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Paper 1 June 2014 – UGC NTA NET JRF Solved Previous Year Paper

Paper 1 June 2014 – UGC NTA NET JRF Solved Previous Year Paper

Q1. Break-down in verbal communication is described as
(a) Short circuit
(b) Contradiction
(c) Unevenness
(d) Entropy
Ans: (d)
Q2. The Telephone Model of Communication was first developed in the area of
(a) Technological theory
(b) Dispersion theory
(c) Minimal effects theory
(d) Information theory
Ans: (d)
Q3. The Dadasaheb Phalke Award for 2013 has been conferred on
(a) Karan Johar (b) Amir Khan
(c) Asha Bhonsle (d) Gulzar
Ans: (d)
Q4. Photographs are not easy to
(a) Publish (b) Secure
(c) Decode (d) Change
Ans: (c)
Q5. The grains that appear on a television set when operated are also referred to as
(a) Sparks (b) Green dots
(c) Snow (d) Rain drops
Ans: (c)
Q6. In circular communication, the encoder becomes a decoder when there is
(a) Noise (b) Audience
(c) Criticality (d) Feedback
Ans: (d)
Q7. In a post- office, stamps of three different denominations of `7, `8, and `10 are available.
The exact amount for which one cannot buy stamps is
(a) 19 (b) 20 (c) 23 (d) 29
Ans: (a)
Q8. In certain coding method, the word QUESTION is encoded as DOMESTIC. In this coding, what is the code word for the word RESPONSE?
Ans: (c)
Q9. If the series 4, 5, 8, 13, 14, 17, 22, …. is continued in the same pattern, then which one of the following is not a term of this series?
(a) 31 (b) 32 (c) 33 (d) 35
Ans: (c)
Q10. Complete the series BB, FE, II, ML, PP, ______ by choosing one of the following option given:
(a) TS (b) ST (c) RS (d) SR
Ans: (a)
Q11. A man started walking from his house towards south. After walking 6 km, he turned to his left and walked 5 km. Then he walked further 3 km after turning left.
He then turned to his left and continued his walk for 9 km. How far is he away from his house?
(a) 3 km (b) 4 km
(c) 5 km (d) 6 km
Ans: (c)
Q12. One writes all numbers from 50 to 99 without the digits 2 and 7. How many numbers have been written?
(a) 32 (b) 36 (c) 40 (d) 38
Ans: (a)
Q13. ‘If a large diamond is cut up into little bits, it will lose its value just as an army is divided up into small units of soldiers, it loses its strength’.
The argument put above may be called as
(a) Analogical (b) Deductive
(c) Statistical (d) Causal
Ans: (a)
Q14. Given below are some characteristics of logical argument. Select the code which expresses a characteristic which is not of inductive in character.
(a) The conclusion is claimed to follow from its premises.
(b) The conclusion is based on causal relation.
(c) The conclusion conclusively follows from its premises.
(d) The conclusion is based on observation and experiment.
Ans: (c)
Q15. If two propositions having the same subject and predicate terms can both be true but both cannot be false, then the relation between those two propositions is called
(a) Contradictory
(b) Contrary
(c) Subcontrary
(d) Subaltern
Ans: (c)
Q16. Given below are two premises and four conclusions drawn from those premises. Select the code that expresses conclusion drawn validly from the premises (separately or jointly).
(A) All dogs are mammals.
(B) No cats are dogs.
(i) No cats are mammals.
(ii) Some cats are mammals.
(iii) No dogs are cats.
(iv) No dogs are non-mammals.
(a) (i) only (b) (i) and (ii)
(c) (iii) and (iv) (d) (ii) and (iii)
Ans: (c)
Q17. Given below is a diagram of three circles A, B, and
C inter-related with each other.
The Circle A represents the class of Indians, the Circle
B represents the class of scientists, and Circle
C represents the class of politicians.
p, q, r, s represent different regions.
Select the code containing the region that indicates the class of Indian scientists who are not politicians.
B p s r q
(a) q and s only
(b) s only
(c) s and r only
(d) p, q, and s only
Ans: (b)
Read the following table carefully. Based upon
this table answer the Questions from 18 to 22:
Net area under irrigation by sources in a country (thousand hectares)

YearGovt CanalsPrivate CanalsTanksTubeWeel & Other WellsOther SourcesTotal

Q18. Which of the following sources of irrigation has registered the largest percentage of decline in net area under irrigation during 1997–98 and 2005–06?
(a) Government canals
(b) Private canals
(c) Tanks
(d) Other sources
Ans: (c)
Q19. Find out the source of irrigation that has registered the maximum improvement in terms of percentage of net irrigated area during 2002–03 and 2003–04.
(a) Government canals
(b) Tanks
(c) Tube wells and other wells
(d) Other sources
Ans: (d)
Q20. In which of the following years, net irrigation by tanks increased at the highest rate?
(a) 1998–99 (b) 2000–01
(c) 2003–04 (d) 2005–06
Ans: (d)
Q21. Identify the source of irrigation that has recorded the maximum incidence of negative growth in terms of net irrigated area during the years given in the table.
(a) Government canals
(b) Private canals
(c) Tube wells and other wells
(d) Other sources
Ans: (a)
Q22. In which of the following years, shares of the tube wells and other wells in the total net irrigated area was the highest?
(a) 1998–99 (b) 2000–01
(c) 2002–03 (d) 2004–05
Ans: (c)
Q23. The acronym FTP stands for
(a) File Transfer Protocol
(b) Fast Transfer Protocol
(c) File Tracking Protocol
(d) File Transfer Procedure
Ans: (a)
Q24. Which one of the following is not a/an image/graphic file format?
(a) PNG (b) GIF (c) BMP (d) GUI
Ans: (d)
Q25. The first web browser is
(a) Internet Explorer
(b) Netscape
(c) World Wide Web
(d) Firefox
Ans: (c)
Q26. When a computer is booting, BIOS is loaded to the memory by
(a) RAM (b) ROM
(c) CD-ROM (d) TCP
Ans: (b)
Q27. Which one of the following is not the same as the other three?
(a) MAC address
(b) Hardware address
(c) Physical address
(d) IP address
Ans: (d)
Q28. Identify the IP address from the following:
(a) 300 ⋅215 ⋅317 ⋅3
(b) 302 ⋅[email protected] 417 ⋅5
(c) 202 ⋅50 ⋅20 ⋅148
(d) 202 – 50 – 20 – 148
Ans: (c)
Q29. The population of India is about 1.2 billion.
Take the average consumption of energy per person per year in India as 30 megajoule.
If this consumption is met by carbon-based fuels and the rate of carbon emissions per kilojoule is 15 ×106 kg, then the total carbon emissions per year from India will be
(a) 54 million metric tonnes
(b) 540 million metric tonnes
(c) 5400 million metric tonnes
(d) 2400 million metric tonnes
Ans: (*)
Q30. Which of the following cities has been worst affected by urban smog in recent times?
(a) Paris (b) London
(c) Los Angeles (d) Beijing
Ans: (d)
Q31. The primary source of organic pollution in fresh water bodies is
(a) Run-off urban areas
(b) Run-off from agricultural forms
(c) Sewage effluents
(d) Industrial effluents
Ans: (c)
Q32. ‘Lahar’ is a natural disaster involving
(a) Eruption of large amount of material
(b) Strong winds
(c) Strong water waves
(d) Strong winds and water waves
Ans: (a)
Q33. In order to avoid catastrophic consequences of climate change, there is general agreement among the countries of the world to limit the rise in average surface temperature of earth compared to that of pre-industrial times by
(a) 1.5C to 2C (b) 2.0C to 3.5C
(c) 0.5°C to 1.0°C (d) 0.25°C to 0.5°C
Ans: (a)
Q34. The National Disaster Management Authority functions under the Union Ministry of
(a) Environment (b) Water Resources
(c) Home Affairs (d) Defence
Ans: (c)
Q35. Match List–I and List–II and select the correct answer from the codes given below:
List – I List – II
A Flood – I Lack of rainfall of sufficient duration
B Drought – II Tremors produced by the passage of vibratory waves through the rocks of the earth
C Earthquake III
A vent through which molten substances come out
D Volcano – IV Excess rain and uneven distribution of water
(a) A-IV, B-I, C-II, D-III
(b) A-II, B-III, C-IV, D-I
(c) A-III, B-IV, C-II, D-I
(d) A-IV, B-III, C-I, D-II
Ans: (a)
Q36. Which one of the following green house gases has the shortest residence time in the atmosphere?
(a) Chlorofluorocarbon
(b) Carbon dioxide
(c) Methane
(d) Nitrous oxide
Ans: (c)
Q37. Consider the following statements and select the correct answer from the code given below:
(i) Rajasthan receives the highest solar radiation in the country.
(ii) India has the fifth largest installed wind power in the world.
(iii) The maximum amount of wind power is contributed by Tamil Nadu.
(iv) The primary source of uranium in India is Jaduguda.
(a) (i) and (ii) (b) (i), (ii), and (iii)
(c) (ii) and (iii) (d) ( i) and (iv)
Ans: (*)
Q38. Who among the following is the de facto executive head of the Planning Commission?
(a) Chairman
(b) Deputy Chairman
(c) Minister of State for Planning
(d) Member Secretary
Ans: (b)
Q39. Education as a subject of legislation figures in the
(a) Union List
(b) State List
(c) Concurrent List
(d) Residuary Powers
Ans: (c)
Q40. Which of the following are Central Universities?
(i) Pondicherry University
(ii) Vishwa Bharati
(iii) H.N.B. Garhwal University
(iv) Kurukshetra University Select the correct answer from the codes given below:
(a) (i), (ii), and (iii) (b) (i), (iii), and (iv)
(c) (ii), (iii), and (iv) (d) (i), (ii), and (iv)
Ans: (a)
Q41. Consider the statement which is followed by two arguments (i) and (ii).
Statement: India should have a very strong and powerful Lokpal.
(i) Yes, it will go a long in eliminating corruption in bureaucracy.
(ii) No, it will discourage honest officers from making quick decisions.
(a) Only argument (i) is strong.
(b) Only argument (ii) is strong.
(c) Both the arguments are strong.
(d) Neither of the arguments is strong.
Ans: (a)
Q42. Which of the following universities has adopted the meta university concept?
(a) Assam University
(b) Delhi University
(c) Hyderabad University
(d) Pondicherry University
Ans: (b)
Q43. Which of the following statements are correct about a Central University?
(i) Central University is established under an Act of Parliament.
(ii) The President of India acts as the visitor of the University.
(iii) The President has the power to nominate some members to the Executive Committee or the Board of Management of the University.
(iv) The President occasionally presides over the meetings of the Executive Committee or Court.
Select the correct answer from the code given below:
(a) (i), (ii), and (iv) (b) (i), (iii), and (iv)
(c) (i), (ii), and (iii) (d) (i), (ii), (iii), and (iv)
Ans: (c)
Q44. Which one of the following is considered a sign of motivated teaching?
(a) Students asking questions
(b) Maximum attendance of the students
(c) Pin drop silence in the classroom
(d) Students taking notes
Ans: (a)
Q45. Which one of the following is the best method of teaching?
(a) Lecture (b) Discussion
(c) Demonstration (d) Narration
Ans: (c)
Q46. Dyslexia is associated with
(a) Mental disorder
(b) Behavioural disorder
(c) Reading disorder
(d) Writing disorder
Ans: (c)
Q47. The e-content generation for under-graduate courses has been assigned by the Ministry of Human Resource Development to
(b) Consortium for Educational Communication
(c) National Knowledge Commission
(d) Indira Gandhi National Open University
Ans: (b)
Q48. Classroom communication is normally considered as
(a) Effective (b) Cognitive
(c) Affective (d) Selective
Ans: (b)
Q49. Who among the following, propounded the concept of paradigm?
(a) Peter Haggett (b) Von Thunen
(c) Thomas Kuhn (d) John K. Wright
Ans: (c)
Q50. In a thesis, figures and tables are included in
(a) The appendix
(b) A separate chapter
(c) The concluding chapter
(d) The text itself
Ans: (d)
Q51. A thesis statement is
(a) An observation
(b) A fact
(c) An assertion
(d) A discussion
Ans: (c)
Q52. The research approach of Max Weber to understand how people create meanings in natural settings is identified as
(a) Positive paradigm
(b) Critical paradigm
(c) Natural paradigm
(d) Interpretative paradigm
Ans: (d)
Q53. Which one of the following is a nonprobability sampling?
(a) Simple random
(b) Purposive
(c) Systematic
(d) Stratified
Ans: (b)
Q54. Identify the category of evaluation that assesses the learning progress to provide continuous feedback to the students during instruction.
(a) Placement (b) Diagnostic
(c) Formative (d) Summative
Ans: (c)
Q55. The research stream of immediate application is
(a) Conceptual research
(b) Action research
(c) Fundamental research
(d) Empirical research
Ans: (b)
Read the following passage carefully and answer the Questions from 56 to 60:
Traditional Indian values must be viewed both from the angle of the individual and from that of the geographically delimited agglomeration of people or groups enjoying a common system of leadership which we call the ‘State’. The Indian ‘State’s’ special feature is the peaceful, or perhaps mostly peaceful, co-existence of social groups of various historical provenances that mutually adhere in a geographical, economic, and political sense, without ever assimilating to each other in social terms, in ways of thinking, or even in language. Modern Indian law will determine certain rules, especially in relation to the regime of the family, upon the basis of how the loincloth is tied, or how the turban is worn, for this may identify the litigants as members of a regional group, and therefore as participants in its traditional law, though their ancestors left the region three or four centuries earlier. The use of the word ‘State’ above must not mislead us.
There was no such thing as a conflict between the individual and the State, atleast before foreign governments became established, just as there was no concept of state ‘sovereignty’ or of any church-and-state dichotomy.
Modern Indian ‘secularism’ has an admittedly peculiar feature: it requires the state to make a fair distribution of attention and support amongst all religions. These blessed aspects of India’s famed tolerance (Indian kings so rarely persecuted religious groups that the exceptions prove the rule) at once struck Portuguese and other European visitors to the West Coast of India in the sixteenth century, and the impression made upon them in this and other ways gave rise, at one remove, to the basic constitution of Thomas More’s Utopia. There is little about modern India that strikes one at once as Utopian: but, the insistence upon the inculcation of norms and the absence of bigotry and institutionalized exploitation of human or natural resources are two very different features that link the realities of India and her tradition with the essence of all Utopians.
Q56. Which of the following is a special feature of the Indian State?
(a) Peaceful co-existence of people under a common system of leadership
(b) Peaceful co-existence of social groups of different historical provenances attached to each other in a geographical, economic, and political sense
(c) Social integration of all groups
(d) Cultural assimilation of all social groups
Ans: (b)
Q57. The author uses the word ‘State’ to highlight
(a) Antagonistic relationship between the state and the individual throughout the period of history
(b) Absence of conflict between the state and the individuals upto a point in time
(c) The concept of state sovereignty
(d) Dependence on religion
Ans: (b)
Q58. Which one is the peculiar feature of modern Indian ‘secularism’?
(a) No discrimination on religious considerations
(b) Total indifference to religion
(c) No space for social identity
(d) Disregard for social law
Ans: (a)
Q59. The basic construction of Thomas More’s Utopia was inspired by
(a) Indian tradition of religious tolerance
(b) Persecution of religious groups by Indian rulers
(c) Social inequality in India
(d) European perception of Indian State
Ans: (a)
Q60. What is the striking feature of modern India?
(a) A replica of Utopian State
(b) Uniform laws
(c) Adherence to traditional values
(d) Absence of Bigotry
Ans: (d)

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