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003 Indian Polity & Constitution Previous Year Questions

Indian Polity & Constitution Previous Year Questions

Q1. The expression ‘Prime Ministerial form of government’ indicates a form of government in which:
(a) The Prime Minister is directly elected by the people
(
b) The Prime Minister heads a coalition
(
c) The Prime Minister is the Head of the State
(
d) The Prime Minister is no longer the first among equals but is dominant
Ans: (d)

Q2. Which of the following statements about the right to freedom of religion is not correct?
(a) The State can regulate the economic, financial, political or other secular activities which may be associated with religious practices.
(
b) Restrictions can be imposed on the right to freedom of religion on grounds of maintenance of public order, morality or health.
(
c) Every religious denomination has the right to establish and maintain institutions for religious and charitable purposes.
(
d) Funds appropriated by a religious denomination for promoting and maintaining a particular religion are taxable.
Ans: (d)

Q3. Assertion (A) :The All-India Services violate the federal principle of the Constitution as well as the autonomy of States.
Reason (R) :The All-India Service officers are governed by Central Government rules and the State Governments do not have full control over them.
Codes:
(a) Both A and R are individually true and R is the correct explanation of A
(
b) Both A and R are individually true but R is not the correct explanation of A
(
c) A is true but R is false
(
d) A is false but R is true
Ans: (a)

Q4. According to Article 74 of the Constitution, which of the following statements relating to the advice tendered by Ministers to the President would be correct?
(a) It shall not be inquired into in any court.
(
b) It can be inquired into in the Supreme Court.
(
c) It can be inquired into in all the courts.
(
d) It cannot be inquired into in the High Courts.
Ans: (a)

Q5. Which one of the following is not a function of the Committee on Subordinate Legislation?
(a) To evolve a systematic pattern of the terms of delegation
(
b) To improve the methods of publicity of the rules
(
c) To lay down rules and regulations on the table of the House
(
d) To achieve uniformity in rule-making procedures
Ans: (c)

Q6. According to the Constitution of India, which of the following statement (s) is/are not correct with regard to Jammu & Kashmir?
1. Provisions of Article 368 cannot be extended to J & K unless it is extended by an order of the President.
2. No alteration of the boundaries of the State without the consent of the Legislature of the State of J & K.
3. The Union has power to make a proclamation of financial emergency with respect to the State of J & K.
Select the correct answer using the codes given below:
(a) Only 1
(
b) 1 and 2
(
c) 3 only
(
d) 1 and 3
Ans: (c)

Q7. Match List I with List II and select the correct answer using the codes given below:
List-I List-II
(Commissions) (Created Under Articles)
A. The Finance Commission – 1. Article 280
B. The Commission for Backward Classes – 2. Article 340
C. The Election Commission – 3. Article 324
D. The Official Language Commission – 4. Article 344
Codes:

A B C D
(a) 1 4 3 2
(
b) 3 2 1 4
(
c) 1 2 3 4
(
d) 3 4 1 2
Ans: (c)

Q8. A member of a State Human Rights Commission holds office for:
(a) 5 years or until the age of 70 years, whichever is earlier.
(
b) 5 years or until the age of 65 years, whichever is earlier.
(
c) 6 years or until the age of 70 years, whichever is earlier.
(
d) 6 years or until the age of 65 years, whichever is earlier.
Ans: (a)

Q9. Which of the following are the principles of the Panchsheel?
1. Peaceful co-existence
2. Mutual protection of the environment
3. Mutual protection of indigenous population
4. Mutual non-aggression
Select the correct answer using the codes given below:
(a) 2 and 3
(
b) 1 and 2
(
c) 1, 2 and 4
(
d) 1 and 4
Ans: (d)

Q10. Which of the following statements with regard to financial emergency is/are correct?
1. It is required to be approved by both the Houses of the Parliament within one month.
2. Once approved by both the Houses of the Parliament, it remains valid for six months.
3. Salary of any government official including the Supreme Court judges can be reduced during financial emergency.
4. During financial emergency, the executive authority of the Union shall extend to the giving of directions to any State to observe such canons of financial propriety as may be specified in the directions.
Select the correct answer using the codes given below:
(a) 1, 2, 3 and 4
(
b) 1 and 4
(
c) 3 and 4
(
d) Only 3
Ans: (c)

Q11. Consider the following statements:
1. The Central Vigilance Commission comprises a Central Vigilance Commissioner and three Vigilance Commissioners.
2. The Central Vigilance Commission became a multi-member Commission with statutory status in the year 1998 after promulgation of an Ordinance by the President of India.
3. The Committee for the selection to the post of the Director in the Directorate of Enforcement, Ministry of Finance, Government of India is chaired by the Central Vigilance Commissioner.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a) 1, 2 and 3
(
b) Only 2
(
c) Only 2 and 3
(
d) Only 1 and 3
Ans: (c)

Q12. Which of the following are the principal features of the Government of India Act, 1919?
1. Introduction of dyarchy in the executive government of the Provinces.
2. Introduction of separate communal electorates for Muslims.
3. Devolution of legislative authority by the Centre to the Provinces.
4. Expansion and reconstitution of Central and Provincial Legislatures.
Select the correct answer from the codes given below:
(a) 1, 2 and 3
(
b) 2, 3 and 4
(
c) 1, 2 and 4
(
d) 1, 3 and 4
Ans: (d)

Q13. Untouchability has been abolished by the Constitution of India under:
(a) Article 14
(
b) Article 15
(
c) Article 16
(
d) Article 17
Ans: (d)

Q14. Assertion (A) :There has been a growing demand for review of Centre-State relationships.
Reason (R) :The states have no adequate resources to take up developmental projects.
Codes:
(a) Both A and R are individually true and R is the correct explanation of A
(
b) Both A and R are individually true but R is not the correct explanation of A
(
c) A is true but R is false
(
d) A is false but R is true
Ans: (a)

Q15. Which of the following statements about the reasons for separation of the Railway Budget from the General Budget are correct?
1. To introduce flexibility in railway finance management
2. To facilitate a business approach to the railway policy
3. To secure stability of the general revenues by providing an assured annual contribution from railway revenues
4. To enable the railways to keep their profits for their own development
Select the correct answer using the codes given below:
(a) 2, 3 and 4 only
(
b) 1 and 4 only
(
c) 1, 2 and 3 only
(
d) 1, 2, 3 and 4
Ans: (d)

Q16. Which one of the following is not an essential condition for appointment as a judge of the Supreme Court?
(a) A citizen of India
(
b) At least five years’ experience as judge of a High Court or of two or more such Courts in succession
(
c) Must have completed 35 years of age
(
d) At least ten years’ experience as an advocate of a High Court or of two or more such Courts in succession
Ans: (c)

Q17. Which one of the following about Article 243 (G) is correct?
(a) Panchayats should be enabled by law to function as agents of the State Government.
(
b) Panchayats should be enabled by law to function as institutions of self-government.
(
c) Panchayats will act as the implementing agencies for centrally sponsored schemes.
(
d) Gram Panchayats will be answerable to District Panchayats.
Ans: (b)

Q18. In terms of Constitutional status, the Union Public Service Commission is:
(a) An Advisory Body
(
b) A Grievance Redressal Body
(
c) A body incharge of directing recruitment at State level
(
d) A body which supervises training of civil servants fit
Ans: (a)

Q19. The Parliament enacted a law conferring statutory status on the Central Vigilance Commission in:
(a) 2000
(
b) 2002
(
c) 2003
(
d) 2005
Ans: (c)

Q20. Which one of the following pairs is not correctly matched?
(a) Protection of childhood and youth from exploitation : Article 39
(
b) Right to work, to education and to public assistance in certain cases : Article 41
(
c) Provision for early childhood care and education to children below six years : Article 45
(
d) Protection of monuments and places and objects of national importance : Article 48-A
Ans: (d)

Q21. Which of the following statements is correct regarding the procedure of passing of Bills in Parliament?
(a) A Bill pending in Parliament shall not lapse because of the prorogation of the two Houses of Parliament.
(
b) A Bill pending in the Rajya Sabha which has not been passed by the Lok Sabha shall lapse on the dissolution of the Lok Sabha.
(
c) A Bill passed by the Lok Sabha and pending in the Rajya Sabha shall not lapse on the dissolution of the Lok Sabha.
(
d) A Bill passed by both Houses but returned by the President for reconsideration of Houses shall lapse on the dissolution of the Lok Sabha.
Ans: (a)

Q22. In the Interim Government formed in the year 1946, who of the following held the portfolio of Defence?
(a) Vallabhbhai Patel
(
b) Jagivan Ram
(
c) Baldev Singh
(
d) Asaf Ali
Ans: (c)

Q23. The Constitution of India as framed by the Constituent Assembly was finally adopted and enacted on:
(a) 15th August, 1947
(
b) 30th January, 1948
(
c) 26th November, 1949
(
d) 26th January, 1950
Ans: (c)

Q24. Which one of the following is not the objective of the Directive Principles of State Policy?
(a) To establish a welfare state
(
b) To ensure socio-economic justice
(
c) To establish a religious state
(
d) To establish a secular state
Ans: (c)

Q25. Which of the following are not necessarily the consequences of the proclamation of the President’s Rule in a State?
1. Dissolution of the State Legislative Assembly
2. The removal of the Council of Ministers in the State
3. Dissolution of the local bodies
4. Takeover of the State administration by the Union Government Choose the correct answer from the codes given below:
(a) 1, 2 and 4
(
b) 1 and 3
(
c) 2 and 3
(
d) 1, 3 and 4
Ans: (b)

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