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002 Indian Polity & Constitution Previous Year Questions

Indian Polity & Constitution Previous Year Questions

Q1. Which one of the following is not correct in respect of the Governor’s Ordinance-making power?
(a) It is exercised only when the Legislature is not in session.
(
b) It is a discretionary power which need not be exercised with the aid and advice of Ministers.
(
c) The Governor himself is competent to withdraw the Ordinance at any time.
(
d) The scope of the Ordinance-making power is limited to subjects in List II and List III of Schedule VII.
Ans: (b)

Q2. Consider the following:
1. District Board
2. Municipal Corporation
3. Notified Area Authority and Town Area Committee
4. Township Committee and Port Trust Which of these is/are urban local body / bodies in India?
(a) Only 1
(
b) 2 and 3
(
c) 1, 3 and 4
(
d) 2, 3 and 4
Ans: (d)

Q3. Statement I:The National Commission for STs is vested with the power to regulate its own procedure.
Statement II:The National Commission for STs, while investigating any matter or inquiring into any complaint, has all the powers of a civil court.
Codes:
(a) Both the statements are individually true and Statement II is the correct explanation of Statement I.
(
b) Both the statements are individually true but Statement II is not the correct explanation of Statement I.
(
c) Statement I is true but Statement II is false.
(
d) Statement I is false but Statement II is true.
Ans: (b)

Q4. In pursuance of which Article of the Constitution of India are the conditions of service including recruitment to the Central Services regulated by a large number of rules?
(a) Article 309
(
b) Article 310
(
c) Article 311
(
d) Article 312
Ans: (a)

Q5. Consider the following statements:
1. The Fifth Schedule to the Constitution (Amendment) Act, 1976 empowered the President of India to increase the area of any Scheduled Area in a state after consultation with the Governor of that state.
2. The Fifth Schedule to the Constitution (Amendment) Act, 1976 empowered the President of India to rescind any order made for the designation of an area in any state to be a Scheduled Area, or in consultation with the Governor of the state concerned, make fresh order redefining the area which is to be a Scheduled Area.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a) Only 1
(
b) Only 2
(
c) Both 1 and 2
(
d) Neither 1 nor 2
Ans: (c)

Q6. Match List I with List II and select the correct answer using the codes given below:
List-II List-I
(Source) (Provision of the Constitution of India)
A. Amendment of the Constitution – 1. Constitution of Germany
B. Directive Principles – 2. Constitution of Canada
C. Emergency Powers of the President – 3. Constitution of South Africa
D. The Union-State Relations – 4. Irish Constitution
Codes:

A B C D
(a) 1 2 4 3
(
b) 3 4 1 2
(
c) 1 4 2 3
(
d) 3 1 4 2
Ans: (b)

Q7. Which one among the following has the power to regulate the right of citizenship in India?
(a) The Union Cabinet
(
b) The Parliament
(
c) The Supreme Court
(
d) The Law Commission
Ans: (b)

Q8. The provision of Article 368 of the Constitution of India deals with:
(a) Power of Parliament to amend the Constitution
(
b) Procedure for amendment of the constitution to be followed by Parliament
(
c) Power as well as procedure for amendment of the Constitution
(
d) Passing and ratification of amendment Bills by State Legislatures
Ans: (c)

Q9. Consider the following statements:
1. If a Bill other than Money Bill is returned by the President for reconsideration of the Houses and the Bill is again passed by both the Houses of Parliament with or without amendments and again presented to the President, then also it is not obligatory upon him to declare his assent to it.
2. A Bill for the purpose of formation of new States and alteration of areas, boundaries or names of existing States can be introduced in either House of Parliament and no recommendation of the President is required for the introduction of such a Bill.
Which of the statement (s) given above is/are correct?
(a) Only 1
(
b) Only 2
(
c) Both 1 and 2
(
d) Neither 1 nor 2
Ans: (d)

Q10. Which of the following regarding the Rajya Sabha are correct?
1. It is not subject to dissolution.
2. It has a term of six years.
3. One-third of its members retire after every two years.
4. Its members shall not be less than 25 years of age .
Select the correct answer using the codes given below:
(a) 1, 2 and 3
(
b) 2, 3 and 4
(
c) 1 and 3
(
d) 2 and 4
Ans: (c)

Q11. Consider the following statements:
1. All decisions of the State Council of Ministers relating to the administration of the State must be communicated to the Governor.
2. The Governor can call for information relating to proposals for legislation.
3. The Governor can direct that any matter on which decision has been taken by a Minister should be placed before the State Council of Ministers.
4. The Governor has the right to address and send messages to the State Council of Ministers to elicit specific information.
Which of these is/are correct?
(a) Only 1
(
b) 3 and 4
(
c) 1, 2 and 3
(
d) 1, 2, 3 and 4
Ans: (c)

Q12. To which of the following, the 74th Constitutional Amendment has not paid attention?
1. Municipal personnel system
2. Constitution and composition of municipality
3. Relations between elected executive and bureaucracy
4. Disqualifications for membership of municipality
Select the correct answer using the codes given below:
(a) 1 and 4 only
(
b) 1 and 3 only
(
c) 2, 3 and 4
(
d) 1, 2 and 3
Ans: (b)

Q13. In prescribing the form in which the accounts of the Union and the states are to be kept, the Comptroller and Auditor-General is expected to take approval of the:
(a) Parliament
(
b) Legislature of the state concerned and the Parliament
(
c) Finance Minister
(
d) The President of India
Ans: (d)

Q14. Statement I: The Constitution of India adopted by the Constituent Assembly on November 26, 1949, was in the English Language.
Statement II:A Hindi translation of the Constitution, signed by the members of the Constituent Assembly, was also published in 1950 under the authority of the President of the Constituent Assembly.
Codes:
(a) Both the statements are individually true and Statement II is the correct explanation of Statement I.
(
b) Both the statements are individually true but Statement II is not the correct explanation of Statement I.
(
c) Statement I is true but Statement II is false.
(
d) Statement I is false but Statement II is true.
Ans: (b)

Q15. Which one among the following is the distinguishing factor between a pressure group and a political party?
(a) Pressure groups are confined to a few, while political parties involve larger number of people.
(
b) Pressure groups do not seek active political power, while political parties do.
(
c) Pressure groups do not politically motivate people, while political parties do.
(
d) Political parties take political stance, while pressure groups do not bother about political issues.
Ans: (b)

Q16. Consider the following statements:
1. If the Rajya Sabha has declared by resolution supported by not less than two-thirds of the members present and voting that it is necessary or expedient in the national interest to do so, Parliament may by law provide for the creation of one or more all-India services.
2. Article 311 of the Constitution of India deals with the dismissal or removal of a person who is a member of a civil service of the Union or an all-India service or a civil service of a State or holds a civil post under the Union or a State.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a) Only 1
(
b) Only 2
(
c) Both 1 and 2
(
d) Neither 1 nor 2
Ans: (c)

Q17. Which one of the following rights was described by Dr. Ambedkar as ‘the heart and soul’ of the Constitution?
(a) Right to equality
(
b) Right against exploitation
(
c) Right to constitutional remedies
(
d) Right to freedom of religion
Ans: (c)

Q18. Which of the following federal principles are not found in Indian federation?
1. Bifurcation of the judiciary between the Federal and State Governments
2. Equality of representation of the states in the upper house of the Federal Legislature
3. The Union cannot be destroyed by any state seceding from the Union at its will
4. Federal Government can redraw the map of the Indian Union by forming new States
Select the correct answer using the codes given below:
(a) 1, 2 and 3
(
b) 2, 3 and 4
(
c) 1 and 2
(
d) 3 and 4
Ans: (c)

Q19. The Constitutional Amendment relating to the declaration of emergency (1978) requires the President of India to act in accordance with the:
(a) Collective advice of the entire Council of Ministers
(
b) Advice of the Union Cabinet
(
c) Advice of the Attorney General for India
(
d) Advice of the Supreme Court
Ans: (b)

Q20. Which one of the following committees is not a Standing Committee of the Parliament?
(a) Public Accounts Committee
(
b) Estimates Committee
(
c) Committee on Public Undertakings
(
d) Consultative Committee of the Ministry of Finance
Ans: (d)

Q21. Consider the following statements:
A high court has jurisdiction to:
1. Punish for its contempt
2. Tender advice on a legal question referred to it by the President of India
3. Tender advice on a legal question referred to it by the Governor of the State
4. Issue certain writs for enforcement of Fundamental Rights or for other purposes Which of the statements given above are correct?
(a) 1 and 4
(
b) 1 and 2
(
c) 1, 2 and 3
(
d) 2, 3 and 4
Ans: (a)

Q22. The President can make regulations for the peace, progress and good government of the:
1. Andaman and Nicobar Islands
2. Lakshadweep
3. Dadra and Nagar Haveli
4. Daman and Diu
5. Chandigarh Select the correct answer from the codes given below:
(a) 1, 2, 3, 4 and 5
(
b) 1, 2, 3 and 4
(
c) 2, 3, 4 and 5
(
d) 1, 2 and 3
Ans: (b)

Q23. The role of the Finance Commission in Centre-State fiscal relations has been undermined by:
(a) The State Governments
(
b) The Zonal Councils
(
c) The Planning Commission
(
d) The Election Commission
Ans: (c)

Q24. Which of the following Constitutional Amendment Acts reduced the voting age from 21 years to 18 years for the Lok Sabha as well as the assembly elections?
(a) 56th Amendment
(
b) 59th Amendment
(
c) 61st Amendment
(
d) 63rd Amendment
Ans: (c)

Q25. According to Article 78 of the Constitution of India, the Prime Minister has to furnish information to the President in respect of:
1. All decisions of Council of Ministers relating to administration of the affairs of the Union
2. Submitting for consideration of Council of Ministers any matter on which a decision has been taken by a Minister, but not considered earlier by the Council of Ministers
3. Submitting proposals for legislation as the President may call for
4. International treaties
Select the correct answer using the codes given below:
(a) 1, 2 and 4
(
b) 1 and 4
(
c) 2 and 3
(
d) 1, 2 and 3
Ans: (d)

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