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009 Indian Polity & Constitution Previous Year Questions

Indian Polity & Constitution Previous Year Questions

Q1. Which of the following Constitutional Amendment Acts has / have made the decisions of the Council of Ministers binding on the President of India?
(a) 42nd and 44th Amendment Acts
(
b) 43rd Amendment Act
(
c) 40th Amendment Act
(
d) 40th and 41st Amendment Acts
Ans: (a)

Q2. Which one of the following statements is not correct?
(a) The main function of the Public Accounts Committee is to examine the Report of the Comptroller and Auditor-General of India.
(
b) The Public Accounts Committee comprises Members of the Lok Sabha only.
(
c) A member of opposition can also be appointed as the Chairman of the Public Accounts Committee.
(
d) A member of the Public Accounts Committee can be re-elected for a second term.
Ans: (b)

Q3. The Constitution of Jammu & Kashmir came into force on:
(a) January 26, 1950
(
b) January 26, 1952
(
c) January 26, 1955
(
d) January 26, 1957
Ans: (d)

Q4. Which one of the following statements is correct?
The Chief Election Commissioner can be removed from office before expiry of his term:
(a) In like manner and on like grounds as a member of the Union Public Service Commission
(
b) In like manner and on like grounds as a Judge of the Supreme Court
(
c) On the recommendations of the Supreme Court
(
d) On the recommendations of the Cabinet
Ans: (b)

Q5. Consider the following statements:
1. The functions of a State Human Rights Commission are mainly recommendatory in nature.
2. The recommendations of a State Human Rights Commission are binding on the State Government.
Which of the statements given above is / are correct?
(a) Only 1
(
b) Only 2
(
c) Both 1 and 2
(
d) Neither 1 nor 2
Ans: (a)

Q6. Despite being a Republican State, India is a member of the Commonwealth of Nations whose head is the British Monarch. This is because:
(a) This membership does not affect the sovereign nature of the Indian Republic.
(
b) This membership only shows that the British ruled over India.
(
c) Members of the association are sovereign and independent.
(
d) It is a symbol of the unity among the members of the association.
Ans: (a)

Q7. Which of the following issues were included in the terms of reference of the second Commission on Centre-State Relations set up by the Government of India?
1. Inter-linking of rivers
2. Devolution of powers and autonomy to Panchayati Raj Institutions
3. Freeing Inter-State trade
Select the correct answer using the codes given below:
(a) 1 and 2
(
b) 2 and 3
(
c) 1 and 3
(
d) 1, 2 and 3
Ans: (d)

Q8. Match List I with List II and select the correct answer using the codes given below:
List-I List-II
(Features) (Acts)
A. Dyarchy – 1. The Regulating Act, 1773
B. Federalism – 2. Government of India Act, 1919
C. Introduction of communal electorates – 3. Indian Councils Act, 1892
D. Creation of the office of Governor General – 4. Government of India Act, 1935
– 5. Minto-Morley Reforms, 1909
Codes:

A B C D
(a) 2 4 5 1
(
b) 1 5 3 2
(
c) 2 5 3 1
(
d) 1 4 5 2
Ans: (a)

Q9. Which one of the following Acts provided the setting up of a Board of Control in Britain, through which the British Government could fully control the British East India Company’s civil, military and revenue affairs in India?
(a) Regulating Act of 1773
(
b) Pitt’s India Act of 1784
(
c) Charter Act of 1833
(
d) Government of India Act of 1858
Ans: (b)

Q10. The writ of certiorari is issued by a superior court to :
(a) An inferior court to stop further proceedings in a particular case
(
b) An inferior court to transfer the record of proceedings in a case for review
(
c) An officer to show his right to hold a particular office
(
d) A public authority to produce a person detained by it before the court within 24 hours
Ans: (b)

Q11. Which one of the following is not correct?
(a) The executive power of every State shall be so exercised as to ensure compliance with the laws made by the Parliament
(
b) Full faith and credit shall be given throughout the territory of India to public acts, records and judicial proceedings of the Union and of every State.
(
c) The Governor of a State may entrust to the Government of India any matter to which the executive power of the State extends.
(
d) The executive power of the Union extends to the giving of directions to a state to protect the railways within the State.
Ans: (c)

Q12. The provision for the Contingency Fund of India results in:
(a) Absolving the executive from preparing the estimates of the expenditure
(
b) Compelling the legislature to approve the expenditure
(
c) Reducing the legislative control over the executive
(
d) Providing a safety-valve to tide over a crisis
Ans: (d)

Q13. Assertion (A) :The rule-making power of the Supreme Court is not subject to any law made by the Parliament of India.
Reason (R) :Only an impartial and independent judiciary can protect the rights of the individual without fear or favour.
Codes:
(a) Both A and R are individually true and R is the correct explanation of A
(
b) Both A and R are individually true but R is not the correct explanation of A
(
c) A is true but R is false
(
d) A is false but R is true
Ans: (d)

Q14. 73rd Constitutional Amendment does not apply to which of the following states?
(a) Meghalaya
(
b) Goa
(
c) Sikkim
(
d) Himachal Pradesh
Ans: (a)

Q15. Which one of the following statements is not correct in respect of the Union Public Service Commission?
(a) The Constitution of India does not specify the number of Members of the Union Public Service Commission while it specifies the number in case of the Supreme Court judges.
(
b) As nearly as may be one-half of the Members of the Union Public Service Commission must have held office for at least ten years either under the Government of India or under the Government of a State prior to their joining the Commission.
(
c) On ceasing to hold office, a Member of the Union Public Service Commission other than the Chairman is eligible for appointment as the Chairman of a State Public Service Commission.
(
d) Before creation of a new Group ‘A’ post under the Central Government, a clearance from the Union Public Service Commission is required.
Ans: (d)

Q16. Which of the following institutions have been set up by Government of India to check misconduct, malpractices, corruption and misdemeanour on the part of public servants?
1. Central Vigilance Commission
2. Lokpal
3. Special Police Establishment
4. Central Bureau of Investigation Choose the correct answer by using the codes given below:
(a) 2 and 3
(
b) 1 and 4
(
c) 3 and 4
(
d) 1, 3 and 4
Ans: (d)

Q17. Match List I with List II and select the correct answer using the codes given below:
List-I List-II
(Matter) (Article)
A. Right to Equality – 1. Article 14
B. Right to Freedom – 2. Article 25
C. Right to Freedom of Religion – 3. Article 32
D. Right to Constitutional Remedies – 4. Article 19
– 5. Article 13
Codes:

A B C D
(a) 1 3 2 4
(
b) 2 4 5 3
(
c) 1 4 2 3
(
d) 2 3 5 4
Ans: (c)

Q18. The Sachar Committee Report pertains to:
(a) Indian federalism
(
b) Economic development of backward regions
(
c) Indian Muslims
(
d) Backward Classes
Ans: (c)

Q19. The original jurisdiction of the Supreme Court extends to:
(a) Treaties and agreements signed by the Government of India
(
b) Disputes between the Government of India and one or more States
(
c) Disputes relating to implementation of the Directive Principles of State Policy
(
d) A bill passed by the Parliament which is violative of the Constitution
Ans: (b)

Q20. The members of the Constituent Assembly were:
(a) Directly elected by the people.
(
b) Nominated by the Governor General
(
c) Elected by the Legislatures of various provinces and nominated by the rulers of the princely states.
(
d) Nominated by the Congress and the Muslim League.
Ans: (c)

Q21. Which one of the following is a correct statement?
(a) Primacy is given to all the directive principles contained in Part IV of the Constitution over fundamental rights.
(
b) Primacy is given to all the fundamental rights conferred by Article 14-32 of the Constitution over directive principles.
(
c) Primacy is given to all the fundamental rights conferred by Part III of the Constitution over directive principles.
(
d) Primacy is given only to directive principles in clauses (b) and (c) of Article 39 over fundamental rights conferred by Articles 14 and 19 of the Constitution.
Ans: (d)

Q22. In case of declaration of financial emergency:
(a) All the State Governments will be dissolved and management of economy will be taken over by the Union Government
(
b) All Money Bills of the states will be considered and passed only by the Parliament
(
c) All the State Assemblies will be put under suspended animation and laws on the State List will be enacted by the Parliament
(
d) The President may give such directions to the states as may be deemed necessary for economic recovery and salaries of officials may be temporarily reduced
Ans: (d)

Q23. Assertion (A) :Money bills originate only in the Lower House of Parliament.
Reason (R) :The Lower House of the Parliament is a popularly elected body.
Codes:
(a) Both A and R are individually true and R is the correct explanation of A
(
b) Both A and R are individually true but R is not the correct explanation of A
(
c) A is true but R is false
(
d) A is false but R is true
Ans: (a)

Q24. Which one of the following statements is not correct?
(a) The Governor can issue ordinances when the Legislative Assembly is not in session or only when two Houses are not in session.
(
b) The Governor can at his discretion issue the ordinances whether the Assembly is in session or not.
(
c) The Governor must be satisfied that such circumstances exist which render it necessary for him to take immediate action.
(
d) The Governor’s ordinance shall have the same force and effect as an Act of the Legislature.
Ans: (b)

Q25. Consider the following statements:
The 73rd Constitutional Amendment Act provided:
1. For 27% reservation of seats in the Panchayats for the Other Backward Castes (OBCs) .
2. That the Chairpersons of the Panchayats at intermediate or district level, shall be elected by, and from amongst the elected members thereof.
Which of the statements given above is / are correct?
(a) Only 1
(
b) Only 2
(
c) Both 1 and 2
(
d) Neither 1 nor 2
Ans: (b)

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