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011 Indian Polity & Constitution Previous Year Questions

Indian Polity & Constitution Previous Year Questions

Q1. The Finance Commission is constituted to recommend criteria for:
(a) Framing a financial bill
(
b) Preparing the annual budget of Union Government
(
c) Distribution of financial resources between Union and the States
(
d) Auditing the receipts and expenditures of the Union Government
Ans: (c)

Q2. Statement I:The accounts of every co-operative society shall be audited within one year of the close of the financial year.
Statement II:The audit report of the accounts of an apex co-operative society shall be laid before the state legislature.
Codes:
(a) Both the statements are individually true and Statement II is the correct explanation of Statement I.
(
b) Both the statements are individually true but Statement II is not the correct explanation of Statement I.
(
c) Statement I is true but Statement II is false.
(
d) Statement I is false but Statement II is true.
Ans: (d)

Q3. With reference to the definitions under the Constitution, consider the following statements:
1. Indian state means any territory which the Government of the Dominion of India recognized as such a state.
2. Union territory means any union territory specified in the First Schedule and does not include any other territory comprised within the territory of India but not specified in that Schedule.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a) Only 1
(
b) Only 2
(
c) Both 1 and 2
(
d) Neither 1 nor 2
Ans: (a)

Q4. Which one among the following is not true of the Planning Commission?
(a) It is an advisory body and makes recommendations to the Cabinet.
(
b) It is responsible for the execution of development programmes and plans.
(
c) It is responsible for formulation of a plan for the most effective and balanced utilisation of the country’s resources.
(
d) It indicates the factors which tend to retard economic development.
Ans: (b)

Q5. The text of the Preamble to the Constitution of India aims to secure:
(a) Fundamental rights to all individuals.
(
b) Fundamental duties to citizens of India.
(
c) Dignity of the individual and unity and integrity of the nation.
(
d) Security of service to Government servants.
Ans: (c)

Q6. Respect for the National Flag and the National Anthem is:
(a) A fundamental right of every citizen
(
b) A fundamental duty of every citizen
(
c) A directive principle of state policy
(
d) An ordinary duty of every citizen
Ans: (b)

Q7. Match List I with List II and select the correct answer using the codes given below:
List-I (Power of President) List-II (Relevant Provision)
A. Power to grant pardon – 1. Article 76
B. Executive power of the Union – 2. Article 75
C. Power to appoint Prime Minister – 3. Article 53
D. Appointment of Attorney-General – 4. Article 72
Codes:

A B C D
(a) 4 2 3 1
(
b) 4 3 2 1
(
c) 1 2 3 4
(
d) 1 3 2 4
Ans: (b)

Q8. Assertion (A) :The rule of lapse is not essential for effective financial control.
Reason (R) :The rule of lapse suffers from weaknesses relating to planning and control of expenditure.
Codes:
(a) Both A and R are individually true and R is the correct explanation of A
(
b) Both A and R are individually true but R is not the correct explanation of A
(
c) A is true but R is false
(
d) A is false but R is true
Ans: (d)

Q9. Consider the following statements with regard to the powers enjoyed by the Governor of a State:
1. He addresses the Legislative Assembly of the State at the commencement of the first session of each year.
2. He can send messages to the Legislative Assembly with respect to a Bill pending in the Assembly at that time.
3. He can summon, prorogue and dissolve the Legislative Assembly of the State.
4. He can give assent to a Bill to curtail the powers of the State High Court.
Which of these are correct?
(a) 1 and 4
(
b) 3 and 4
(
c) 1 and 2
(
d) 1, 2 and 3
Ans: (d)

Q10. The sources of revenue of urban local bodies in India are:
1. Taxes
2. Fees and fines
3. Grants
4. Loans Select the correct answer from the codes given below:
(a) 1 and 2
(
b) 1 and 3
(
c) 1, 2, 3 and 4
(
d) 1, 3 and 4
Ans: (c)

Q11. The Article of the Constitution of India containing the provision for the Special Officer for Linguistic Minorities is:
(a) Article 350-A
(
b) Article 351
(
c) Article 350
(
d) Article 350-B
Ans: (d)

Q12. Which among the following is empowered to create more All-India Services?
(a) Rajya Sabha
(
b) Union Parliament
(
c) Lok Sabha
(
d) Union Cabinet
Ans: (b)

Q13. Consider the following statements with respect to the Model Code of Conduct Relating to Elections:
1. Ministers shall not sanction grants/payments out of discretionary funds from the time elections are announced by the Election Commission.
2. Ministers shall not enter any polling station or place of counting except in their capacity as a candidate or voter or authorized agent.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a) Only 1
(
b) Only 2
(
c) Both 1 and 2
(
d) Neither 1 nor 2
Ans: (c)

Q14. Which of the following are included in the non-tax revenue of the municipal bodies?
1. Toll on new bridges
2. Fees and fines
3. Income from enterprises
4. Octroi Select the correct answer from the codes given below:
(a) 1 and 3
(
b) 2, 3 and 4
(
c) 2 and 4
(
d) 2 and 3
Ans: (d)

Q15. According to the Citizenship Act, 1955, by which of the following ways can a person lose citizenship of India?
1. By Renunciation
2. By Termination
3. By Deprivation
Select the correct answer using the codes given below:
(a) 1 and 2
(
b) 2 and 3
(
c) 1, 2 and 3
(
d) 1 and 3
Ans: (c)

Q16. Consider the following statements related to Article 368 of the Constitution:
1. A Constitutional Amendment Bill can be passed at a joint session of Parliament in case of deadlock between the two Houses.
2. It is obligatory for the President of India to give his assent to a Constitutional Amendment Bill passed under Article 368.
3. To amend 7th Schedule of the Constitution, ratification of more than half of the State legislatures is essential.
4. A proposal to amend the Constitution can only be introduced in the House of the People.
Which of these are correct?
(a) 1 and 2
(
b) 1 and 3
(
c) 2 and 3
(
d) 1, 2 and 3
Ans: (c)

Q17. Which one of the following statements is correct?
(a) The President may continue to be a member of Parliament even after assuming charge of Presidential office.
(
b) The President is not barred from holding any other office of profit even after assuming charge of Presidential office.
(
c) The President is entitled to use his official residence only on payment of the rent fixed.
(
d) The emoluments and allowances of the President shall not be diminished during his term of office.
Ans: (d)

Q18. When an advance grant is made by Parliament, pending the regular passage of the budget it is called:
(a) Vote on credit
(
b) Token grant
(
c) Vote on account
(
d) Supplementary grant
Ans: (c)

Q19. The ministers in the Council of Ministers at the state level are appointed by:
(a) President of the party
(
b) Governor
(
c) Chief Minister
(
d) Prime Minister
Ans: (b)

Q20. The Metropolitan Planning Committee while preparing the draft plan has to give due regard to:
1. Matters of common interest between Municipalities and Panchayats
2. Overall objectives and priorities set by the Union Government
3. Plans prepared by Panchayats in Metropolitan area
4. Contingent circumstances emerging out of natural calamities
Select the correct answer using the codes given below:
(a) 1, 2, 3 and 4
(
b) 2 and 4
(
c) 1 and 3
(
d) 1, 2 and 3
Ans: (d)

Q21. The Comptroller and Auditor-General of India has the power to audit which of the following?
1. All expenditure from the Contingency Fund and the Public Account of the Union
2. All expenditure from the Contingency Fund and the Public Account of a State.
3. All expenditure from the Consolidated Fund of each Union Territory having a Legislative Assembly of its own.
4. Accounts of all government companies set up under the Indian Companies Act.
Select the correct answer using the codes given below:
(a) 1, 2, 3 and 4
(
b) Only 1 and 2
(
c) Only 3 and 4
(
d) Only 1, 2 and 3
Ans: (a)

Q22. The constitutional authority vested with the power of declaring castes or tribes as the Scheduled Castes or Scheduled Tribes is the:
(a) Parliament
(
b) Home Minister
(
c) President of India
(
d) Chairman, SC/ST Commission
Ans: (c)

Q23. According to the Constitution of India, a New All-India Service can be created if:
(a) The Parliament of India enacts a law by a special majority prescribed under Article 312 of the Constitution
(
b) The Rajya Sabha passes a resolution by a two-third majority of its members present and voting and an absolute majority of the whole House
(
c) The President of India so desires and issues a proclamation to that effect
(
d) The State Governments initiate such a proposal
Ans: (a)

Q24. Which one of the following is not the occasion for criticizing the government in the Lok Sabha?
(a) General discussion on the budget
(
b) Voting on demands for grants
(
c) Motion of thanks to the President
(
d) Discussion on the Finance Bill
Ans: (a)

Q25. Match List I with List II and select the correct answer using the codes given below:
List-I List-II
(Cases) (Related to)
A. Indra Sawhney Case – 1. Power of Parliament to amend Part III of the Constitution upheld
B. Minerva Mills Case – 2. Procedure Established by Law
C. Gopalan Case – 3. Reservation for Backward Classes
D. Shankari Prasad Case – 4. Revival of Judicial Review
Codes:

A B C D
(a) 3 1 2 4 (b) 2 4 3 1 (c) 3 4 2 1 (d) 2 1 3 4
Ans: (c)

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