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018 Indian Polity & Constitution Previous Year Questions

Indian Polity & Constitution Previous Year Questions

Q1. The nature of ‘consultation’ with the Chief Justice of India in matters of appointment of a judge to a High Court is correctly described as:
(a) Inspection of the file by the Chief Justice
(
b) Concurrence of the Chief Justice
(
c) Conformity with the opinion of the Chief Justice
(
d) Formal reference to the Chief Justice without any obligation to carry out his wishes.
Ans: (c)

Q2. Which of the following are the reasons for the creation of Union Territories?
1. Special treatment of the tribal people
2. Cultural distinctiveness
3. Strategic importance
4. Care of the backward people
5. Political and administrative considerations Select the correct answer from the codes given below:
(a) 1, 3 and 5
(
b) 2, 3, 4 and 5
(
c) 1, 2, 3, 4 and 5
(
d) 1, 2, 3 and 5
Ans: (c)

Q3. What is the objective of the National Development Council?
(a) To approve the Five-Year Plan made by the Planning Commission with inputs from the Union and the State Governments.
(
b) To settle economic disputes among the Union and the State Governments.
(
c) To settle inter-ministerial disputes in the Union Government.
(
d) To settle inter-ministerial disputes in the State Governments.
Ans: (a)

Q4. Which one of the following Amendments to the Constitution of India sought to curb the political defection?
(a) 42nd Amendment
(
b) 52nd Amendment
(
c) 62nd Amendment
(
d) 70th Amendment
Ans: (b)

Q5. Which one of the following is not a function of a State Finance Commission?
(a) Determination of taxes, duties and tolls which may be assigned to Panchayats
(
b) Grants-in-aid to Panchayats from Consolidated Fund of the Union Government
(
c) Measures to improve financial position of Panchayats
(
d) Distribution of the net proceeds of fees leviable by the State between the State and Panchayats
Ans: (b)

Q6. Statement I:The impeachment of the President is a quasi-judicial procedure in Parliament.
Statement II:Either House of Parliament has to prefer a charge of violation of the Constitution before the other House which may investigate and resolve to remove the President by not less than 2/3rd of the total membership of the House.
Codes:
(a) Both the statements are individually true and Statement II is the correct explanation of Statement I.
(
b) Both the statements are individually true but Statement II is not the correct explanation of Statement I.
(
c) Statement I is true but Statement II is false.
(
d) Statement I is false but Statement II is true.
Ans: (a)

Q7. Which one of the following Fundamental Rights is available to both the citizens and aliens?
(a) The right to equality of opportunity in
(
b) The right to freedoms under Article 19 public employment
(
c) Cultural and educational rights
(
d) The right to equality before law
Ans: (d)

Q8. If any directions are issued by the Union Government to a State and they have not been complied with, then which one of the following statements is correct?
(a) It shall be presumed that the constitutional machinery in the State had failed as per Article 365 of the Constitution
(
b) It shall be presumed that the State had law and order problem and action under Article 365 is required
(
c) The Union Government can appoint advisers to help the Governor for performing his functions
(
d) The Parliament may make laws for that State
Ans: (a)

Q9. Assertion (A) :Collective responsibility of the Cabinet signifies unity and coordination among members of the Council of Ministers.
Reason (R) :It is the prerogative of the Prime Minister to select or drop a member of the Cabinet.
Codes:
(a) Both A and R are individually true and R is the correct explanation of A
(
b) Both A and R are individually true but R is not the correct explanation of A
(
c) A is true but R is false
(
d) A is false but R is true
Ans: (b)

Q10. Consider the following statements:
1. The Parliamentary Forum on Population and Public Health is the first Parliamentary Forum.
2. The first Parliamentary Forum was established in 2004. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a) Only 1
(
b) Only 2
(
c) Both 1 and 2
(
d) Neither 1 nor 2
Ans: (d)

Q11. Consider the following statements:
1. The Governor of Arunachal Pradesh shall have special responsibility for law and order in the state.
2. The Arunachal Pradesh Legislative Assembly is to consist of not less than 40 members.
Which of the statements given above is / are correct?
(a) Only 1
(
b) Only 2
(
c) Both 1 and 2
(
d) Neither 1 nor 2
Ans: (a)

Q12. Consider the following statements:
1. The President of India is empowered by the Constitution of India to make regulations specifying the matters on which it is not necessary to consult the Union Public Service Commission.
2. The reasons for non-acceptance of the advice of the Union Public Service Commission have to be laid before each House of the Parliament.
Which of the statements given above is / are correct?
(a) Only 1
(
b) Only 2
(
c) Both 1 and 2
(
d) Neither 1 nor 2
Ans: (c)

Q13. The Central Information Commission entertains complaints and appeals pertaining to offices, financial institutions and public sector undertakings under the:
1. Central government
2. State government
3. Local government
4. Union territories
Select the correct answer using the codes given below:
(a) 1 and 4
(
b) Only 1
(
c) 1, 2, 3 and 4
(
d) 1, 2 and 3
Ans: (a)

Q14. Which of the following Commonwealth Summit was hosted by India?
(a) 15th Summit
(
b) 18th Summit
(
c) 24th Summit
(
d) 27th Summit
Ans: (c)

Q15. Match List I with List II and select the correct answer using the codes given below:
List-I List-II
(Articles of the Constitution) (Fundamental Rights)
A. Article 20 – 1. Administration of minority educational institutions
B. Article 30 – 2. Equal opportunity in State Employment
C. Article 16 – 3. Retrospective operation of criminal law
D. Article 15 – 4. Protection against discrimination
Codes:

A B C D
(a) 3 4 2 1
(
b) 2 1 3 4
(
c) 3 1 2 4
(
d) 2 4 3 1
Ans: (c)

Q16. Statement I:The principle of Cabinet responsibility in the States differs from that in the Union of India.
Statement II:The Constitution of India does not empower the President of India to exercise any function ‘in his discretion’; it authorizes the Governor to exercise some functions ‘in his discretion’.
Codes:
(a) Both the statements are individually true and Statement II is the correct explanation of Statement I.
(
b) Both the statements are individually true but Statement II is not the correct explanation of Statement I.
(
c) Statement I is true but Statement II is false.
(
d) Statement I is false but Statement II is true.
Ans: (d)

Q17. The initial idea of recruitment on merit principle can be traced to the:
(a) Lee Commission
(
b) Macaulay Committee
(
c) Islington Commission
(
d) Maxwell Committee
Ans: (b)

Q18. According to the Constitution of India, which one of the following rights cannot be taken away during emergency ?
(a) Right to speak
(
b) Right to freedom of movement
(
c) Right to life
(
d) Right to organize
Ans: (c)

Q19. Assertion (A) :The second Commission on Centre-State relations was constituted by the Government of India by amending the Constitution of India, and thus a constitutional status was bestowed on it.
Reason (R) :Issues like role of Governors, economic and social planning which were a part of the terms of reference of the Commission are very important issues in the governance of India.
Codes:
(a) Both A and R are individually true and R is the correct explanation of A
(
b) Both A and R are individually true but R is not the correct explanation of A
(
c) A is true but R is false
(
d) A is false but R is true
Ans: (d)

Q20. Which one of the following statements is not correct?
(a) An Appropriation Act is not essential for passing a grant under a Vote of Credit.
(
b) Re-appropriation does not involve any additional expenditure.
(
c) The Rajya Sabha has no power to vote on the demands for grants.
(
d) No amendment can be proposed in the Appropriation Bill in either House of Parliament.
Ans: (a)

Q21. Consider the following statements regarding the Advisory Jurisdiction of the Supreme Court:
1. The reference for advice may be made to the Supreme Court on a question of law or fact by the President of India.
2. Disputes arising out of pre-constitution treaties and agreements excluded from the original jurisdiction of the Supreme Court may also be referred to it.
3. The advice given by the Supreme Court is binding on the Government.
4. One of the cases referred to the Supreme Court for its advice was the constitutionality of the Kerala Education Bill.
Which of these are correct?
(a) 1, 2 and 4
(
b) 2 and 3
(
c) 1 and 2
(
d) 3 and 4
Ans: (a)

Q22. Under which one of the following provisions is reservation for the Scheduled Castes and the Scheduled Tribes in every Panchayat made?
(a) Article 243 (Q) of the Constitution of India
(
b) Article 243 (V) of the Constitution of India
(
c) Article 243 (S) of the Constitution of India
(
d) Article 243 (D) of the Constitution of India
Ans: (d)

Q23. Consider the following statements:
The Constitution provides for the establishment of Public Service Commission:
1. For the Union
2. For each State
3. Common for Union Territories
4. Common for two or more States Which of these statements are correct?
(a) 1, 2 and 4
(
b) 1, 2 and 3
(
c) 2 and 3
(
d) 1 and 4
Ans: (a)

Q24. Who of the following is not a member of the committee that recommends the appointment of the Central Vigilance Commissioner?
(a) Prime Minister
(
b) Home Minister
(
c) Leader of the Opposition in the Lok Sabha
(
d) Speaker of the Lok Sabha
Ans: (d)

Q25. Which of the following subjects is included in the concurrent list of the constitution of India?
(a) Citizenship
(
b) Inter-state rivers
(
c) Trade unions
(
d) All-India services
Ans: (c)

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