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006 Indian Polity & Constitution Previous Year Questions

Indian Polity & Constitution Previous Year Questions

Q1. Assertion (A) :No criminal proceedings can be instituted against the Governor of a State in any court during his tenure of office.
Reason (R) :There is a provision under the Constitution of India for such protection to the Governor of a State.
Codes:
(a) Both A and R are individually true and R is the correct explanation of A
(
b) Both A and R are individually true but R is not the correct explanation of A
(
c) A is true but R is false
(
d) A is false but R is true
Ans: (a)

Q2. A new Panchayat constituted upon the dissolution of a Panchayat before the expiration of its term shall continue:
(a) For next five years from the date of its first meeting and no longer
(
b) For the remainder of the period for which the dissolved Panchayat would have continued had it not been so dissolved
(
c) Till it enjoys the pleasure of the Governor
(
d) Till State Legislative Assembly allows it to continue
Ans: (b)

Q3. Which one of the following freedoms is not guaranteed by the Constitution of India?
(a) Freedom to own, acquire and dispose of property
(
b) Freedom to move freely throughout the country
(
c) Freedom to assemble peaceably and without arms
(
d) Freedom to practice any trade or profession
Ans: (a)

Q4. The Constitution of India is federal in character because:
(a) The Head of the State (the President) is elected by an electoral college consisting of the elected members of both the Houses of Parliament and the elected members of the Legislative Assemblies of the States.
(
b) The Governors of States are appointed by the President and they hold office during the pleasure of the President.
(
c) There is distribution of powers between the Union and the States.
(
d) The amendment of the Constitution can be made only by following the procedure laid down in the Constitution and in some cases the amendment requires ratification by Legislatures of the States.
Ans: (c)

Q5. The Union Executive of India consists of:
(a) The President, the Vice-President, the Lok Sabha Speaker and the Council of Ministers
(
b) The President, the Deputy Chairman of the Rajya Sabha, the Lok Sabha Speaker and the Prime Minister
(
c) The President and the Council of Ministers
(
d) The President, the Vice-President and the Council of Ministers
Ans: (d)

Q6. Match List I with List II and select the correct answer by using the codes given below:
List-I List-II
(Parliamentary Committees) (Functions)
A. Select Committee – 1. Allocates time for discussion on various items
B. Committee on Petitions – 2. Considers the question o contempt of the House
C. Business Advisory Committee – 3. Entertains representations from individuals
D. Estimates Committee – 4. Scrutinises a bill clause by clause and suggests changes
– 5. Examines departmental expenditure in the budget
Codes:

A B C D
(a) 4 3 1 5
(
b) 3 4 1 5
(
c) 4 3 5 2
(
d) 3 4 5 2
Ans: (a)

Q7. The transfer of Judges from one High Court to another High Court may be made by the:
(a) President of India in consultation with the Chief Justice of that High Court.
(
b) Chief Justice of the concerned High Court.
(
c) Governor of the concerned State in consultation with the Chief Justice of India.
(
d) President of India after consultation with the Chief Justice of India.
Ans: (d)

Q8. Which of the following is correct regarding the union territories?
1. Articles 239 to 241 contain provisions regarding the union territories.
2. Part VIII of the Constitution deal with the union territories.
3. Part VII of the Constitution deal with the union territories.
4. Articles 238 to 242 contain provisions regarding the union territories.
Select the correct answer from the codes given below:
(a) 1 and 3
(
b) 1 and 2
(
c) 3 and 4
(
d) 2 and 4
Ans: (b)

Q9. Which one of the following statements about the Planning Commission is true?
(a) It is a constitutional body.
(
b) It is a statutory body.
(
c) It has been created by an executive order.
(
d) It is quasi-judicial in character.
Ans: (c)

Q10. What was the subject of the Vohra Committee?
(a) Reform of the electoral laws
(
b) Nexus between crime and politics
(
c) Registration of political parties
(
d) Judicial interference in electoral matters
Ans: (b)

Q11. Which one among the following items was not added to the Concurrent List of the Constitution of India under the provisions of the 42nd Amendment Act, 1976?
(a) Family Planning
(
b) Forests
(
c) Education
(
d) Railways
Ans: (d)

Q12. Consider the following statements:
1. The Comptroller and Auditor General of India/the Chairman and the Members of the Union Public Service Commission are appointed by the President by warrant under his hand and seal and shall be removed from office in like manner and on the like grounds as a Judge of the Supreme Court.
2. A Judge of the Supreme Court can be removed from his office on grounds of proved misbehaviour or incapacity after an address by each House of Parliament is supported by a majority of total membership of that House.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a) Only 1
(
b) Only 2
(
c) Both 1 and 2
(
d) Neither 1 nor 2
Ans: (d)

Q13. Through which provisions does the Constitution of India explicitly prohibits racial discrimination in India?
(a) Articles 14 and 17
(
b) Articles 17 and 23
(
c) Articles 15 and 16
(
d) Article 17 only
Ans: (c)

Q14. Consider the following statements:
1. Parliament shall, while a proclamation of Emergency is in operation, have the power to make laws for the whole or any part of territory of India with respect to any of the matters enumerated in the State List.
2. Parliament has exclusive power to make any law with respect to any matter not enumerated in the Concurrent List or State List.
3. Parliament has power to make any law for the whole or any part of the territory of India for implementing any treaty, agreement or convention with any other country.
4. Parliament has power to legislate with respect to a matter in the State List in the national interest subject to the resolution passed by the Council of States by two-thirds majority.
Which of these statements are correct?
(a) 1, 2 and 3
(
b) 1, 2, 3 and 4
(
c) 1, 3 and 4
(
d) 2 and 4
Ans: (b)

Q15. How are the salaries and allowances of the Union Ministers determined?
(a) By the Cabinet Secretariat
(
b) By the Parliament
(
c) By the Ministry of Finance
(
d) By the Ministry of Parliamentary Affairs
Ans: (b)

Q16. Statement I:The Annual Financial Statement presented in the Lok Sabha contains apart from the estimates of expenditure, ways and means to raise revenue.
Statement II:After the Annual Financial Statement is presented in the Lok Sabha, the Estimates Committee examines it.
Codes:
(a) Both the statements are individually true and Statement II is the correct explanation of Statement I.
(
b) Both the statements are individually true but Statement II is not the correct explanation of Statement I.
(
c) Statement I is true but Statement II is false.
(
d) Statement I is false but Statement II is true.
Ans: (b)

Q17. In India, there is a single constitution for the Union and the states with the exception of:
(a) Sikkim
(
b) Jammu & Kashmir
(
c) Nagaland
(
d) Tamil Nadu
Ans: (b)

Q18. Before giving any decision on questions about disqualification of a member of either House of Parliament, the President of India shall obtain the opinion of which one of the following?
(a) Supreme Court
(
b) Election Commission
(
c) Attorney-General of India
(
d) Solicitor-General of India
Ans: (b)

Q19. Who among the following can be the chairperson of a State Human Rights Commission?
(a) Only a retired Chief Justice of India
(
b) Any serving judge of the Supreme Court
(
c) Any serving judge of a High Court
(
d) Only a retired Chief Justice of a High Court
Ans: (d)

Q20. Which one of the following does not come under the concept of Non-alignment?
(a) Foreign aid from all available sources
(
b) Non-involvement in military alliances formulated in the context of Cold War
(
c) Faith in isolationism
(
d) A demand for a better deal from the North Countries or South Countries
Ans: (c)

Q21. The purpose of Directive Principles of State Policy is to:
(a) Lay down positive instructions which would guide State Policy at all levels
(
b) Implement Gandhiji’s idea for a decentralised state
(
c) Check the use of arbitrary powers by the Government
(
d) Promote welfare of the backward sections of the society
Ans: (a)

Q22. Which one of the following fundamental rights is also available to a foreigner on Indian soil?
(a) Prohibition of discrimination on grounds of religion, race, caste, sex or place of birth
(
b) Equality of opportunity in matters of public employment
(
c) Protection of life and personal liberty according to procedure established by law
(
d) To practice any profession or to carry on any occupation, trade or business
Ans: (c)

Q23. Consider the following statements:
1. The first Public Service Commission in India was set up in the year 1926, on the recommendation of the Lee Commission on the Superior Civil Services in India.
2. The Government of India Act, 1935, provided for setting up of public service commissions at both the federal and provincial levels.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a) Only 1
(
b) Only 2
(
c) Both 1 and 2
(
d) Neither 1 nor 2
Ans: (c)

Q24. Which of the following Constitutional Amendments have added Article 15 (5) in the Constitution of India providing for reservation in educational institutions in the private sector also ?
(a) 81st Amendment
(
b) 86th Amendment
(
c) 91st Amendment
(
d) 93rd Amendment
Ans: (d)

Q25. Which one of the following statements is not correct?
(a) No law made by a State legislature shall be treated as unconstitutional if it incidentally touches upon the jurisdiction provided for under List I or List III.
(
b) The legislature of a State cannot make a law to regulate “Water”.
(
c) The law made by Parliament under Article 357 for a State continues its application after the expiry of President’s rule.
(
d) Parliament has full power to make law on a residuary matter.
Ans: (b)

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