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Paper 1 June 2013 – UGC NTA NET JRF Solved Previous Year Paper

Paper 1 June 2013 – UGC NTA NET JRF Solved Previous Year Paper

Q1. ‘www’ stands for
(a) work with web (b) word wide web
(c) world wide web (d) worth while web
Ans: (b)
Q2. A hard disk is divided into tracks which is further subdivided into
(a) Clusters (b) Sectors
(c) Vectors (d) Head
Ans: (b)
Q3. A computer program that translates a program statement by statement into machine language is called a/an
(a) Compiler (b) Simulator
(c) Translator (d) Interpreter
Ans: (d)
Q4. A gigabyte is equal to
(a) 1024 Megabytes (b) 1024 Kilobytes
(c) 1024 Terabytes (d) 1024 Bytes
Ans: (a)
Q5. A compiler is software that converts
(a) Characters to bits
(b) High-level language to machine language
(c) Machine language to high-level language
(d) Words to bits
Ans: (b)
Q6. Virtual memory is
(a) an extremely large main memory
(b) an extremely large secondary memory
(c) an illusion of extremely large main memory
(d) a type of memory used in super computers
Ans: (b)
Q7. The phrase ‘tragedy of commons’ is in the context of
(a) tragic event related to damage caused by release’ of poisonous gases
(b) tragic conditions of poor people
(c) degradation of renewable free access resources
(d) climate change
Ans: (c)
Q8. ‘Kyoto Protocol’ is related to
(a) Ozone depletion (b) Hazardous waste
(c) Climate change (d) Nuclear energy
Ans: (c)
Q9. Which of the following is a source of emission leading to the eventual formation of surface ozone as a pollutant?
(a) Transport sector
(b) Refrigeration and Air conditioning
(c) Wetlands
(d) Fertilizers
Ans: (a)
Q10. The smog in cities in India mainly consists of
(a) Oxides of sulphur
(b) Oxides of nitrogen and unburnt hydrocarbons
(c) Carbon monoxide and SPM
(d) Oxides of sulphur and ozone
Ans: (c)
Q11. Which of the following types of natural hazards have the highest potential to cause damage to humans?
(a) Earth quakes
(b) Forest fires
(c) Volcanic eruptions
(d) Droughts and floods
Ans: (a)
Q12. The percentage share of renewable energy sources in the power production in India is around
(a) 2–3 % (b) 22–25%
(c) l0–12% (d) 1%
Ans: (c)
Q13. In which of the following categories the enrolment of students in higher education in 2010–2011 was beyond the percentage of seats reserved?
(a) OBC students (b) SC students
(c) ST students (d) Woman students
Ans: (a)
Q14. Which one of the following statements is not correct about the University Grants Commission (UGC)?
(a) It was established in 1956 by an Act of Parliament.
(b) It is tasked with promoting and coordinating higher education.
(c) It receives Plan and Non-Plan funds from the Central Government.
(d) It receives funds from State Governments in respect of State Universities.
Ans: (d)
Q15. Consider the statement which is followed by two arguments (I) and (II) Statement: Should India switch over to a two-party system?
Arguments:
(I) Yes, it will lead to stability of Government.
(II) No, it will limit the choice of voters.
(a) Only argument (I) is strong.
(b) Only argument (II) is strong.
(c) Both the arguments are strong.
(d) Neither of the arguments is strong.
Ans: (c)
Q16. Consider the statement which is followed by two arguments (I) and (II):
Statement: Should persons with criminal background be banned from contesting elections?
Arguments:
(I) Yes, it will decriminalize politics.
(II) No, it will encourage the ruling party to file frivolous cases against their political opponents.
(a) Only argument (I) is strong.
(b) Only argument (II) is strong.
(c) Both the arguments are strong.
(d) Neither of the arguments is strong.
Ans: (a)
Q17. Which of the following statement(s) is/are correct about a Judge of the Supreme Court of India?
1. A Judge of the Supreme Court is appointed by the President of India.
2. He holds office during the pleasure of the President.
3. He can be suspended, pending an inquiry.
4. He can be removed for proven misbehaviour or incapacity.
Select the correct answer from the codes given below:
Codes:
(a) 1, 2 and 3 (b) 1, 3 and 4
(c) 1 and 3 (d) 1 and 4
Ans: (d)
Q18. In the warrant of precedence, the Speaker of the Lok Sabha comes next only to
(a) The President
(b) The Vice-President
(c) The Prime Minister
(d) The Cabinet Ministers
Ans: (c)
Q19. The blackboard can be utilized best by a teacher for
(a) Putting the matter of teaching in black and white
(b) Making the students attentive
(c) Writing the important and notable points
(d) Highlighting the teacher himself
Ans: (c)
Q20. Nowadays, the most effective mode of learning is
(a) Self study
(b) Face-to-face learning
(c) e-Learning
(d) Blended learning
Ans: (d)
Q21. At the primary school stage, most of the teachers should be women because they
(a) can teach children better than men
(b) know basic content better than men
(c) are available on lower salaries
(d) can deal with children with love and affection
Ans: (d)
Q22. Which one is the highest order of learning?
(a) Chain learning
(b) Problem-solving learning
(c) Stimulus-response learning
(d) Conditioned-reflex learning
Ans: (b)
Q23. A person can enjoy teaching as a profession when he
(a) has control over students
(b) commands respect from students
(c) is more qualified than his colleagues
(d) is very close to higher authorities
Ans: (b)
Q24. ‘A diagram speaks more than 1,000 words’.
The statement means that the teacher should
(a) use diagrams in teaching
(b) speak more and more in the class
(c) use teaching aids in the class
(d) not speak too, much in the class
Ans: (a)
Q25. A research paper
(a) is a compilation of information on a topic
(b) contains original research as deemed by the author
(c) contains peer-reviewed original research or the evaluation of research conducted by others.
(d) can be published in more than one journal.
Ans: (c)
Q26. Which one of the following belongs to the category of good ‘research ethics’?
(a) Publishing the same paper in two research journals without telling the editors.
(b) Conducting a review of the literature that acknowledges the contributions of other people in the relevant field or relevant prior work.
(c) Trimming outliers from a data set without discussing your reasons in a research paper.
(d) Including a colleague as an author on a research paper in return for a favour even though the colleague did not make a serious contribution to the paper.
Ans: (b)
Q27. Which of the following sampling methods is not based on probability?
(a) Simple random sampling
(b) Stratified sampling
(c) Quota sampling
(d) Cluster sampling
Ans: (c)
Q28. Which one of the following references is written as per Modem Language Association
(MLA) format?
(a) Hall, Donald. Fundamentals of Electronics, New Delhi : Prentice Hall of India, 2005
(b) Hall, Donald, Fundamentals of Electronics, New Delhi : Prentice Hall of India, 2005
(c) Hall, Donald, Fundamentals of Electronics, New Delhi : Prentice Hall of India, 2005
(d) Hall, Donald. Fundamentals of Electronics. New Delhi : Prentice Hall of India, 2005
Ans: (d)
Q29. A workshop is
(a) a conference for discussion on a topic
(b) a meeting for discussion on a topic
(c) a class at a college or a university in which a teacher and the students discuss a topic
(d) a brief intensive course for a small group, emphasizing the development of a skill or technique for solving a specific problem.
Ans: (d)
Q30. A working hypothesis is
(a) a proven hypothesis for an argument
(b) not required to be tested
(c) a provisionally accepted hypothesis for further research
(d) a scientific theory
Ans: (c)
Read the following passage carefully and answer the questions (31 to 36):
The Taj Mahal has become one of the world’s best known monuments. This domed white marble structure is situated on a high plinth at the southern end of a four-quartered garden, evoking the gardens of paradise, enclosed within walls measuring 305 by 549 metres. Outside the walls, in an area known as Mumtazabad, were living quarters for attendants, markets, serais and other structures built by local merchants and nobles. The tomb complex and the other imperial structures of Mumtazabad were maintained by the income from thirty villages given specifically for the tomb’s support. The name Taj Mahal is unknown in Mughal chronicles, but it is used by contemporary Europeans in India, suggesting that this was the tomb’s popular name. In contemporary texts, it is simply called the illuminated tomb (Rauza-i-Munavvara).
Mumtaz Mahal died shortly after delivering her fourteenth child in 1631. The Mughal court was then residing in Burhanpur. Her remains were temporarily buried by the griefstricken emperor in a spacious garden known as Zainabad on the bank of River Tapti. Six months later, her body was transported to Agra, where it was interred in land chosen for the mausoleum.
This land, situated south of the Mughal city on the bank of River Jamuna, had belonged to the Kachwaha rajas since the time of Raja Man Singh and was purchased from the then current raja, Jai Singh. Although contemporary chronicles indicate Jai Singh’s willing cooperation in this exchange, extant farmans (imperial commands) indicate that the final price was not settled until almost two years after the mausoleum’s commencement. Jai Singh’s further cooperation was insured by imperial orders issued between 1632 and 1637 demanding that he provide stone masons and carts to transport marble from the mines at Makrana, within his ‘ancestral domain’, to Agra where both the Taj Mahal and Shah Jahan’s additions to the Agra fort were constructed concurrently.
Work on the mausoleum was commenced early in 1632. Inscriptional evidence indicates much of the tomb was completed by 1636. By 1643, when Shah Jahan most lavishly celebrated the ‘Urs ceremony for Mumtaz Mahal’, the entire complex was virtually complete.
Q31. Marble stone used for the construction of Taj Mahal was brought from the ancestral domain of Raja Jai Singh. The name of the place where mines of marble is
(a) Burhanpur (b) Makrana
(c) Amber (d) Jaipur
Ans: (b)
Q32. The popular name Taj Mahal was given by
(a) Shah Jahan
(b) Tourists
(c) Public
(d) European travellers
Ans: (d)
Q33. Point out the true statement from the following:
(a) Marble was not used for the construction of Taj Mahal.
(b) Red sandstone is non-visible in Taj Mahal complex.
(c) Taj Mahal is surrounded by a fourquartered garden known as Chahar Bagh.
(d) Taj Mahal was constructed to celebrate the ‘Urs ceremony for Mumtaz Mahal’.
Ans: (d)
Q34. In the contemporary texts, Taj Mahal is known
(a) Mumtazabad
(b) Mumtaz Mahal
(c) Zainabad
(d) Rauza-i-Munavvara
Ans: (d)
Q35. The construction of Taj Mahal was completed between the period
(a) 1632–1636 A.D. (b) 1630–1643 A.D.
(c) 1632–1643 A.D. (d) 1636–1643 A.D.
Ans: (c)
Q36. The documents indicating the ownership of land, where Taj Mahal was built, known as
(a) Farman
(b) Sale deed
(c) Sale-purchase deed
(d) None of the above
Ans: (a)
Q37. In the process of communication, which one of the following is in the chronological order?
(a) Communication, medium, receiver, effect, message
(b) Medium, communicator, message, receiver, effect
(c) Communicator, message, medium, receiver, effect
(d) Message, communicator, medium, receiver, effect
Ans: (c)
Q38. Bengal Gazette, the first Newspaper in India, was started in 1780 by
(a) Dr Annie Besant
(b) James Augustus Hicky
(c) Lord Cripson
(d) A. O. Hume
Ans: (b)
Q39. Press censorship in India was imposed during the tenure of the Prime Minister
(a) Rajeev Gandhi (b) Narasimha Rao
(c) Indira Gandhi (d) Deve Gowda
Ans: (c)
Q40. Communication via New media such as computers, teleshopping, the Internet and mobile telephony is termed as
(a) Entertainment
(b) Interactive communication
(c) Development communication
(d) Communitarian
Ans: (b)
Q41. Classroom communication of a teacher rest on the principle of
(a) Infotainment (b) Edutainment
(c) Entertainment (d) Enlightenment
Ans: (b)
Q42. __________ is important when a teacher communicates with his/her student
(a) Sympathy (b) Empathy
(c) Apathy (d) Antipathy
Ans: (b)
Q43. In a certain code, GALIB is represented by HBMJC. TIGER will be represented by
(a) UJHFS (b) UHJSF
(c) JHUSF (d) HUJSF
Ans: (a)
Q44. In a certain cricket tournament, 45 matches were played. Each team played once against each of the other teams. The number of teams participated in the tournament is
(a) 8 (b) 10 (c) 12 (d) 14
Ans: (b)
Q45. The missing number in the series 40, 120, 60, 180, 90, ?, 135 is
(a) 110 (b) 270 (c) 105 (d) 210
Ans: (b)
Q46. The odd numbers from 1 to 45 which are exactly divisible by 3 are arranged in ascending order. The number at 6th position is
(a) 18 (b) 24 (c) 33 (d) 36
Ans: (c)
Q47. The mean of four numbers a, b, c, d is 100.
If c =70, then the mean of the remaining numbers is
(a) 30 (b) 85/2 (c) 170/3 (d) 110
Ans: (d)
Q48. If the radius of a circle is increased by 50%, the perimeter of the circle will increase by
(a) 20% (b) 30% (c) 40% (d) 50%
Ans: (d)
Q49. If the statement ‘some men are honest’ is false, which among the following statements will be true?
Choose the correct code given below.
(i) All men are honest.
(ii) No men are honest.
(iii) Some men are not honest.
(iv) All men are dishonest.
Codes:
(a) (i), (ii) and (iii) (b) (ii), (iii) and (iv)
(c) (i), (iii) and (iv) (d) (ii), (i) and (iv)
Ans: (a)
Q50. Choose the proper alternative given in the codes to replace the question Bee – Honey, Cow – Milk, Teacher – ?
(a) Intelligence (b) Marks
(c) Lessons (d) Wisdom
Ans: (d)
Q51. P is the father of R and S is the son of Q and T is the brother of P, If R is the sister of S, how is Q related to T?
(a) Wife (b) Sister-in-law
(c) Brother-in-law (d) Daughter-in-law
Ans: (b)
Q52. A definition put forward to resolve a dispute by influencing attitudes or stirring emotions is called
(a) Lexical (b) Persuasive
(c) Stipulative (d) Precisions
Ans: (b)
Q53. Which of the codes given below contains only the correct statements?
Statements:
(i) Venn diagram is a clear method of notation.
(ii) Venn diagram is the most direct method of testing the validity of categorical syllogisms.
(iii) In Venn diagram method, the premises and the conclusion of a categorical syllogism is diagrammed.
(iv) In Venn diagram method, the three overlapping circles are drawn for testing a categorical syllogism.
Codes:
(a) (i), (ii), and (iii) (b) (i), (ii), and (iv)
(c) (ii), (iii), and (iv) (d) (i), (iii), and (iv)
Ans: (a)
Read the table below, and based on this table,
answer questions from 55 to 60.
Area under major horticulture crop (in lakh hectares)

YearFruitsVegetablesFlowersTotal horticulture area
2005–0653721187
2006–0756751194
2007–0858782202
2008–0961792207
2009–10637929

Q54. Inductive reasoning presupposes
(a) Unity in human nature
(b) Integrity in human nature
(c) Uniformity in human nature
(d) Harmony in human nature
Ans: (c)
Q55. Which of the following two year have recorded the highest rate increase in area under the total horticulture?
(a) 2005–06 and 2006–07
(b) 2006–07 and 2008–09
(c) 2007–08 and 2008–09
(d) 2006–07 and 2007–08
Ans: (d)
Q56. Shares of the area under flowers, vegetables, and fruits in the area under total horticulture are, respectively,
(a) 1, 38, and 30 per cent
(b) 30, 38, and 1 per cent
(c) 38, 30, and l per cent
(d) 35, 36, and 2 per cent
Ans: (a)
Q57. Which of the following has recorded the highest rate of increase in area during 2005– 06 to 2009–10?
(a) Fruits (b) Vegetables
(c) Flowers (d) Total horticulture
Ans: (c)
Q58. Find out the horticultural crop that has recorded an increase of area by around 10 per cent from 2005–06 to 2009–10.
(a) Fruits (b) Vegetables
(c) Flowers (d) Total horticulture
Ans: (b)
Q59. What has been the share of area under fruits, vegetables, and flowers in the area under total horticulture in 2007–08?
(a) 53 per cent
(b) 68 per cent
(c) 79 per cent
(d) 100 per cent
Ans: (b)
Q60. In which year, area under fruits has recorded the highest rate of increase?
(a) 2006–07 (b) 2007–08
(c) 2008–09 (d) 2009–10
Ans: (a)

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