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UPSC CAPF ASSISTANT COMMANDANT PREVIOUS YEAR PAPER 2004

UPSC ASSISTANT COMMANDANT PREVIOUS PAPER 2004


1.
During whose tenure was the first session of Indian National Congress held?
(a) Lord Curzon
(b) Lord Dufferin
(c) Lord Lytton
(d) Lord Ripon
Ans: (b)
2. Which one of the following is the correct chronological order?
(a) Champaran Satyagraha — Moplah Rebellion– Jallianwala Bagh Massacre
(b) Champaran Satyagraha — Jallianwala Bagh Massacre — Moplah Rebellion
(c) Jallianwala Bagh Massacre — Champaran Satyagraha — Moplah Rebellion
(d) Jallianwala Bagh Massacre — Moplah Rebellion — Champaran Satyagraha
Ans: (b)
3. Who founded the ‘India House’ in England during the Indian freedom struggle?
(a) Bhikaji Cama
(b) Dadabhai Naoroji
(c) Ras Bihari Bose
(d) Shyamji Krishna Verma
Ans: (d)
4. Which one of the following is the correct chronological order?
(a) Nasik Conspiracy — Kakori Conspiracy — Lahore Conspiracy
(b) Lahore Conspiracy — Nasik Conspiracy — Kakori Conspiracy
(c) Nasik Conspiracy — Lahore Conspiracy — Kakori Conspiracy
(d) Lahore Conspiracy — Kakori Conspiracy — Nasik Conspiracy
Ans: (c)
5. Prime Minister Manmohan Singh attended the BIMST-EC Meeting in Bangkok in July 2004, in his maiden overseas engagement after assuming the office of Prime Minister of India.
Which of the following is not member of BIMST-EC?
(a) Bangladesh
(b) Maldives
(c) Thailand
(d) Sri Lanka
Ans: .(b)
6. Match List-I (Person) with List-II (Organisation) and select the correct answer using the codes given below the Lists:
List-I (Person)
A. Pawan Munjal
B. Kiran Mazumdar-Shaw
C. B Ramalinga Raju
D.Nandan Nilekani
List-II
(Organisation)
1. Infosys Technologies
2. Satyam Computer Services
3. Hero Honda Motors
4. Biocon India
Code:
A B C D
(a) 2 4 3 1
(b) 3 1 2 4
(c) 2 1 3 4
(d) 3 4 2 1
Ans: (d)
7. The 2-member Nanavati-Shah Commission was appointed to probe into which one of the following?
(a) Demolition of a religious structure at Ayodhya
(b) Godhra train carnage and subsequent incidents of violence
(c) Bribery cases in defence purchases
(d) Leakage of CAT (IIM) question paper
Ans: (b)
8. Consider the following statements:
1. The Visakhapatnam Steel Plant is operated by the Rashtriya Ispat Nigam Ltd.
2. The Kudremukh Iron Ore Company Ltd. which has been conferred with Golden Peacock Eco Innovation Award, 2004 instituted by the World Environment Foundation is located in Karnataka Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
Ans: (c)
9. On which of the following achievements does the UNDP Human Development Report base its rating of Human Development Index (HDI) in respect of different countries?
1. Life expectancy
2. Educational attainment
3. Adjusted real income Select the correct answer using the codes given below:
Code:
(a) 1 and 2
(b) 2 and 3
(c) 1 and 3
(d) 1, 2 and 3
Ans: (d)
10. Which one of the following is named Saras?
(a) A submarine acquired by the Indian Navy
(b) An early-warning radar and communication system acquired by the Indian Air Force
(c) India’s first locally designed civilian aircraft
(d) An anti-tank missile developed by India
Ans: (c)
11. Which one of the following pairs is not currently matched?
(a) Ustad Amjad Ali Khan: Tabla
(b) Ustad Bismillah Khan: Shehnai
(c) Pt. Hari Prasad Chaurasia: Flute
(d) Pt. Shiv Kumar Sharma: Santoor
Ans: (a)
12. Match List-I (Authors) List-II
(Books) and select the correct answer using the codes given below the Lists:
List-I (Authors)
A. Jai Prakash Narain
B. Jawaharlal Nehru
C. K P S Menon
D.Sarojini Naidu
List-II
(Books)
1. Bunch of Old Letters
2. Golden Threshold
3. Prison Diary
4. Yesterday and Today
Code:
A B C D
(a) 2 3 4 1
(b) 4 1 3 2
(c) 3 1 4 2
(d) 4 2 3 1
Ans: (c)
13. Where are the Headquarters of INTERPOL located?
(a) Berne
(b) London
(c) Lyon
(d) Rome
Ans: .(c)
14. With reference to the Union Budget presented by the Union Finance Minister in July 2004, consider the following statements:
1. Service tax has been raised by 4 per cent.
2. A 2 per cent education cess is added to income tax.
3. There is no increase in the defence outlay as compared to the previous year.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a) 1 and 2
(b) 2 only
(c) 1 and 3
(d) 3 only
Ans: (b)
15. Consider the following statements:
1. National Insurance Company Ltd. is a public sector non-life insurance company.
2. The only public sector insurance company to provide medical insurance is the Life Insurance Corporation of India.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
Ans: (a)
16. What is the chemical name of saltpetre, which is used in the preparation of gunpowder also?
(a) Potassium chloride
(b) Potassium sulphate
(c) Potassium nitrate
(d) Potassium carbonate
Ans: (c)
17. Galena is a major ore of which one of the following elements?
(a) Zinc
(b) Aluminum
(c) Lead
(d) Manganese
Ans: (c)
Directions (Q. 18-22): Each of the next five (5) items consists of two statements: one labelled as the ‘Assertion (A)’ and the other as ‘Reason (R)’. You are to examine these two statements carefully and select the answers to these items using the codes given below:
Code:
(a) Both A and R are individually true and R is the correct explanation of A
(b) Both A and R are individually true but R is not the correct explanation of A
(c) A is true but R is false
(d) A is false but R is true
18.
Assertion (A): In the Mediterranean forest, the plants have spiny, waxy or small leaves.
Reason (R): In the Mediterranean region, trees adapt to live in long dry season without shedding leaves.
Ans:
(c)
19. Assertion (A): In the Northern Hemisphere, winds get deflected to the left of their path.
Reason (R): The rotation of the earth causes a change in the direction of the winds.
Ans:
(a)
20. Assertion (A): Fats on oxidation yield half as much energy as that yielded by carbohydrates.
Reason (R): Fat molecules contain less oxygen as compared to carbohydrates.
Ans:
(d)
21. Assertion (A): Recently Australia and East Timor were involved in a bitter dispute.
Reason (R): The dispute was over illegal migration of a large number of persons from East Timor to Australia.
Ans:
(c)
22. Assertion (A): A body which is suspended from a spring balance is partially immersed in a liquid. The spring balance reading will show a value equal to weight of the body.
Reasons (R): A body immersed in a liquid experiences an upward thrust which is equal to the weight of the liquid displaced by it.
Ans:
(a)
23. Who among the following was one of the two goalkeepers of India’s hockey squad in the Athens Olympics?
(a) Adam Sinclair
(b) Viren Rasquinha
(c) Adrian D’Souza
(d) Sandeep Michael
Ans: (c)
24. Who among the following is/ are the recipient(s) of the Ramon Magsaysay Award?
1. J M Lyngdoh
2. Shanta Sinha
3. Admiral L Ramdas Select the correct answer using the codes given below:
Code:
(a) 1, 2 and 3
(b) 1 only
(c) 2 and 3
(d) 2 only
Ans: (a)
25. In the year 2004, on whom did the President of India confer the Jawaharlal Nehru Award for International Understanding?
(a) Prime Minister of Malaysia
(b) Prime Minister of Singapore
(c) President of South Africa
(d) President of Taiwan
Ans: (b)
26. Match List-I (Distinguished Women) with List-II (Achievements) and select the correct answer using the codes given below the Lists:
List-I (Distinguished Women)
A. Kanchan Chaudhry Bhatta-charya
B. Meeran Borwankar
C. P Bandopadhyaya
D. Kiran Bedi
List-II
(Achievements)
1. First woman officer to rise to the rank of Air Vice- Marshal of the Indian Air Force
2. First woman Director General of Police in India
3. First woman Joint Commissioner of Police of Mumbai’s Crime Branch
4. First woman to be appointed UN Civilian Police Adviser
Code:
A B C D
(a) 2 4 1 3
(b) 1 3 2 4
(c) 2 3 1 4
(d) 1 4 2 3
Ans: (c)
27. Match List-I (Person) with List- II (Position) and select the correct answer using the codes given below the Lists:
List-I (Person)
A. Goolam E Vahanvati
B. Milon Banerji
C. Montek Singh Ahluwalia
D. Y V Reddy
List-II
(Position)
1. Deputy Chairman, Planning Commission
2. Solicitor General of India
3. Governor, Reserve Bank of India
4. Attorney General of India
Code:
A B C D
(a) 3 1 4 2
(b) 2 4 1 3
(c) 3 4 1 2
(d) 2 1 4 3
Ans: (b)
28. Three bodies having mass 3m, 2m and m are dropped simultaneously from top of a high tower. Which one of the following is the correct statement?
(a) The times taken by the bodies having mass 3m, 2m, and m, respect ively, to touch the ground will be in the ratio 3: 2: 1
(b) The times taken by the bodies having mass 3m, 2m, and m, respect ively, to touch the ground will be in the ratio 1: 2: 3
(c) They will all touch the ground at the same instant
(d) The kinetic energies of the bodies having mass 3m, 2m, and m, respectively, will be in the ratio 1: 2: 3 on touching the ground
Ans: (c)
29. A long chain having 100 identical steel links is to be pulled from its two ends by a force of 3000 newtons. The chain is elongated by adding another 50 links to it.
Which one of the following is the correct statement?
(a) The force induced in each link will be equal to 20 newtons
(b) The force induced in each link will be equal to 30 newtons
(c) The force induced in each link will be equal to 3000 newtons
(d) The force induced in each link cannot be determined unless its dimensions are given
Ans: (c)
30. Which one of the following is the correct statement?
(a) The Himalayan Pass Nathula is in Himachal Pradesh
(b) The Dhaola Dhar Range of mountains is in Arunachal Pradesh
(c) The Nanda Devi Peak is in Sikkim
(d) The Pir Panjal Range of mountains is in Kashmir
Ans: .(d)
31. Which one of the following statements is not correct?
(a) Kandla is a tidal port
(b) Cochin port is located at the entrance of a lagoon
(c) Chennai is a natural harbour
(d) Visakhapatnam is the deepest landlocked port in India
Ans: (b)
32. Starting from the north and going southward, which one of the following is the correct sequence of the given countries?
(a) Cambodia — Mauritius — Seychelles — Maldives
(b) Seychelles — Maldives — Cambodia — Mauritius
(c) Cambodia — Maldives — Seychelles — Mauritius
(d) Seychelles — Mauritius — Cambodia — Maldives
Ans: (c)
33. Which one of the following statements is correct?
(a) In taiga region, most of the annual precipitation occurs in winter
(b) The trees are evergreen in taiga region
(c) In polar region, precipitation occurs in summer
(d) Maple and spruce are trees found in polar region
Ans: (b)
34. Which one of the following statements is not correct?
(a) The height of the troposphere is more along the equator than along the poles
(b) The stratosphere is free from clouds and associated weather phenomenon
(c) Jet aircraft normally fly in the mesosphere
(d) The ionosphere reflects back the radio waves to the earth and enables us to have wireless communications
Ans: (c)
35. Which one of the following statements is not correct?
(a) Stalactites and stalagmites are formed in caves due to the action of rain water
(b) In the equatorial region, the snow line is at a height of around 10000 metres
(c) The rivers Ganga and Yamuna originate from valley glaciers
(d) The cliffs on the sea-shore are formed as a result of wave erosion along the shore
Ans: (b)
36. Which one of the following countries does not border Lake Victoria?
(a) Kenya
(b) Tanzania
(c) Uganda
(d) Zambia
Ans: (d)
37. Which of the following have coral reefs?
1. Andaman and Nicobar Islands
2. Gulf of Kachchh
3. Gulf of Mannar
4. Sunderbans Select the correct answer using the codes given below:
Code:
(a) 1, 2, and 3
(b) 2 and 4
(c) 1 and 3
(d) 1, 2, 3, and 4
Ans: (a)
38. Where was the first Biosphere Reserve set up in India?
(a) Great Nicobar
(b) Gulf of Mannar
(c) Nanda Devi
(d) Nilgiri
Ans: (d)
39. Which one of the following is the correct sequence of the geographical locations of the given European countries while starting from the West of Europe and going towards the East of Europe?
(a) Portugal — Greece — Italy — Spain
(b) Italy — Greece — Portugal — Spain
(c) Portugal — Spain — Italy — Greece
(d) Italy — Spain — Portugal — Greece
Ans: (c)
40. Match List-I (Plant/Factory) with List-II (State) and select the correct answer using the codes given below the Lists:
List-I (Plant/Factory)
A. Bokaro Steel Plant
B.Bhilai Steel Plant
C. Integral Coach Factory
D.Diesel Locomotive Works
List-II
(State)
1. Tamil Nadu
2. Madhya Pradesh
3. Chhattisgrah
4. Jharkhand
5. Uttar Pradesh
Code:
A B C D
(a) 4 1 5 3
(b) 2 3 1 5
(c) 4 3 1 5
(d) 2 1 5 3
Ans: (c)
41. Who was the Viceroy of India when the Jallianwala Bagh Massacre took place?
(a) Lord Hardinge
(b) Lord Chelmsford
(c) Lord Reading
(d) Lord Irwin
Ans: (b)
42. Who of the following were recipients of the Nobel Prize?
1. S Chandrashekar
2. C V Raman
3. Mother Teresa
4. Rabindranath Tagore Select the correct answer using the codes given below:
Code:
(a) 1, 3 and 4
(b) 2 and 4
(c) 2 and 3
(d) 1, 2, 3 and 4
Ans: (d)
43. Who among the following has not been the Chief Election Commissioner of India?
(a) R K Trivedi
(b) R V S Peri Sastri
(c) A M Ahmadi
(d) T Swaminathan
Ans: (c)
44. Who among the following was/ were not the Vice-President of India before assuming the office of the President of India?
1. N Sanjiva Reddy
2. Giani Zail Singh
3. R Venkataraman
4. Shankar Dayal Sharma Select the correct answer using the codes given below:
Code:
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) 1 and 2
(d) 3 and 4
Ans: (c)
45. Consider the following statements:
1. Rectifier is a device which converts direct current to alternating current.
2. A transformer is a device for increasing or reducing the output of an electrical power supply.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
Ans: .(b)
46. There are five friends — P, Q, R, S and T. P is younger to Q, T, is younger to R and S, both.
P is as old as R, P is younger to as many as those who are younger to S. Who among the five friends is the eldest?
(a) S
(b) Q
(c) R
(d) Cannot be ascertained with the given data
Ans: (b)
47. A cube is cut into 216 identical smaller cubes. In how many different ways can the smaller cubes be arranged to form cuboids of different surface areas if no two cubes are to be placed one above another?
(a) 6
(b) 8
(c) 14
(d) 16
Ans: (a)
48. Four volunteers represent the school A, 5 volunteers represent the school B, 6 volunteers represent the school C and 3 volunteers represent the school D. Each of the volunteers shakes hands with every volunteer from school other than his own. If each volunteer shakes hands exactly once, what is the maximum possible number of handshakes?
(a) 153
(b) 141
(c) 119
(d) 108
Ans: (a)
49. A two-digit number is reversed.
The larger of the two numbers is divided by the smaller one.
What is the largest possible remainder?
(a) 27
(b) 36
(c) 45
(d) 54
Ans: (c)
50. A, B, C, D and E belong to five different cities P, Q, R, S and T (not necessarily in that order).
Each one of them comes from a different city. Further, it is given:
1. B and C do not belong to
Q.
2. B and E do not belong to P and R
3. A and C do not belong to R, S and T.
4. D and E do not belong to Q and T.
Which one of the following statements is not correct?
(a) C belongs to P
(b) D belongs to R
(c) A belongs to Q
(d) B belongs to S
Ans: (d)
51. Q is the son of P. S is the son of Q. U is the mother of R. T is the spouse of Q. P is the father of R but R is not his son.
V is the spouse of R.
Which one of the following statements is not correct?
(a) S is the grandson of P
(b) S is the grandson of U
(c) V is the son-in-law of P
(d) V is the son of U
Ans: (d)
52. Which one of the following pairs of Organisation and headquarters is not correctly matched?
(a) Asian Development Bank: Manila
(b) Organisation of American States (OAS): Washington
(c) Commonwealth of Independent States (CIS): Minsk
(d) South Asian Association for Regional Cooperation (SAARC): Colombo
Ans: (d)
53. Which one of the following countries does not border Austria?
(a) Germany
(b) Switzerland
(c) Hungary
(d) France
Ans: .(d)
54. Consider the following statements:
1. The Presidential Election of the United States of America is held every fifth year.
2. The Vice-President of the United States of America is the ex officio President of the House of Representatives.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
Ans: (d)
55. Match List-I (Country) with List-II (Sea) and select the correct answer using the codes given below the Lists:
List-I (Country)
A. Yemen B. Bulgaria
C. Algeria D. Iran
List-II
(Sea)
1. Caspian Sea
2. Black Sea
3. Mediterranean Sea
4. Red sea
Code:
A B C D
(a) 3 1 4 2
(b) 4 2 3 1
(c) 3 2 4 1
(d) 4 1 3 2
Ans: (b)
56. Match List-I (Mineral Resources in India) with List-II
(Location) and select the correct answer using the codes given below the Lists:
List-I (Mineral Resources in India)
A. Kolar Gold Field
B. Khetri Copper Complex
C. High-grade Iron Ore Deposits
D. Neyveli Lignite Field
List-II
(Location)
1. Bihar
2. Karnataka
3. Tamil Nadu
4. Bailadila (Chhattisgarh)
5. Rajasthan
Code:
A B C D
(a) 3 4 1 2
(b) 2 5 4 3
(c) 3 5 4 2
(d) 2 4 1 3
Ans: (b)
57. Which one of the following is the correct chronological order of formation of the given States?
(a) Himachal Pradesh — Sikkim — Gujarat — Haryana
(b) Gujarat — Haryana — Himachal Pradesh — Sikkim
(c) Himachal Pradesh — Haryana — Gujarat — Sikkim
(d) Gujarat — Sikkim — Haryana — Himachal Pradesh
Ans: (b)
58. Which one of the following States is the major producer of cardamom?
(a) Andhra Pradesh
(b) Sikkim
(c) Gujarat
(d) Madhya Pradesh
Ans: (b)
59. Match List-I (Defence Training Institute) with List-II (Location) and select the correct answer using the codes given below the Lists:
List-I (Defence Training Institute)
A. INS Valsura
B. Air Force Administrative College
C. Army War College
D. Institute of Military Law
List-II
(Location)
1. Mhow 2. Coimbatore
3. Jamnagar 4. Kamptee
Code:
A B C D
(a) 3 4 1 2
(b) 1 2 3 4
(c) 3 2 1 4
(d) 1 4 3 2
Ans: (c)
60. Match List-I (Training Institutes of Para-Military Forces) with List-II (Location) and select the correct answer using the codes given below the Lists:
List-I (Training Institutes of Para-Military Force)
A. Internal Security Academy
B. BSF Academy
C. Central School of Weapons and Tactics
D. National Industrial Security Academy
List-II
(Location)
1. Indore
2. Hakimpet (Secunderabad)
3. Mt. Abu 4. Tekanpur
Code:
A B C D
(a) 1 4 3 2
(b) 3 2 1 4
(c) 1 2 3 4
(d) 3 4 1 2
Ans: (b)
61. Match List-I (Venue of Olympic Games) with List-II (Year) and select the correct answer using the codes given below the Lists:
List-I (Venue of Olympic Games)
A. Seoul B. Los Angeles
C.Atlanta D. Barcelona
List-II
(Year)
1. 1992 2. 1984
3. 1996 4. 1988
Code:
A B C D
(a) 3 2 4 1
(b) 4 2 3 1
(c) 3 1 4 2
(d) 4 1 3 2
Ans: (b)
62. Among the following famous Indian/Pakistani Hockey players, who is the Pakistani player?
(a) Aslam Sher Khan
(b) Mohammad Shahid
(c) Zafar Iqbal
(d) Shahbaz Ahmed
Ans: (d)
63. Consider the following statements:
1. India won the One-day Cricket World Cup in 1983 in Australia.
2. Sunil Gavaskar made his test-cricket debut against England.
3. Anil Kumble took 10 wickets in one innings of a cricket test match against Pakistan.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a) 1 and 2
(b) 3 only
(c) 2 only
(d) 1 and 3
Ans: (b)
64. Match List-I (Indian Sports persons) with List-II (Game/ Sport) and select the correct answer using the codes given below the Lists:
List-I (Indian Sportspersons)
A. Aprana Popat
B. Koneru Humpy
C. Abhinav Bindra
D.Kunjarani Devi
List-II
(Game/Sports)
1. Weightlifting
2. Shooting 3. Chess
4. Badminton
5. Hockey
Code:
A B C D
(a) 2 5 4 3
(b) 4 5 2 3
(c) 2 3 4 1
(d) 4 3 2 1
Ans: (d)
65. Consider the following statements:
1. A Chief Metropolitan Magistrate can pass a sentence of death.
2. A Metropolitan Magistrate can pass a sentence of imprisonment for life.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
Ans: (d)
66. Which one among the following has the highest population density in India?
(a) Uttar Pradesh
(b) Bihar
(c) Delhi
(d) Chandigarh
Ans: (c)
67. The Survey of India works under which one of the following ministries of the Government of India?
(a) Ministry of Defence
(b) Ministry of Home Affairs
(c) Ministry of Science and Technology
(d) Ministry of Tourism and Culture
Ans: (c)
68. Consider the following statements:
1. The Constitution (74th Amendment) Act gives constitutional status to the Gram Sabha.
2. Gram Sabha means a body consisting of the persons elected by the villagers above the age of 18 years residing in the area of the Gram Panchayat.
3. The Constitution envisages that Gram Sabha selects beneficiaries under various schemes of the Central Government undertaken for rural development.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a) 1 and 2
(b) 2 only
(c) 3 only
(d) 2 and 3
Ans: (c)
69. Which one of the following statements is not correct?
(a) Delhi and Pondicherry have Lieutenant Governors
(b) The Administrator of Chandigarh is designated as the Chief Commissioner
(c) The Legislative Assembly of Pondicherry may make laws with respect to matters enumerated in List II or List III of the Seventh Schedule in so far as these matters are applicable in relation to that Union Territory
(d) The Legislative Assembly of the National Capital Territory of Delhi does not require the prior approval of the Central Government for the introduction of any Bill in the Legislative Assembly
Ans: (b)
70. With reference to human nutrition, which one of the following statements is not correct?
(a) Deficiency of Vitamin A can cause the non-functioning of tear-producing glands
(b) Vitamin A is synthesised in the skin in the presence of sunlight
(c) Deficiency of Vitamin B1 is common in those areas where polished rice is the major food item
(d) Deficiency of Vitamin D causes increased loss of calcium in urine
Ans: .(b)
71. Consider the following statements:
In human body,
1. The opening of stomach into intestines is called caecum.
2. The junction of small intestine and large intestine is called pylorus.
3. Colon is much broader than the ileum.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a) 1 and 2
(b) 2 only
(c) 2 and 3
(d) 3 only
Ans: (d)
72. Which one of the following statements is not correct?
(a) Sweating at night and weight-loss are symptoms of AIDS
(b) There is no vaccination against cholera
(c) Typhoid is caused by a Bacterium
(d) Oral vaccine is available to prevent typhoid
Ans: (d)
73. Which one of the following pairs is not correctly matched?
Vitamin Rich Source
(a) Vitamin A: Fish liver oil
(b) Vitamin B1: Whole cereals
(c) Vitamin C: Milk
(d) Vitamin E: Butter
Ans: (c)
74. Consider the following minerals:
1. Calcium 2. Iron
3. Sodium Which of the minerals given above are required by human body for the contraction of muscles?
(a) 1 and 2
(b) 2 and 3
(c) 1 and 3
(d) 1, 2 and 3
Ans: (d)
75. Consider the following statements:
1. Chickenpox is caused by a bacterium.
2. Japanese Encephalitis (JE) is caused by virus and spread by mosquitoes.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
Ans: (b)
76. Which one of the following statements is not correct?
(a) The last Tirthankara of Jainas was the contemporary of Gautam Buddha
(b) The last Tirthankara of Jainas was born at Rajgriha
(c) Siddhartha was born at Lumbini
(d) The ancient town Sravasti is the modern Uttar Pradesh
Ans: (b)
77. With whom did the English conclude the Treaty of Sagauli by which Kumaon and Garhwal were ceded to the British rule?
(a) Mughal emperor
(b) Nawab of Awadh
(c) Rohillas
(d) Gurkhas
Ans: (d)
78. Mir Kasim became the Nawab of Bengal with the help of the English, but why was Mir Jafar reinstated later on?
(a) Mir Jafar bribed the English heavily and made them remove Mir Kasim
(b) Mir Kasim opposed the religion- conversion of natives by the English
(c) Mir Kasim fought with the English as they were flouting the internal trade laws, causing heavy loss to his income
(d) The English felt that Mir Kasim had joined hands with the Mughal Emperor to oust the English from India
Ans: (c)
79. Who was the Maratha Peshwa when the Third Battle of Panipat was fought?
(a) Balaji Baji Rao
(b) Narayan Rao
(c) Madhav Rao II
(d) Baji Rao II
Ans: (a)
80. Match List-I (Temple) with List-II (Place) and select the correct answer using the codes given below the Lists:
List-I (Temple)
A. Kandariya Mahadeva Temple
B. Adinatha Temple
C. Brajesvari Devi Temple
D.Vishvanath Temple
List-II
(Place)
1. Varanasi
2. Kangra
3. Khajuraho
4. Dilwara, Mt. Abu
Code:
A B C D
(a) 2 1 3 4
(b) 3 4 2 1
(c) 2 4 3 1
(d) 3 1 2 4
Ans: (b)
81. Which one of the following statements is not correct?
(a) During India’s freedom struggle, Independence Day was observed all over India on 26 January, 1930
(b) Subhash Chandra Bose inaugurated the Government of Free India in Singapore in 1942
(c) The Muslim League joined the Constituent Assembly in 1945
(d) The Indian Independence Act, 1947 was passed in the British Parliament
Ans: (c)
82. Which one among the following was started first during the freedom struggle of India?
(a) Bombay Presidency Association
(b) Indian Association
(c) Madras Native Association
(d) Poona Sarvajanik Sabha
Ans: (a)
83. Consider the following statements:
1. Burma and India were separated under the Government of India Act, 1919.
2. The Government of India Act, 1935 provided for the abolition of the Indian Council.
3. The Government of India Act, 1935 granted limited franchise to Indian women.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a) 1 and 2
(b) 2 and 3
(c) 3 only
(d) 1, 2, and 3
Ans: (b)
84. Match List-I (Organisation) with List-II (Founder) and select the correct answer using the codes given below the List:
List-I (Organisation)
A. East India Association
B. Satya Shodhak Samaj
C. Servants of Indian Society
D.Tattvabodhini Sabha
List-II
(Founder)
1. Dadabhai Naoroji
2. Devendranath Tagore
3. Gopal Krishna Gokhale
4. Jyotirao Govindrao Phule
Code:
A B C D
(a) 1 2 3 4
(b) 3 2 1 4
(c) 1 4 3 2
(d) 3 4 1 2
Ans: (c)
85. The great emperor Kanishka belonged to which dynasty?
(a) Maurya
(b) Vardhana
(c) Kushan
(d) Gupta
Ans: .(c)
86. Which one of the following is the correct chronological order?
(a) Khilji Dynasty — Tughlaq Dynasty — Lodhi Dynasty — Suri Dynasty
(b) Lodhi Dynasty — Suri Dynasty — Khilji Dynasty — Tughlaq Dynasty
(c) Khilji Dynasty — Suri Dynasty — Lodhi Dynasty — Tughlaq Dynasty
(d) Lodhi Dynasty — Tughlaq Dynasty — Khilji Dynasty — Suri Dynasty
Ans: (a)
87. Consider the following statements:
1. Function of flywheel in an engine is to reduce fluctuations of its speed.
2. Octane 93 is a rating of diesel as fuel.
3. Gyroscopic principle is used in ships and aircraft.
Which of the statements given above are correct?
(a) 1 and 2
(b) 1 and 3
(c) 2 and 3
(d) 1, 2 and 3
Ans: (b)
88. Consider the following statements:
1. Modem is used to link a computer with a telephone line so that data can be transmitted at high speeds from one computer to another.
2. Pentium chip performs the function of RAM in a computer CPU.
3. Giga represents 109.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a) 1 and 3
(b) 1 and 2
(c) 3 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3
Ans: (d)
89. Match List-I (Missiles/Aircraft) with List-II (Type) and select the correct answer using the codes given below the Lists:
List-I (Missiles/Aircraft)
A. Prithvi II B. Brahmos
C. Akash D. Tejas
List-II
(Type)
1. Surface-to-air missile
2. Surface-to-surface ballistic missile
3. Supersonic cruise missile
4. Light combat aircraft
Code:
A B C D
(a) 2 3 1 4
(b) 1 4 2 3
(c) 2 4 1 3
(d) 1 3 2 4
Ans: (a)
90. Consider the following statements:
1. Indigenously built Main Battle Tank (MBT) ARJUN has been manufactured in the Heavy Vehicle Factory
(HVF), Avadi under the administrative control of Defence Research and Development Organisation
(DRDO).
2. MBT ARJUN has been designed and developed by nodal design agency of Ordnance Factory Board.
3. Defence Public Sector Undertaking function under the Department of Defence Production and Supplies.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a) 1 and 2
(b) 3 only
(c) 2 and 3
(d) 1, 2 and 3
Ans: (d)
91. Which of the following pairs is/are not correctly matched?
A. Indo-China War: 1962
B. Death of Jawaharlal Nehru: 1964
C. Formation of Bangladesh:
1973 Select the correct answer using the codes given below:
Code:
(a) 1 and 2
(b) 2 and 3
(c) 1 only
(d) 3 only
Ans: (d)
92. Match List-I (Power Project) with List-II (State) and select the correct answer using the codes given below the Lists:
List-I (Power Project)
A. Nagarjunasagar Project
B. Indira Sagar Project
C.Chandrapur Project
D.Nathpa Jhakhri Project
List-II
(State)
1. Himachal Pradesh
2. Assam
3. Madhya Pradesh
4. Andhra Pradesh
5. Tamil Nadu
Code:
A B C D
(a) 5 3 2 4
(b) 4 3 2 1
(c) 5 2 1 4
(d) 4 2 1 3
Ans: (b)
93. Which one of the following pairs is not correctly matched?
(a) World War I: 1914-18
(b) World War II: 1939-45
(c) UNO formed: 1947
(d) UN Day: 24 October
Ans: .(c)
94. Match List-I (Famous Place) with List-II (Country) and select the correct answer using the codes given below the Lists:
List-I (Famous Place)
A. Monte Carlo
B. Fleet Street
C. Great Barrier Reef
D.Flushing Meadows
List-II
(Country)
1. England
2. Monaco
3. United States of America
4. Australia
Code:
A B C D
(a) 3 1 4 2
(b) 2 4 1 3
(c) 3 4 1 2
(d) 2 1 4 3
Ans: (a)
95. Which one of the following statements is not correct?
(a) So far, there have been three proclamations of Emergency in whole of India
(b) A written communication of the decision of the Union Cabinet is an essential precondition for the issue of proclamation of Emergency in whole of India by the President of India
(c) Under no circumstances could the enforcement of Fundamental Rights under articles 20 and 21 of the Constitution of India be denied even during Emergency
(d) If the Lok Sabha passes a resolution disapproving the proclamation of Emergency or its continuance, it shall be revoked within two months
Ans: (d)
96. Consider the following statements:
1. A new chapter on the Fundamental Duties of citizens was inserted in the Constitution of India by a Constitutional Amendment Act.
2. A new article dealing with the Right to Education regarding providing free and compulsory education to all children of the age of six to fourteen years was inserted in the Constitution of India by a Constitutional Amendment Act.
3. The Right to Property has been omitted as a Fundamental Right and made only a legal right.
Which of the statements given above are correct?
(a) 1, 2 and 3
(b) 1 and 2
(c) 2 and 3
(d) 1 and 3
Ans: (a)
97. Consider the following statements:
1. Rajya Sabha has no power either to reject or amend a Money Bill.
2. Rajya Sabha cannot vote on the Demands for Grants.
3. Rajya Sabha cannot discuss the Annual Financial Statements.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a) 1 only
(b) 1 and 2
(c) 2 and 3
(d) 1, 2 and 3
Ans: (b)
98. Which one of the following is the correct statement?
(a) The Comptroller and Auditor General of India holds office during the pleasure of the President of India
(b) The Comptroller and Auditor General of India is ineligible for any other office under the Government of India or any State Government after he has ceased to hold his office
(c) The salary and allowances of the Comptroller and Auditor General of India are determined by the Ministry of Finance
(d) The Comptroller and Auditor General of India submits reports relating to the accounts of the Union to the Speaker of the Lok Sabha
Ans: (b)
99. Consider the following statements:
1. Corporation tax and customs duty go exclusively to the Union.
2. Surcharge on income tax and stamp duty go exclusively to the States.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
Ans: (a)
100. Consider the following statements:
1. Rajya Sabha is not subject to dissolution.
2. Vice-President of India is the ex officio Chairman of the Rajya Sabha and holds the Office of the Vice-President of India for a period of six years.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
Ans: (a)
101.Who was the Prime Minister of India when the 73rd and 74th Amendments to the Constitution of India dealing with Panchayats and Municipalities were enacted?
(a) Indira Gandhi
(b) Rajiv Gandhi
(c) P V Narasimha Rao
(d) V P Singh
Ans: (c)
102. Consider the following statements:
The Parliamentary Committee on Public Accounts
1. Consists of not more than 25 Members of the Lok Sabha.
2. Scrutinises appropriation and finance accounts of Government.
3. Examines the Report of the Comptroller and Auditor General of India.
Which of the statements given above are correct?
(a) 1 and 2
(b) 1 and 3
(c) 1 and 3
(d) 1, 2 and 3
Ans: (*)
103.Which one of the following statements is not correct?
(a) Telephone tapping infracts article 21 of the Constitution of India unless permitted by law
(b) Article 22 of the Constitution of India provides that no person who is arrested shall be detained without being informed of the grounds of arrest
(c) Refusal to grant bail in a murder case without reasonable ground would amount to deprivation of personal liberty under article 23 of the Constitution of India
(d) Article 24 of the Constitution of India prohibits the employment of children below the age of 14 years in factories or mines or in any other hazardous jobs
Ans: (c)
Directions (Q. 104-107): In a survey of a locality, following observations are made:
(i) The number of male adults and female non-adults in 30 each.
(ii) The number of female adults and male nonadults in 20 each.
(iii) Every female adult is wellversed in at least one of the two languages — Hindi and English.
(iv) Every male non-adult is well-versed in at least one of the two languages — Hindi and English.
(v) 7 male adults and 8 female non-adults do not know any of the two languages.
(vi) 10 male non-adults and 18 female adults are wellversed in both the languages.
(vii) 20 male adults and 17 female non-adults are wellversed in only one of the two languages.
Based on the information given above, answer the next four items:
104.
What is the number of females who are well-versed in both the languages?
(a) 18
(b) 35
(c) 23
(d) Cannot be determined because of insufficient data
Ans: (c)
105. What is the number of males who are well-versed in Hindi only?
(a) 20
(b) 43
(c) 10
(d) Cannot be determined because of insufficient data
Ans: (d)
106. What is the number of nonadults who are well-versed in at least one of the two languages?
(a) 42
(b) 15
(c) 27
(d) Cannot be determined because of insufficient data
Ans: (a)
107. What is the number of persons who can talk to each other in both the languages?
(a) 85
(b) 36
(c) 49
(d) Cannot be determined because of insufficient data
Ans: (b)
108. How many times do the hour-hand and the minutehand of a watch become perpendicular to each other in 24 hours?
(a) 22
(b) 24
(c) 44
(d) 48
Ans: (c)
109. In how many different ways can 5 different rings be put on 4 fingers?
(a) 20
(b) 45
(c) 54
(d) 9
Ans: (b)
110. How many diagonals can be drawn by joining the vertices of an octagon?
(a) 20
(b) 24
(c) 28
(d) 64
Ans: .(a)
111. A watch loses 2 minutes per day (24 hr) while another watch gains 2 minutes per day
(24 hr). At a particular instant the two watches showed an identical time. When will the two watches show the identical time again?
(a) On completion of 7 days
(b) On completion of 30 days
(c) On completion of 120 days
(d) On completion of 180 days
Ans: (d)
112. If successive natural numbers are written in a row starting from 1, which digit appears in the 200th place?
(a) 0
(b) 3
(c) 5
(d) 7
Ans: (a)
113. Each of the six different faces of a cube has been coated with a different colour, i.e. V, I, B, G, Y and O. Following information is given:
1. Colours Y, O and B are on the adjacent faces.
2. Colours I, G and Y are on the adjacent faces.
3. Colours B, G and Y are on the adjacent faces.
4. Colours, O, V and B are on the adjacent faces.
Which is the colour of the face opposite to the face coloured with O?
(a) B
(b) V
(c) G
(d) I
Ans: (c)
114. Trains leave a station A for another station B after a gap of every one hour, while trains leave station B for the station A also after a gap of every one hour. Each train takes 4 hours to complete the journey.
Trains leave the stations A and B simultaneously after an interval of every one hour. If a person starts from the station A for the station B, how many trains will he cross before arriving at the station B?
(a) 4
(b) 5
(c) 7
(d) 8
Ans: (c)
115. If ABC × DEED = ABCABC; where A, B, C, D and E are different digits, what are the values of D and E?
(a) D = 2, E = 0
(b) D = 0, E =1
(c) D = 1, E = 0
(d) D = 1, E =1
Ans: (c)
116. In the year 2004, the month of February had 5 Sundays.
In which of the following years did February last have 5 Sundays?
(a) 2000
(b) 1996
(c) 1980
(d) 1976
Ans: (d)
117. Six identical cards are placed on a table. Each card has number ‘1’ marked on one side and number ‘2’ marked on its other side. All the six cards are placed such that the number ‘1’ is on the upper side. In one try, exactly four (neither more nor less) cards are turned upside down. In how many tries, can the cards be turned upside down such that all the six cards show number ‘2’ on the upper side?
(a) 3
(b) 5
(c) 7
(d) This cannot be achieved
Ans: (a)
118.

A square is divided into four rectangles as shown in the figure. The lengths of the sides of the rectangles are natural numbers. The areas of two rectangles are indicated in the figure. What is the length of each side of the square?
(a) 10
(b) 11
(c) 15
(d) Cannot be determined as the given data is not sufficient
Ans: (d)
119. A boy wrote successive whole numbers starting from 1 up to 900. In doing so, how many times did he write the digit 7?
(a) 271
(b) 280
(c) 281
(d) None of these
Ans: (b)
120. There are three persons: A, B and C. A says, “I am the youngest and B is the eldest.” B says , “A is the youngest and C is the oldest.” C says, “I am the youngest and A is the eldest”.
In making these statements, each of two of the three persons had told lies twice while the third spoke the truth twice. Who spoke the truth?
(a) A
(b) B
(c) C
(d) Cannot be ascertained
Ans: .(d)
121. Six singers are taking part in a music competition. There are 4 judges for the competition.
How many comparisons does each judge make between all the singers to select the best among them?
(a) 15
(b) 20
(c) 24
(d) 25
Ans: (a)
122. A question booklet contains 100 questions for a test. A candidate gets 4 marks for every correct answer, loses 1 mark for every wrong answer, and no mark for a blank answer.
Which one of the following sets of marks can be secured by three candidates?
(a) 396, 395, 394
(b) 393, 392, 391
(c) 392, 391, 390
(d) 389, 388, 387
Ans: (c)
123. There are three possible paths to go from A to B, and four, possible paths to go from B to C. A person wishes to go from A to C. What is the probability that the person will not follow a particular path while travelling from A to C?
(a) \(\frac{1}{12}\)
(b) \(\frac{1}{7}\)
(c) \(\frac{6}{7}\)
(d) \(\frac{11}{12}\)
Ans: (d)
124. In how many different was can 6 boys be seated on 4 chairs if one chair can accommodate only one boy?
(a) 24
(b) 120
(c) 240
(d) 360
Ans: .(d)
125. The sum of the ages of 5 members comprising a family, 3 years ago was 80 years.
The average age of the family today is the same as it was 3 years ago, because of an addition of a baby during the intervening period. How old is the baby?
(a) 6 months
(b) 1 year
(c) 2 years
(d) 2 years and 6 months
Ans: .(b)

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