English Language Previous Year Questions for CTET & TET Exams
Q1. Compacting of garbage is done to
(1) avoid soil pollution
(2) protect ground water
(3) remove the stink
(4) save space
Ans: (4) Second line of this passage clearly express the view to managing garbage. So the purpose of managing garbage is to save space. Hence option (4) save space is correct.
Q2. “……the process of turning waste……” The word ‘turning’ is a/an
Ans: (1) Here word ‘turning’ is used as participle. Because it is used antecedent of noun waste. The word ‘turning’ qualifies the noun as an adjective does. Hence option (1) is correct. Participle: Participle is a word which is partly a verb and partly an adjective.
Q3. “There are two main ways to burn waste.” The underlined word is a
Ans: (2) Here word ‘waste’ is used as a material noun. Hence option (2) is correct.
4. Garbage recycling
(1) uses more energy than it saves
(2) saves a lot of energy
(3) saves only a little energy
(4) wastes a lot of energy
4. Second para’s fourth line clearly proves that Garbage recycling uses more energy than it saves. Hence option (1) is correct.
Q5. Consider the following statements. A. Landfilling does not allow water and air pollution. B. Composting is better than landfilling. Which of the above statements is/are true?
(1) Both A and B
(2) Only A
(3) Only B
(4) Neither A nor B
Ans: (3) If we examine the statement A and B and analysis Para III and IV we find that in comparison composting is better than landfilling because Para IV make it clear that landfill space increase. Hence option (3) is correct.
Q6. It is safe to dispose of garbage through
(1) burning and landfilling
(2) recycling and burning
(3) composting and burning
(4) recycling and composting
Ans: (4) Burning and landfilling increase many types of pollution whether recycling and composting reduce pollution so recycling and composting is safe to dispose of garbage.
Q7. Consider the following statements. A. We do not use any energy in the process of composting B. Burning can be a source of energy. Which of the above statements is/are true?
(1) Only B
(2) Both A and B
(3) Neither A nor B
(4) Only A
Ans: (2) After the close study of this passage Para IV and V we find that both statement are applicable. Hence option (2) is correct.
Directions (Q.8-22) Answer the following questions by selecting the correct/most appropriate options.
Q8. A teacher of Class VII while teaching the poem, The Solitary Reaper by William Wordsworth asks children to find how the last words of each line sound. What is she trying to draw the attention of learners to?
(1) Theme of the poem
(2) Spelling of words
(3) Rhyme scheme
Ans: (3) Last word of each line of poetry, teacher is trying to draw the attention of learner to Rhyme scheme. In English versification, standard rhyme consist of the repetition, in the rhyming word, of the last stressed vowel and of all the speech sounds. Hence option (3) is correct.
Q9. To help the students overcome the problems of spelling mistakes, the teacher will use…. as the teaching strategy.
(1) loud reading
(3) pronunciation drill
(4) dictation (परीक्षा तिथि : 18-09-2016)
Ans: (4) Dictation is a teaching method. It is a test in which students write down what is being read to them or the act of speaking or reading so that somebody can write down the words. By this method teacher help the students the problem of spelling mistake. Hence option (4) is correct.
Q10. Grammar translation method of teaching English heavily relies on
(1) form-focused teaching
(2) meaning focused teaching
(3) direct teaching as a strategy for learning
(4) language use as the main focus
Ans: (1) Grammar Translation method is very much based on the written word and texts are widely in evidence. A typical approach would be to present the rules of a particular item of grammar. So this method of teaching English heavily relies on form focused teaching. Hence option (1) is correct.
Q11. Language proficiency refers to A. fluency B. accuracy C. appropriateness D. efficiency Which of the above are true?
(1) A, B and D
(2) A, B and C
(3) B, C and D
(4) A, C and D
Ans: (4) Language proficiency or linguistic is the ability of an individual to speak or perform in an acquired language. Additionally fluency, efficiency appropriateness are generally recognized as being related as theories among pedagogues. Hence option (4) is correct.
Q12. Written description of a child’s progress that a teacher keeps on a day-to-day basis is
(2) anecdotal record
(4) rating scale
Ans: (2) Anecdotal record refers to a personal account of an event. So option (2) is correct answer for written description of a child’s progress that a teacher keeps on a day-to-day. Hence option (2) is correct.
Q13. A teacher of Class VI in a writing assessment task asked students to write on “If I were famous for something…..” This is assessment of a/an …… answer.
Ans: (4) In present question writing assessment task is based on personal or particular predictive event. This assessment clearly refer descriptive technique because in descriptive technique a spoken or written account of a person, object or event is mentioned. Hence option (4) is correct.
Q14. A good language textbook should A. contain learner-centred materials. B. contain teacher-friendly instruction and content-related materials. C. incorporate language skills throughout. D. have more syntactical items in its content. Which of the above are true?
(1) B, C and D
(2) A, B, and C
(3) A, B and D
(4) A, C and D
Ans: (3) Option (3) is related to language skill that is not a characteristic of a good language text book so except this potion all other option (2), (1) and (4) satisfies the answer. Hence option (3) is correct.
Q15. Kavya notes down the errors committed by learners of the class and discusses them once in a fortnight. What is this practice known as?
(1) Providing feedback
(4) Error correction
Ans: (2) Errors committed by learners of the class and discuss them once in a fortnight this practice is known as evaluation because evaluation refers to form an opinion of the value or quality of something after thinking about it carefully. This act is done by Kavya. Hence option (2) is correct.
Q16. When children are introduced to English as a second language
(1) they should read first
(2) they should begin with letters of alphabet
(3) they should be exposed to language orally
(4) they should begin writing first
Ans: (2) There are four skills to learn foreign language. Listening, Writing, Reading and Speaking. Listening occupies first place among the four skill. But this skill is not mentioned in the option. Option (2) They should begin with letters of alphabet.
Q17. Eclecticism in language teaching refers to using
(1) all the methods to teach language
(2) appropriate strategies from various methods of teaching
(3) the best method of teaching
(4) technology to teach language
Ans: (2) In Eclectic approach teacher following one specific methodology, the elective approach is the label given to a teacher’s use of techniques and activities from a range of language teaching approaches and methologies. So option (2) satisfies above fact. Hence option (2) is correct.
Q18. Which of the following approaches/methods advocates linguistic competence and performance?
(1) Communicative approach
(2) Grammar translation method
(3) Direct method
(4) Structural approach
Ans: (1) Communicative approach advocates linguistic competence and performance. The communicative approach emphasize interaction and problem solving as both the means and the ultimate goal of learning language. Hence option (1) is correct.
Q19. Global listening is not listening
(1) for specific information
(2) without being constrained by preset questions or tasks
(3) at different levels of comprehension
(4) for improving recognition of spoken text
Ans: (1) Global listening is not listening for specific information. Global listening is that which a student needs to understand the central point of a lecture or long text. Hence option (1) is correct.
Q20. Which of the following activities needs to be taken care of for helping non-native speakers to produce the sounds of the target language?
(1) Distinguishing the vowel from consonant sounds
(2) Imitating the way a native speaker produces sounds
(3) Ensuring that the words spoken are intelligible to others
(4) Maintaining the regional interference
Ans: (4) Maintaining the regional interference activities needs to be taken care of for helping nonnative speakers to produce the sounds of the target language. Hence option (4) is correct.
Q21. The concept of transformative generative grammar was given by
(2) Ferdinand Saussure
(3) Noam Chomsky
Ans: (3) The concept of transformative generative grammar was given by – Noam Chomsky. Avrom Noam Chomsky is an American linguistic, philosopher and political activist. Hence option (3) is correct.
Q22. Tail question also refers to
(1) follow-up question
(2) question tag
(3) insignificant question
(4) most important question
Ans: (2) Tail question also refers to question tag. Question tag is an expression like do you? or isn’t it?, consisting of an auxiliary verb, put on the end of a sentence. Hence option (2) is correct.
Directions (Q. Nos. 23-30) Read the passage given below and answer the questions that follow by selecting the correct/most appropriate options. “Although India has a traditional of women warriors, participation in the Salt Satyagraha was their excitement at the enormity of the in any modern militant political campaign and I could hardly suppress my excitement at the enormity of the occasion and my own good fortune to be amongst the first. As I attached my name to the pledge to devote myself to, my country’s freedom battle, my hand shook a little under my tumultuous emotions. It seemed such a stupendous moment in my life, in the life of the women of my country. I felt I was tracing not the letters of my name, but recording a historic event. There was not much time for thought, however. The next instant we were filing out, taking the road to the sea, marching with quick steps. Great sky-rending cries or ‘Jai’ filled the air. Heavy-scented flower garlands almost smothered us. From the balconies and roofs unseen hands showered rose-petals until the road became a carpet of flowers. Often our march was stopped and bright-eyed women sprinkled rose water from silver sprays, tipped our palms with sandalwood paste and perfume and blessed us waving lights round our heads and faces for good omen.” The long narrow strip of sand that borders the city like a white ribbon was transformed this morning into another sea. A sea of human faces that swayed and danced and bobbed about even as did the deep azure waves that rimmed the shore. The city seemed to have disgorged almost its entire population onto the sands. It was not the struggling batch of seven that was breaking the Salt Law, but hundreds and thousands not filling the water’s edge. And still they kept coming, thousands of women amongst them striding like proud warriors, gracefully balancing their pitchers of maroon-red earth and shimmering brass that scattered a thousand hues as the sunrays struck them. Even as I lit my little fire to boil the saltwater, I saw thousands of fires aflame dancing in the wind. The copper pans sizzled in laughter while their bosoms traced the white grains of salt as the heat lapped up the last drop of water.
Q23. Women lighted their little fires on the seashore to
(1) make the tea and drink it to overcome their fatigue
(2) protect themselves from cold
(3) boil seawater to make salt
(4) express their anger against the British
Ans: (3) Last 4th line of the passage express that women lighted their little fire to boil seawater to make salt on the seashore to make salt on the seashore. Hence option (3) is correct.
Q24. The word which nearly means the same as ‘stupendous’ is
Ans: (1) Synonyms of the word – ‘Stupendous’ is given in option (1) ‘wonderful’ that is correct. All other words as crucial, significant, influential are not appropriate synonyms of the above word. Hence option (1) is correct.
Q25. The word opposite in meaning to the word ‘proud’ as used in the passage is
Ans: (2) The opposite meaning of the word _ ‘Proud’ is given in option (2) ‘Humble’ that is correct. All other words as gentle, decent, fawning are not appropriate opposite of the above word.
Q26. Which part of speech is the underlined word in the following sentence? “I could hardly suppress my excitement.”
Ans: (2) Here in the present sentence – “I could hardly suppress my excitement.” Word hardly is used as an adverb. Adverb should be placed in a sentence to make it quite clear which word or words they are intended to modify. Here in the present sentence word hardly modifies verb suppress. Hence option (2) is correct.
Q27. Participation in the Salt Satyagraha evoked in the author a feeling of
Ans: (3) First line of the present passage makes it clear – I could hardly suppress my excitement at the enormity of the (Salt Satyagraha) occasion, that in the Salt Satyagraha author evoked in the feeling of excitement. Hence option (3) is correct.
Q28. The author took a pledge to
(1) launch a literacy campaign
(2) fight against social evils
(3) serve the poor people of India
(4) be part of India’s freedom struggle
Ans: (4) Second line of present passage – As I attached my name to the pledge to devote myself to my countries freedom battle (India’s freedom struggle) makes it clear that the author took a pledge to be part of India’s freedom struggle. Hence option (4) is correct.
Q29. The warm welcome given to the Satyagrahis showed
(1) general resentment against British exploitation of the people
(2) that the Indian people turn every event into a joyous occasion
(3) the full support of the people for breaking the Salt Law
(4) people’s hatred of the British
Ans: (3) Whole passage express the fact about the warm welcome given to the Satyagrahis showed the full support of the people for breaking the law salt. Another options are not true. Hence option (3) is correct.
Q30. “A sea of human faces that swayed and danced” means
(1) human faces resembling a sea
(2) people dancing while bathing
(3) people bathing and frolicking
(4) a large number of enthusiastic people
Ans: (4) As sea is expanded in a large area some human being are collected in a large area in India’s freedom struggle. ‘Metaphor’ is used in the present sentence here ‘faces’ refers ‘human being’ who are enthusiastic India’s freedom struggler. Hence option (4) is correct.
Directions: (Q. Nos. 1-7) Read the passage given below and answer the questions that fallow by selecting the correct/most appropriate options. Your body is made up of sixty percent water and you lose the essential fluid every minute of every day as you breathe, digest and hopeful work up a sweat. It is important that you put back every drop. Starting now, drink eight 230 ml glasses of water every single daythat’s the minimum, your body needs daily. That is the non-negotiable sugar savvy hydration Mantra. Many times when you think you’re hungry, sleepy, depressed and /or irritated, you’re actually just dehydrated. Drinking enough water helps you combat water retention. Sounds counterintuitive, but think about it. If you are running around in a semi-dehydrated state all the time, your body is going to hang on to every single drop, giving you that puffy, unhealthy appearance. When you are properly hydrating, your body gets the message that all systems are operating smoothly and it continues its work of flushing out your system and ridding of the excess fluids. If your goal is to lose weight, water is must. When you’re dehydrated, you body sends out signals that you need assistance. Many people mistake those thirsty SOS signals for hunger and take in hundreds of extra calories. They also don’t solve the real problem–thirst
Drinking water can be a powerful appetite suppressant and allows you to cue into your real hunger. Your body also needs plenty of water for proper digestion, so you can get the most from the foods you eat. You are less susceptible to food cravings when your stomach is full and you’re getting all the nutrients you need. Drink two glasses of water before every meal–you’ll eat less
Your body uses water for fat.