) Governor of the State
Ans: (d)

Q19. Consider the following with reference to 73rd Constitutional Amendment in respect of Panchayati Raj:
1. Direct elections of members at all levels
2. Direct elections of chairpersons at the village level
3. Indirect election of chairpersons at the intermediate levels and district levels
4. Mandatory provision for holding elections Which of the above are correct?
(a) 1, 2 and 3
(
b) 2, 3 and 4
(
c) 1, 2 and 4
(
d) 1, 3 and 4
Ans: (d)

Q20. Statement I:The Finance Commission depends mainly on the data and information of the financial needs of the states, supplied by the states themselves.
Statement II:This information and data may not be free from the hidden unrealities; and an attempt to secure more financial assistance and window dressing of the financial position of the states cannot be ruled out.
Codes:
(a) Both the statements are individually true and Statement II is the correct explanation of Statement I.
(
b) Both the statements are individually true but Statement II is not the correct explanation of Statement I.
(
c) Statement I is true but Statement II is false.
(
d) Statement I is false but Statement II is true.
Ans: (b)

Q21. Statement I:The Supreme Court hears only those who petition or appeal in English and not in Hindi.
Statement II:The Parliament has not made any provision for the use of Hindi in the Supreme Court.
Codes:
(a) Both the statements are individually true and Statement II is the correct explanation of Statement I.
(
b) Both the statements are individually true but Statement II is not the correct explanation of Statement I.
(
c) Statement I is true but Statement II is false.
(
d) Statement I is false but Statement II is true.
Ans: (a)

Q22. Article 342 of the Constitution deals with the definition of:
(a) Scheduled Castes
(
b) Scheduled Tribes
(
c) Backward Classes
(
d) Minorities
Ans: (b)

Q23. Consider the following statements:
1. Emergency is always imposed throughout the nation.
2. Emergency can be imposed not only on the grounds of actual war, external aggression or armed rebellion, but also in anticipation thereof.
3. Every proclamation of Emergency will not remain in force after one month unless it is approved by both the Houses of Parliament.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a) 2 and 3
(
b) 1 and 2
(
c) Only 3
(
d) 1, 2 and 3
Ans: (a)

Q24. The Preamble to the Constitution of India:
(a) Is not a part of the Constitution.
(
b) Indicates the objectives to be achieved.
(
c) Cannot be amended by the Parliament.
(
d) Is a source of authority of the Constitution of India.
Ans: (b)

Q25. Which one of the following is not a fundamental duty?
(a) To respect the National Anthem
(
b) To safeguard public property
(
c) To protect monuments and places of national
(
d) To protect and improve the natural environment importance
Ans: (c)

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