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014 Indian Polity & Constitution Previous Year Questions

Indian Polity & Constitution Previous Year Questions

Q1. Consider the following statements:
1. Originally, the Citizenship Act (1955) , also provided for the Commonwealth Citizenship.
2. The provision for Commonwealth Citizenship was repealed by the Citizenship (Amendment) Act, 200
– 5. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a) Only 1
(
b) Only 2
(
c) Both 1 and 2
(
d) Neither 1 nor 2
Ans: (a)

Q2. Which of the following are considered as parts of the basic structure of the Indian Constitution?
1. Republication and democratic form of Government
2. Secular character of the Constitution
3. Division between Fundamental Rights and Directive Principles of State Policy
4. Federal character of the Constitution
Select the correct answer using the codes given below:
(a) 1, 2 and 3
(
b) 2, 3 and 4
(
c) 1, 3 and 4
(
d) 1, 2 and 4
Ans: (d)

Q3. Which one of the following is not a constitutional prerogative of the President of India?
(a) Returning a Legislative Bill for reconsideration
(
b) Returning a Money Bill for reconsideration
(
c) Dissolving the Lok Sabha
(
d) Summoning the Rajya Sabha
Ans: (b)

Q4. Consider the following statements:
1. The allocation of seats in the Rajya Sabha to be filled by the representatives of the States and of the Union Territories is in accordance with the provisions in that behalf contained in the Fourth Schedule of the Constitution of India.
2. The representatives of each State and Union Territory in the Rajya Sabha are elected by elected members of the Legislative Assembly of the State and the body functioning as Legislature for the Union Territory in accordance with the system of proportional representation by means of the single transferable vote.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a) Only 1
(
b) Only 2
(
c) Both 1 and 2
(
d) Neither 1 nor 2
Ans: (a)

Q5. Assertion (A) :The strength of the State Council of Ministers has not been specified in the Constitution of India.
Reason (R) :A number of pressures operate in the determination of the strength of the Ministry.
Codes:
(a) Both A and R are individually true and R is the correct explanation of A
(
b) Both A and R are individually true but R is not the correct explanation of A
(
c) A is true but R is false
(
d) A is false but R is true
Ans: (a)

Q6. Consider the following pairs:
1. Cantonment Board:Administered centrally by Defence Ministry
2. Notified Area Committee:Administers newly developing towns
3. Municipal Council:Administers big cities with complex problems
4. Municipal Corporation:Headed by an elected Mayor Which of these pairs are correctly matched?
(a) 1, 2, 3 and 4
(
b) 1 and 4
(
c) 1, 2 and 4
(
d) 2 and 3
Ans: (c)

Q7. Which one of the following statements is correct with regard to the office of the Attorney General of India?
(a) He shall have the right of audience in all the Courts within the territory of India.
(
b) He shall perform his duties only in the Supreme Court.
(
c) He enjoys a fixed tenure.
(
d) The President appoints a person who is qualified to be a judge of a High Court, to be the Attorney General of India.
Ans: (a)

Q8. Which one of the following is not a function of the National Commission for Backward Classes?
(a) To examine requests for inclusion of a class of citizens as a backward class.
(
b) To hear complaints of under-inclusion of any backward class.
(
c) To hear complaints of over-inclusion of any backward class.
(
d) To identify the creamy layer among the backward classes.
Ans: (d)

Q9. Match List I with List II and select the correct answer using the codes given below:
List-I List-II
(Name of the Writ) (Issued For)
A. Mandamus – 1. To quash the order of the tribunal
B. Prohibition – 2. To command a person to perform his legal duty
C. Certiorari – 3. Safeguarding against the usurpation of public offices
D. Quo-Warranto – 4. Forbidding the inferior court in excess of its jurisdiction
Codes:

A B C D
(a) 3 4 1 2
(
b) 3 1 4 2
(
c) 2 4 1 3
(
d) 2 1 4 3
Ans: (c)

Q10. Consider the following Committees appointed to examine and report on local governments:
1. Balwant Rai Mehta Committee
2. Ashok Mehta Committee
3. Smt. Daya Choubey Committee
4. R.K. Khanna Committee Which one of the following is the correct chronological sequence in which these Committees were set up?
(a) 2 – 3 – 4 – 1
(
b) 1 – 4 – 3 – 2
(
c) 2 – 4 – 3 – 1
(
d) 1 – 3 – 4 – 2
Ans: (b)

Q11. Which one of the following is the correct statement?
Right to privacy as a Fundamental Right is implicit in:
(a) The Right to Freedom
(
b) The Right to Personal Liberty
(
c) The Right to Equality
(
d) The Right Against Exploitation
Ans: (b)

Q12. When can the Parliament legislate on a subject in the state list?
(a) If the Parliament passes a resolution to that effect in the national interest.
(
b) If the Supreme Court grants necessary authority to the Parliament.
(
c) If the Rajya Sabha passes a resolution by two-thirds majority declaring that the subject in the state list under consideration is of national importance.
(
d) If the President issues an ordinance transferring the subject from the state list to the union or the concurrent lists.
Ans: (c)

Q13. The Vice-President is elected by an electoral college consisting of:
(a) Members of both Houses of Parliament
(
b) Elected members of both Houses of Parliament
(
c) Elected members of both Houses of Parliament and the State Legislative Assemblies
(
d) Members of both Houses of Parliament and the State Legislative Assemblies
Ans: (a)

Q14. Which of the following committees are helped by the CAG in their work of exercising Parliamentary control over the executive?
1. Public Accounts Committee
2. Committee of Privileges
3. Estimates Committee
4. Committee on Public Undertakings Select the correct answer by using the codes given below:
(a) 1 and 4
(
b) 1, 2 and 4
(
c) 1, 2 and 3
(
d) 2, 3 and 4
Ans: (a)

Q15. Who among the following extends the jurisdiction of a High Court to, or excludes from, any Union territory?
(a) Parliament by law
(
b) The President of India
(
c) The Chief Justice of India
(
d) Legislature of the State in which the High Court is situated
Ans: (a)

Q16. The Part ‘C’ and Part ‘D’ states were constituted as the ‘union territories’ by the:
(a) 5th Constitutional Amendment Act
(
b) 16th Constitutional Amendment Act
(
c) 14th Constitutional Amendment Act
(
d) 7th Constitutional Amendment Act
Ans: (d)

Q17. The National Development Council was set up as per:
(a) The Government of India Act, 1935
(
b) The recommendations of the Finance Commission
(
c) The provisions of the Indian Constitution
(
d) The recommendations of the Planning Commission
Ans: (d)

Q18. Disqualification on the ground of defection for a Member of Parliament will not apply:
(a) If he goes out of his party as a result of a merger of the party with another party.
(
b) If he has voluntarily given up his membership of the political party.
(
c) If he abstains from voting in the house contrary to the direction of the political party.
(
d) If a nominated member of a House joins a political party after six months.
Ans: (a)

Q19. Assertion (A) :The Directive Principles are relevant for determining the reasonableness of restrictions under Article 19. Reason (R) :The Directive Principles have been declared superior to fundamental rights.
Codes:
(a) Both A and R are individually true and R is the correct explanation of A.
(
b) Both A and R are individually true but R is not the correct explanation of A.
(
c) A is true but R is false.
(
d) A is false but R is true.
Ans: (c)

Q20. Which of the following taxes belong to the States exclusively?
1. Taxes on lands and buildings
2. Taxes on mineral rights
3. Taxes on entry of goods into local areas
4. Taxes on income other than agricultural income
Select the correct answer using the codes given below:
(a) Only 1, 2 and 3
(
b) Only 2 and 3
(
c) Only 1 and 4
(
d) 1, 2, 3 and 4
Ans: (a)

Q21. Assertion (A) :Education is the fundamental right of every child between the age of 6 and 14 years.
Reason (R) :The 84th Constitutional Amendment Act provided for right to education.
Codes:
(a) Both A and R are individually true and R is the correct explanation of A
(
b) Both A and R are individually true but R is not the correct explanation of A
(
c) A is true but R is false
(
d) A is false but R is true
Ans: (c)

Q22. Match List I with List II and select the correct answer using the codes given below:
List-I List-II
(Source) (Tax)
A. Taxes levied by the Union but collected – 1. Taxes on income other than agriculture and appropriated by the States
B. Taxes levied, collected and retained by – 2. Stamp duties the states
C. Taxes levied and collected by the Centre – 3. Capitation tax but assigned to the States
D. Taxes levied and collected by the Centre – 4. Taxes on lands and buildings and distributed between the Union and the States
5. Taxes on consignment of goods in the course of inter-state trade
Codes:

A B C D
(a) 1 5 4 2
(
b) 2 4 5 1
(
c) 1 3 5 2
(
d) 2 5 4 1
Ans: (b)

Q23. The accountability or responsibility of the Prime Minister and Cabinet to the Lok Sabha is:
(a) Intermittent
(
b) Indirect
(
c) At the time of elections
(
d) Direct, continuous and collective
Ans: (d)

Q24. The Estimates Committee of the Lok Sabha:
(a) Prepares estimates of expenditure of the Central Government
(
b) Examines the accounts of Departments of Government of India
(
c) Prevents unauthorized collection of taxes
(
d) Suggests economies to be made in the Central administration
Ans: (d)

Q25. Consider the following statements:
1. The Fifth Schedule of the Constitution of India (dealing with administration and control of scheduled areas and scheduled tribes) is applicable to the state of Jammu & Kashmir.
2. The Sixth Schedule of the Constitution of India (dealing with administration of tribal areas) is not applicable to the state of Jammu & Kashmir.
Which of the statements given above is / are correct?
(a) Only 1
(
b) Only 2
(
c) Both 1 and 2
(
d) Neither 1 nor 2
Ans: (b)

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