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008 Indian Polity & Constitution Previous Year Questions

Indian Polity & Constitution Previous Year Questions

Q1. The Articles in the Indian Constitution that are grouped under Services under the Union and the States are:
(a) Articles 310 to 323
(
b) Articles 308 to 323
(
c) Articles 306 to 323
(
d) Articles 305 to 323
Ans: (b)

Q2. Statement I:During the conduct of elections, the Election Commission appoints Observers.
Statement II:If the candidates or their agents have any specific complaint or problem regarding the conduct of elections, they may bring the same to the notice of the Observer.
Codes:
(a) Both the statements are individually true and Statement II is the correct explanation of Statement I.
(
b) Both the statements are individually true but Statement II is not the correct explanation of Statement I.
(
c) Statement I is true but Statement II is false.
(
d) Statement I is false but Statement II is true.
Ans: (a)

Q3. The Supreme Court does not have original jurisdiction regarding a dispute between:
(a) The Government of India and a State or States
(
b) The Government of India and one State on one side and one or more States on the other side
(
c) Two States
(
d) A citizen and a State
Ans: (d)

Q4. Match List I with List II and select the correct answer using the codes given below:
List-I List-II
(Provisions Pertaining to Citizenship) (Contained in Articles)
A. Rights of citizenship of certain persons who have migrated – 1. Article 5 to India from Pakistan
B. Persons voluntarily acquiring citizenship of a foreign state – 2. Article 7 not to be citizens
C. Citizenship at the commencement of the Constitution – 3. Article 6
D. Rights of citizenship of certain migrants to Pakistan – 4. Article 8
– 5. Article 9
Codes:

A B C D
(a) 3 4 2 5
(
b) 2 5 3 1
(
c) 2 4 1 3
(
d) 3 5 1 2
Ans: (d)

Q5. Amendment of which one of the following provisions of the Constitution requires ratification by the Legislatures of the States?
(a) Article 157 relating to the qualifications for appointment as Governor of the State
(
b) Article 123 relating to the powers of the President to promulgate ordinances on a subject mentioned in Concurrent List during the recess of the Parliament
(
c) Article 56 relating to the term of the office of the President
(
d) Article 54 relating to the election of the President
Ans: (d)

Q6. The authority to declare war or peace under the Indian Constitutions is vested in:
(a) The Prime Minister
(
b) The Defence Minister
(
c) The Parliament
(
d) The President
Ans: (d)

Q7. A Money Bill deals with:
1. The receipt of money on account of the public account of India
2. Giving any guarantee by the Government of India for borrowing of money
3. Custody of Consolidated Fund of India
4. Withdrawal of money from Contingency Fund of India
Select the correct answer using the codes given below:
(a) 1 and 2
(
b) 1, 2, 3 and 4
(
c) 1, 2 and 4
(
d) 3 and 4
Ans: (b)

Q8. The ministers in the State could be prosecuted only with the approval of the Governor because they:
(a) Are the heads of the ministries
(
b) Are representatives of the people
(
c) Enjoy certain immunities under the provisions of the Constitution
(
d) Exercise executive powers on behalf of the Governor
Ans: (c)

Q9. The first municipal corporation that was established in India is at
(a) Madras
(
b) Delhi
(
c) Bombay
(
d) Hyderabad
Ans: (a)

Q10. The Comptroller and Auditor-General of India submits three reports to the Parliament/State Legislatures. Which one of the following reports does not come under that category?
(a) Audit Report on Finance Accounts
(
b) Audit Report on Appropriation Accounts
(
c) Audit Report on Capital Accounts
(
d) Audit Report on Commercial and Public Sector Enterprises
Ans: (c)

Q11. Which one of the following is the correct chronological order of setting up of the given Commissions concerning weaker sections of the Indian society?
(a) Kaka Saheb Kalelkar Commission – National Commission for Minorities – National Commission for Scheduled Castes and Scheduled Tribes – Mandal Commission
(
b) National Commission for Scheduled Castes and Scheduled Tribes – National Commission for Minorities – Kaka Saheb Kalelkar Commission – Mandal Commission
(
c) Kaka Saheb Kalelkar Commission – Mandal Commission – National Commission for Scheduled Castes and Scheduled Tribes – National Commission for Minorities
(
d) National Commission for Scheduled Castes and Scheduled Tribes – Mandal Commission – Kaka Saheb Kalelkar Commission – National Commission for Minorities
Ans: (c)

Q12. Consider the following statements:
A municipal corporation’s income (revenue) is derived from:
1. Local taxes
2. Grants from State Government
3. Income from remunerative enterprises
4. Tax sharing between State Government and the Municipal Corporation concerned Which of these statements are correct?
(a) 1, 2 and 4
(
b) 1, 2 and 3
(
c) 2, 3 and 4
(
d) 1, 2, 3 and 4
Ans: (d)

Q13. Match List I with List II and select the correct answer using the codes given below:
List-I List-II
(Writs) (Subject Matter)
A. Habeas Corpus – 1. A command to produce the body in person
B. Certiorari – 2. A command to a public authority to do its duty
C. Mandamus – 3. A proceeding to enquire into the legality of a claim of a person
D. Quo-Warranto – 4. A directive to a lower court or judicial body not to exceed its limits
Codes:

A B C D
(a) 1 4 3 2
(
b) 4 1 3 2
(
c) 4 1 2 3
(
d) 1 4 2 3
Ans: (d)

Q14. Assertion (A) :One of the fundamental principles of the Indian Constitution is the Rule of Law.
Reason (R) :The Constitution of India has guaranteed to every citizen the equality before law and has recognized the judiciary as the unfailing guardian of the rights of people.
Codes:
(a) Both A and R are individually true and R is the correct explanation of A
(
b) Both A and R are individually true but R is not the correct explanation of A
(
c) A is true but R is false
(
d) A is false but R is true
Ans: (a)

Q15. Assertion (A) :Article 1 of the Constitution of India describes India as a Union of States rather than a federal state.
Reason (R) :Indian federation is not the result of an agreement by the units; and the component units have no freedom to secede from it.
Codes:
(a) Both A and R are individually true and R is the correct explanation of A
(
b) Both A and R are individually true but R is not the correct explanation of A
(
c) A is true but R is false
(
d) A is false but R is true
Ans: (a)

Q16. Consider the following statements:
1. The Constitution of India provides that the Vice-President of India shall be the ex-officio Chairman of the Council of States.
2. The Constitution of India has not fixed any emoluments for the Vice-President of India in that capacity.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a) Only 1
(
b) Only 2
(
c) Both 1 and 2
(
d) Neither 1 nor 2
Ans: (c)

Q17. The Chairman of the Public Accounts Committee of the Parliament is appointed by the:
(a) Speaker of Lok Sabha
(
b) Prime Minister of India
(
c) President of India
(
d) Chairman of Rajya Sabha
Ans: (a)

Q18. A retired judge of a High Court cannot:
(a) Practise in the Supreme Court
(
b) Practise in any High Court in India
(
c) Practise in the High Court from where he
(
d) Practise in any court in India has retired
Ans: (c)

Q19. Which of the following Constitutional Amendment Acts provides a special status to the Union Territory of Delhi and redesignated it the National Capital Territory of Delhi?
(a) 59th Amendment Act
(
b) 62nd Amendment Act
(
c) 67th Amendment Act
(
d) 69th Amendment Act
Ans: (d)

Q20. Which one of the following is not correct?
(a) The Planning Commission prepares the plan in consultation with Union Ministries and State Governments.
(
b) The various Central Ministries and State Governments draw up their own plans according to their needs, irrespective of the allocation received.
(
c) An effort is made through negotiation and discussion to secure agreement among the Central Ministries and State Governments regarding planning.
(
d) The draft five year plan prepared by the Planning Commission is placed before the Parliament for its sanction.
Ans: (b)

Q21. Which of the following are included in booth capturing?
1. Seizure of a polling station and making polling authorities surrender ballot papers or voting machines.
2. Taking possession of polling station and allowing only one’s own supporters to exercise their franchise.
3. Threatening and preventing any elector from going to polling station.
4. Seizure of the place being used for counting of votes.
Select the correct answer by using the codes given below:
(a) 1 and 2 only
(
b) 2 and 3 only
(
c) 1, 2, 3 and 4
(
d) 3 and 4 only
Ans: (c)

Q22. In which among the following cases, can the joint session of both the Houses of Parliament be summoned?
1. To amend the Constitution
2. When a Bill has been pending with one House for more than six months after it was passed by the other
3. When both the Houses disagree on the amendments to be made in a Bill
4. When a bill is passed by one House and is rejected by the other
Select the correct answer using the codes given below:
(a) 1, 2 and 3
(
b) 2, 3 and 4
(
c) 2 and 3 only
(
d) 1 and 4 only
Ans: (b)

Q23. With reference to the conduct of government business in the Parliament, the term ‘closure’ refers to:
(a) Suspension of debate at the termination of a day’s sitting of the Parliament
(
b) A rule of legislative procedure under which further debate on a motion can be halted
(
c) The termination of a Parliamentary session
(
d) Refusal on the part of the Government to have the opposition look at important documents
Ans: (b)

Q24. Which one of the following rights cannot be inferred from Article 21 of the Constitution?
(a) Right against inhuman treatment
(
b) Right against delayed execution
(
c) Right against solitary confinement
(
d) Right to form association
Ans: (d)

Q25. A law made by Parliament having extra-territorial operation shall:
(a) Not be deemed invalid
(
b) Be deemed invalid
(
c) Be deemed ultravires
(
d) Be deemed unconstitutional
Ans: (a)

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