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Paper 1 September 2013 – UGC NTA NET JRF Solved Previous Year Paper

Paper 1 September 2013 – UGC NTA NET JRF Solved Previous Year Paper

n This paper contains sixty (60) multiple choice questions, each question carrying two
(2) marks.
n Candidate is expected to answer any fifty (50) questions.
n In case more than fifty (50) questions are attempted, only the fifty (50) questions will be evaluated.
Q1. The world population growth rate at a certain reference year was 3.5%. Assuming exponential growth of population, after how many years, the population of the world would have increased by a factor 16?
(a) ~80 years (b) ~40 years
(c) ~160 years (d) ~320 years
Ans: (a)
Q2. Telephone is an example of
(a) Linear communication
(b) Non–linear communication
(c) Circular
(d) Mechanized
Ans: (a)
Q3. Means of grapevine communication are
(a) Formal (b) Informal
(c) Critical (d) Corporate
Ans: (b)
Q4. Communication issues at the international level are addressed by
(a) ILO (b) ITU
Ans: (b)
Q5. Referential framing used by TV audience connects media with
(a) Reality (b) Falsity
(c) Negativity (d) Passivity
Ans: (a)
Q6. The communicated knowledge in a classroom is considered as
(a) Non-pervasive treasure
(b) Limited judgment
(c) Autonomous virtue
(d) Cultural capital
Ans: (d)
Q7. Classroom communication is normally considered as
(a) Effective (b) Affective
(c) Cognitive (d) Non-selective
Ans: (c)
Q8. A person writes all the numbers from 0 to 99. The number of times digit 3 will be written as
(a) 18 (b) 19 (c) 20 (d) 21
Ans: (c)
Q9. Starting from point A, Ajit walks 14 metres towards west, he then turns to his right and walks 14 metres and then turns to his left and walks 10 metres. He again turns to his left and walks 14 metres and reaches to the point E. The shortest distance between A and E is
(a) 38 (b) 42 (c) 52 (d) 24
Ans: (d)
Q10. A, B, C, D, E, and F are sitting around a round table. A is between E and F. E is opposite to
D and
C is not in either of the neighbouring seats of E. The person opposite to
B is
C (b)
D (c) A (d) F
Ans: (d)
Q11. The missing number in the series 2, 7, 24, 77, ?, 723 is
(a) 238 (b) 432 (c) 542 (d) 320
Ans: (a)
Q12. In a certain city, the taxi charges comprise of a fixed charge and the charge of the distance travelled. A person paid `156 for a journey of 16 km and another person paid `204 for the journey of 24 km. The amount paid by a passenger who has travelled 30 km is
(a) 236 (b) 240 (c) 248 (d) 256
Ans: (b)
Q13. In certain code, HEALTH is written as KHDOWK. The code of NORTH will be
(c) RWQUK (d) RWUKQAns: (a)
Q14. Yedav, Arjun, Rajesh, and Kamal play cricket. Rajesh and Kamal play tennis but do not play football. Yadav does not play badminton but play golf. Arjun does not play tennis. Kamal sometimes plays badminton.
Who does play only cricket?
(a) Yadav (b) Arjun
(c) Rajesh (d) Kamal
Ans: (b)
Q15. A deductive argument cannot be valid:
(a) If its premise/premises is/are true, then its conclusion is true.
(b) If its premise/premises is/are true, then its conclusion is false.
(c) If its premise/premises is/are false, then its conclusion is false.
(d) If its premise/premises is/are false, then its conclusion is true.
Ans: (b)
Q16. An analogical argument is strengthened by
(a) making the claim bolder while its premises remain unchanged
(b) reducing the claim made on the basis of the premises affirmed
(c) remaining the claim unchanged while the evidence in its support is found to exhibit greater frailty
(d) None of the above
Ans: (b)
Q17. If two propositions cannot be false but may be true, then what is the relation between the two propositions?
(a) Contrary (b) Subcontrary
(c) Subalternation (d) Contradictory
Ans: (b)
Q18. Given below are some codes of arrangements of three items in order of wider scope.
Select the correct code.
(a) Garments, cloth, and shirts
(b) Cloth, garments, and shirts
(c) Shirts, garments, and cloth
(d) Garments, shirts, and cloth
Ans: (b)
Q19. What is equivalent of the statement ‘All atheists are pessimists’?
(a) All non-pessimists are non-atheists.
(b) All non-atheists are non-pessimists.
(c) All pessimists are atheists.
(d) None of the above
Ans: (a)
In the following table, trends in the production of energy in India by primary sources are given. Study the table and answer Question 20 to 23: (production in petajoules )

YearCoal & ligniteCrude petro­ leumNatural gasElectricity (Hydro & nuclear)Total

Q20. In which year, primary sources recorded the lowest growth in total production of energy?
(a) 2007–08 (b) 2008–09
(c) 2009–10 (d) 2010–11
Ans: (c)
Q21. Which source of energy has shown the highest growth rate in production during 2006–07 to 2010–11?
(a) Coal and lignite
(b) Crude petroleum
(c) Hydro and nuclear electricity
(d) Total production of energy
Ans: (a)
Q22. Which one of the following primary sources of energy has recorded the highest growth in production in 2008–09?
(a) Coal and lignite
(b) Crude petroleum
(c) Natural gas
(d) Hydro and nuclear electricity
Ans: (a)
Q23. In which year, the production of hydro and nuclear electricity was almost double the production of crude petroleum and natural gas taken together?
(a) 2006–07 (b) 2007–08
(c) 2008–09 (d) 2009–10
Ans: (c)
Q24. The Internet ethical protocol is called
(a) Net protocol (b) Netiquette
(c) Net ethics (d) Net morality
Ans: (b)
Q25. Commercial messages on the net are identified as
(a) Net ads
(b) The Internet commercials
(c) Webmercials
(d) Viral advertisements
Ans: (c)
Q26. Manuel Castells was the first to use the term
(a) The Internet society
(b) Electronic society
(c) Network society
(d) Telematic society
Ans: (c)
Q27. GIF stands for
(a) Global Information Format
(b) Graphics Information Format
(c) Graphics Interchange File
(d) Graphics Interchange Format
Ans: (d)
Q28. Which one of the following is not an Operating System?
(a) IBM AIX (b) Linux
(c) Sun Solaris (d) Firefox
Ans: (d)
Q29. Which of the following is/are a minority institution(s)?
I Punjabi University, Patiala – II Osmania University, Hyderabad – III Kashmir University, Srinagar – IV St. Stephens College, Delhi Select the correct answer from the code given below.
(a) – I and – II (b) – II and IV
(c) – II only (d) – IV only
Ans: (d)
Q30. Which of the following statements are correct about the National Advisory Council
I The National Advisory Council is a statutory body.
II It is headed by the Prime Minister of India.
III It facilitates constant interaction with the leaders of civil society.
IV It provides policy and legislative inputs to the Government of India.
Select the correct answer from the code given below.
(a) I, II, and – III (b) II, III, and IV
(c) I, III, and – IV (d) – III and IV
Ans: (d)
Q31. Which of the following are voluntary provisions in the 73rd Constitutional Amendment Act (1992)?
I Minimum age of 21 for contesting elections to Panchayats – II Indirect elections to the post of Chairperson Panchayats at the intermediate and district levels.
III Representation of Members of Parliament and State Legislature on Panchayati Raj institutions – IV Reservation of seats for backward classes.
Select the correct answer from the code given below.
(a) I, II, and – IV (b) II, III, and IV
(c) I, II, and – III (d) – III and IV
Ans: (d)
Q32. In which of the following states the segment of population, which is in majority, enjoys the benefit of reservation of seats in the state assembly?
(a) Meghalaya and Mizoram
(b) Assam and Nagaland
(c) Madhya Pradesh and Assam
(d) Rajasthan and Arunachal Pradesh
Ans: (a)
Q33. Which of the following are the ways of acquiring Indian citizenship?
I Birth – II Descent – III Naturalization – IV Incorporation of territory Select the correct answer from the code given below.
(a) – I and – II (b) – I and IV
(c) I, II, and – III (d) I, II, III, and IV
Ans: (d)
Q34. Which of the following statements about the Union Public Service Commission are correct?
I UPSC is a constitutional body.
II It serves as an advisory body.
III It is called upon to advise the government in regard to representation of the Scheduled Castes and Scheduled Tribes in the Civil Service.
IV It is consulted on appointments of Chairman and members of Tribunals and Commissions.
Select the correct answer from the code given below.
(a) I, II, and – III (b) I, II, and IV
(c) I, III, and – IV (d) – I and – II
Ans: (d)
Read the following passage carefully and answer Questions from 35 to 40:
I had occasion to work with her closely during the Women’s International Year in 1975 when she was chairing a Steering Committee and made me the member in charge of publicity.
Representatives from different political parties and women’s organizations were on the committee and though the leftists claimed a sort of proprietary right over her, Aruna encouraged and treated all members alike. It was not her political affiliations or her involvement in a particular cause, which won her respect and recognition, but her utter honesty in public life, her integrity, and her compassion for the oppressed, which made her an adorable person. She had the courage to differ with and defy the mightiest in the land; yet her human spirit prompted her to work in the worst of slums to offer succour to the poor and the exploited.
In later years—around late eighties and early nineties—Aruna Asaf Ali’s health began to deteriorate.
Although her mind remained alert, she could not actively take up her pet causes such as action for women’s advancement, planning for economic justice, role of media, reaffirmation of values in public affairs, etc. Slowly, her movements were restricted, and Aruna who had drawn sustenance from common people, from her involvement in public life, became a lonely person. She passed away in July 1996.
Q35. Which committee was chaired by Aruna ?
(a) Women’s International Year’s Committee
(b) Steering Committee of Women’s International Year
(c) A Committee of Publicity
(d) Women’s Organizations
Ans: (b)
Q36. Who were made the members of the Committee of Publicity?
Choose the answer from codes given below:
I Representatives from different political parties – II Representatives from the leftist parties – III Representatives from the women’s organizations – IV None of the above
(a) – I and – III (b) – I and II
(c) I, II, and – III (d) – IV only
Ans: (a)
Q37. Aruna earned respect because of
(a) She identified with the leftists
(b) She did not associate with any political party
(c) Chairing a Steering Committee
(d) She identified with women’s organizations
Ans: (b)
Q38. Who tried to monopolize Aruna as their proprietary right?
(a) Women Organizations
(b) Leftists
(c) Steering Committee
(d) Some Political Parties
Ans: (b)
Q39. Aruna’s health began to deteriorate from
(a) 1985–2002 (b) 1998–2000
(c) 1981–2000 (d) 1989–2001
Ans: (c)
Q40. Aruna’s pet cause(s) in her life was/were
(a) Role of media
(b) Economic justice
(c) Reaffirmation of values in public affairs
(d) All of the above
Ans: (d)
Q41. A good teacher must be
(a) Resourceful and autocratic
(b) Resourceful and participative
(c) Resourceful and authoritative
(d) Resourceful and dominant
Ans: (b)
Q42. Which one of the following is the best method of teaching?
(a) Lecture method
(b) Discussion method
(c) Demonstration method
(d) Question-answer method
Ans: (c)
Q43. Successful communication in classroom teaching is
(a) Circular (b) Reciprocal
(c) Directional (d) Influential
Ans: (b)
Q44. Which one of the following types of evaluation assesses the learning progress to provide continuous feedback to both teachers and students during instruction?
(a) Placement evaluation
(b) Formative evaluation
(c) Diagnostic evaluation
(d) Summative evaluation
Ans: (b)
Q45. Which one of the following is a scaled down teaching situation?
(a) Macroteaching
(b) Team teaching
(c) Cooperative teaching
(d) Micro teaching
Ans: (d)
Q46. CLASS stands for
(a) Complete Literacy and Studies in Schools
(b) Computer Literates and Students in Schools
(c) Computer Literacy and Studies in Schools
(d) Centre for Literacy and Studies in Schools
Ans: (c)
Q47. Which one of the following is not a type of experimental method?
(a) Single group experiment
(b) Residual group experiment
(c) Parallel group experiment
(d) Rational group experiment
Ans: (b)
Q48. Which one of the following is not a non-parametric test?
(a) t-test (b) Sign test
(c) Chi-square test (d) Run test
Ans: (a)
Q49. Read the following statements—one labelled as Assertion (A) and the other as Reason (R):
Assertion (A): Qualitative research in India has a long way to go to reach international standards.
Reason (R): Because the funding agencies do not support qualitative research in academic institutions.
Find the correct answer from the codes given below:
(a) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).
(b) Both (A) and (R) are true, but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A).
(c) (A) is true, but (R) is false.
(d) Both (A) and (R) are false.
Ans: (c)
Q50. Identify the correct sequence of research steps:
(a) Selection of topic, review of literature, data collection, and interpretation of findings
(b) Review of literature, selection of topic, data collection, and interpretation of findings
(c) Selection of topic, data collection, review of literature, and interpretation of findings
(d) Selection of topic, review of literature, interpretation of findings, and data collection
Ans: (a)
Q51. Deconstruction is a popular method of research in
(a) Basic science (b) Applied science
(c) Social science (d) Literature
Ans: (d)
Q52. With that one of the following techniques communality is associated?
(a) Univariate analysis
(b) Factor analysis
(c) Case studies
(d) SWOT analysis
Ans: (b)
Q53. The variable that impacts the relationship between an independent variable and a dependent variable is known as
(a) Antecedent variable
(b) Precedent variable
(c) Predictor variable
(d) Control variable
Ans: (d)
Q54. Which one of the following is a nonprobability sampling method?
(a) Simple random sampling
(b) Stratified sampling
(c) Cluster sampling
(d) Quota sampling
Ans: (d)
Q55. By the year 2022, the Climate Change Action Plan of Government of India aims at installing
(a) 20,000 MW of wind power
(b) 25,000 MW of wind power
(c) 20,000 MW of solar power
(d) 10,000 MW of solar power
Ans: (c)
Q56. Which one of the following biosphere reserves has UNESCO recognition?
(a) Manas
(b) Kanchenjunga
(c) Seshachalam Hills
(d) Greater Nicobar
Ans: (d)
Q57. Which activity contributes to water pollution more than any other throughout world?
(a) Agriculture
(b) Hydroelectric power generation
(c) Industry
(d) Urbanization
Ans: (a)
Q58. Match List – I with List – II and find the correct answer from the codes given below:
List – I List I
A Nilgiri – I Deccan Peninsula
B Manas – II Chhattisgarh
C Simlipal – III Eastern Himalaya
D Achankmar-
Amarkantak – IV Western Ghat
(a) – I – II – III IV
(b) – II – III – IV I
(c) – III – IV – II I
(d) – IV – III – I II
Ans: (d)
Q59. G5 are the five most important emerging economies of world. Which one of the following does not form part of G5?
(a) Mexico (b) Brazil
(c) China (d) Korea
Ans: (d)
Q60. Which of the following nations has the maximum per capita emissions of carbon di-oxide?
(a) China (b) Japan
(c) USA (d) India
Ans: (c)

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