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021 Indian Polity & Constitution Previous Year Questions

Indian Polity & Constitution Previous Year Questions

Q1. Statement I: Usually a vote on account is discussed in detail and voted upon by the Parliament.
Statement II: A vote on account empowers the Lok Sabha to make a grant in advance for a part of the financial year pending completion of the budgetary process.
Codes:
(a) Both the statements are individually true and Statement II is the correct explanation of Statement I.
(
b) Both the statements are individually true but Statement II is not the correct explanation of Statement I.
(
c) Statement I is true but Statement II is false.
(
d) Statement I is false but Statement II is true.
Ans: (d)

Q2. According to the Constitution of India, if the Governor so requires, it shall be the duty of the Chief Minister to submit for the consideration of the State Council of Ministers any matter on which a decision has been taken by a Minister, but which has not been considered by the Council. This ensures:
(a) Collective responsibility
(
b) The status of the Chief Minister as the first among the equals
(
c) The power of the Governor to nullify the decision of the Minister
(
d) The inherent power of the Minister to take a decision independent of the State Council of Ministers
Ans: (a)

Q3. Match List I with List II and select the correct answer using the codes given below:
List-I List-II
(Urban Bodies) (Features)
A. Town Area Committee – 1. No elected members
B. Port Trust – 2. Semi-municipal authority
C. Township – 3. Created by an Act of Parliament
D. Town Improvement Trust – 4. Special Purpose Agency
– 5. Works under Defence Ministry
Codes:

A B C D
(a) 1 5 2 4
(
b) 2 3 1 4
(
c) 1 5 4 3
(
d) 2 1 5 3
Ans: (b)

Q4. Who among the following holds his office at the pleasure of the President?
(a) Chairman of the Union Public Service Commission
(
b) Attorney General of India
(
c) Speaker of the Lok Sabha
(
d) Comptroller and Auditor General of India
Ans: (b)

Q5. What is the main object of protective discrimination in India?
(a) To give special advantages to a particular group
(
b) To raise a disadvantaged group to a level where it can compete with other sections of society on equal footing
(
c) To give financial assistance to the poor
(
d) To promote class interest
Ans: (b)

Q6. Provisions of the Constitution relating to the formation of new States can be amended by:
(a) Two-third majority of the members present and voting in each House of the Parliament provided they also constitute majority of the total membership in each house.
(
b) A Parliamentary resolution which should be ratified by a majority of State legislatures.
(
c) A simple majority in each House of Parliament
(
d) A three-fourth majority in each House of Parliament
Ans: (c)

Q7. Statement I:Responsive Government would require complete decentralization of delivery of services through fully empowered elected Local Government bodies consistent with the spirit of the 73rd and 74th Constitutional Amendments.
Statement II:State Governments are required to take steps to strengthen the financial and administrative capacity of the local bodies and vest them with adequate resources and powers.
Codes:
(a) Both the statements are individually true and Statement II is the correct explanation of Statement I.
(
b) Both the statements are individually true but Statement II is not the correct explanation of Statement I.
(
c) Statement I is true but Statement II is false.
(
d) Statement I is false but Statement II is true.
Ans: (b)

Q8. Right to Education is a fundamental right emanating from right to:
(a) Freedom of speech and expression under Article 19
(
b) Culture and education under Articles 29 and 30
(
c) Life and personal liberty under Article 21
(
d) Equality before law and equal protection of the laws under Article 14
Ans: (c)

Q9. What does the term “Federation” imply?
(a) Fusion of powers
(
b) Separation of powers
(
c) Division of powers
(
d) Devolution of powers
Ans: (c)

Q10. Assertion (A) :A candidate for Vice-President must be qualified for election as a member of Rajya Sabha.
Reason (R) :The Vice-President functions as the Chairman of Rajya Sabha.
Codes:
(a) Both A and R are individually true and R is the correct explanation of A
(
b) Both A and R are individually true but R is not the correct explanation of A
(
c) A is true but R is false
(
d) A is false but R is true
Ans: (a)

Q11. Which one of the following is a Parliamentary Standing Committee?
(a) Committee on Draft Five-Year Plan
(
b) Railway Convention Committee
(
c) Business Advisory Committee
(
d) Joint Committee on Fertilizer Pricing
Ans: (c)

Q12. Assertion (A) :A Habeas Corpus writ petition dismissed by the Supreme Court can be admitted by the High Court under Art. 226 of the Constitution.
Reason (R) :In exercising writ jurisdiction, the powers of the Supreme Court and High Court are concurrent.
Codes:
(a) Both A and R are individually true and R is the correct explanation of A
(
b) Both A and R are individually true but R is not the correct explanation of A
(
c) A is true but R is false
(
d) A is false but R is true
Ans: (d)

Q13. Who/which of the following can put a union territory under the jurisdiction of the high court of adjacent state?
(a) President of India
(
b) Chief Justice of India
(
c) Parliament of India
(
d) Administrator of the concerned union territory
Ans: (c)

Q14. The highest policy-making body in matters relating to National Planning is the:
(a) Planning Commission
(
b) Finance Commission
(
c) Inter-State Council
(
d) National Development Council
Ans: (d)

Q15. Which one of the following Schedules of the Constitution of India includes the disqualification of a Legislator on grounds of defection?
(a) 8th Schedule
(
b) 7th Schedule
(
c) 9th Schedule
(
d) 10th Schedule
Ans: (d)

Q16. The Montague’s Declaration of 20th August, 1917, contained:
1. Increasing association of Indians in every branch of administration
2. Gradual development of self-government institutions
3. Realisation of responsible government independent of the British Empire
4. Progress in this policy to be achieved in successive stages
Select the correct answer using the codes given below:
(a) 1, 2 and 3
(
b) 2 and 4
(
c) 1, 2 and 4
(
d) 1, 2, 3 and 4
Ans: (c)

Q17. Which one among the following statements about the States Re-organisation Act is not correct?
(a) The Act dealt with the issue of redrawing of the boundaries of States
(
b) It was passed in the year 1956
(
c) It created fourteen States and six Union Territories
(
d) The State boundaries were drawn for administrative convenience
Ans: (d)

Q18. Which of the following are not included in the right to freedom of religion in the Constitution of India?
1. Freedom of conscience and the right to practice and propagate religion
2. Levying of taxes or use of funds of the Government for the promotion or maintenance of any religion
3. Establishment and maintenance of religious and charitable institutions
4. Imparting of religious instruction in any Government maintained institution
Select the correct answer using the codes given below:
(a) 1 and 2
(
b) 1, 2 and 3
(
c) 1, 3 and 4
(
d) 2 and 4
Ans: (d)

Q19. Which one of the following is the correct statement?
A resolution passed by the Council of States under Article 249 empowering Parliament to legislate on State subjects in national interest remains in force for a period:
(a) Not exceeding six months
(
b) Not exceeding two years
(
c) Not exceeding one year
(
d) Of unlimited time
Ans: (c)

Q20. In which of the following provisions of the Constitution of India is the principle of collective responsibility of the Council of Ministers enshrined?
(a) Article 75
(
b) Article 74
(
c) Article 77
(
d) Article 78
Ans: (a)

Q21. Statement I:The Parliamentary Forum will not interfere with the jurisdiction of the Departmentally-Related Standing Committees of the Ministry concerned.
Statement II:The Chairman of Departmentally-Related Standing Committees are the ex-office Vice-Presidents of the respective Forums.
Codes:
(a) Both the statements are individually true and Statement II is the correct explanation of Statement I.
(
b) Both the statements are individually true but Statement II is not the correct explanation of Statement I.
(
c) Statement I is true but Statement II is false.
(
d) Statement I is false but Statement II is true.
Ans: (b)

Q22. The Acts of Parliament relating to the following matters would not apply to Nagaland unless the State Legislative Assembly so decides:
1. Religious or social practices of the Nagas
2. Naga customary law and procedure
3. Administration of civil and criminal justice involving decisions according to Naga customary law
4. Ownership and transfer of land and its resources Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a) 2 and 3
(
b) 1 and 2
(
c) 1, 2, 3 and 4
(
d) 3 and 4
Ans: (c)

Q23. Which of the following are the functions of the Union Public Service Commission?
1. To conduct examinations for recruitment to the services of the Union.
2. To advise on matters referred to it by the President or the Governor.
3. To advise on all disciplinary matters affecting a government servant.
4. To advise on the principles to be followed in respect of promotions and transfers.
Select the correct answer using the codes given below:
(a) 1 and 2
(
b) 1, 2 and 3
(
c) 1, 3 and 4
(
d) 2, 3 and 4
Ans: (c)

Q24. The salary, allowances and other service conditions of the Chief Information Commissioner are similar to those of:
(a) A judge of the Supreme Court
(
b) The chairman of the UPSC
(
c) The Chief Election Commissioner
(
d) The Central Vigilance Commissioner
Ans: (c)

Q25. Consider the following statements:
1. India’s “Look East” policy lays emphasis on improving cooperation with India’s neighbouring south-east and east Asian countries.
2. The “Look East” policy of India was initiated by the Prime Minister Atal Bihari Vajpayee.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a) Only 1
(
b) Only 2
(
c) Both 1 and 2
(
d) Neither 1 nor 2
Ans: (a)

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