Paper 1 June 2012 – UGC NTA NET JRF Solved Previous Year Paper
Q1. Videoconferencing can be classified as one of the following types of communication:
(a) Visual one way
(b) Audio–visual one way
(c) Audio–visual two way
(d) Visual two way
Q2. MC National University of Journalism and Communication is located at
(a) Lucknow (b) Bhopal
(c) Chennai (d) Mumbai
Q3. All India Radio (AIR) for broadcasting was named in the year
(a) 1926 (b) 1936 (c) 1946 (d) 1956
Q4. In India for broadcasting TV programmes which system is followed?
(a) NTCS (b) PAL
(c) NTSE (d) SECAM
Q5. The term ‘DAVP’ stands for
(a) Directorate of Advertising and Vocal Publicity
(b) Division of Audio–Visual Publicity
(c) Department of Audio–Visual Publicity
(d) Directorate of Advertising and Visual Publicity
Q6. The term ‘TRP’ is associated with TV shows stands for
(a) Total rating points
(b) Time rating points
(c) Thematic rating points
(d) Television rating points
Q7. Find the number that comes next in the following sequence?
2, 6, 12, 20, 30, 42, 56, __________
(a) 60 (b) 64 (c) 72 (d) 70
Q8. Find the next letter for the series YVSP ………
(a) N (b) M (c) O (d) L
Q9. Given that in a code language, ‘645’ means ‘day is warm’, ‘42’ means ‘warm spring’, and ‘634’ means ‘spring is sunny’, which digit represents ‘sunny’?
(a) 3 (b) 2 (c) 4 (d) 5
Q10. The basis of the following classification is:
‘first President of India’, ‘author of Godan’, ‘books in my library’, ‘blue things’, and ‘students who work hard’.
(a) Common names
(b) Proper names
(c) Descriptive phrases
(d) Indefinite description
Q11. In the expression ‘Nothing is larger than itself’, the relation ‘is larger than’ is
(a) Antisymmetric (b) Asymmetrical
(c) Intransitive (d) Irreflexive
Q12. Assertion (A): There are more laws on the books today than ever before, and more crimes are being committed than ever before.
Reason (R): Because to reduce crime, we must eliminate the laws.
Choose the correct answer from below:
(a) (A) is true, (R) is doubtful, and (R) is not the correct explanation of (A)
(b) (A) is false, (R) is true, and (R) is the correct explanation of (A)
(c) (A) is doubtful, (R) is doubtful, and (R) is not the correct explanation of (A)
(d) (A) is doubtful, (R) is true, and (R) is not the correct explanation of (A)
Q13. If the proposition ‘All men are not mortal’ is true, then which of the following inferences is correct? Choose from the code given below.
I. ‘All men are mortal’ is true.
II. ‘Some men are mortal’ is false.
III. ‘No men are mortal’ is doubtful.
IV. ‘All men are mortal’ is false.
(a) I, II, and – III (b) II, III, and IV
(c) I, III, and – IV (d) – I and III
Q14. Determine the nature of the following definition:
‘Abortion’ means the ruthless murdering of innocent beings.
(a) Lexical (b) Persuasive
(c) Stipulative (d) Theoretical
Q15. Which one of the following is not an argument?
(a) Devadutt does not eat in the day so he must be eating at night.
(b) If Devadutt is growing fat and if he does not eat during the day, then he will be eating at night.
(c) Devadutt eats in the night so he does not eat during the day.
(d) Since Devadutt does not eat in the day, he must be eating in the night.
Q16. Venn diagram is a kind of diagram to
(a) Represent and assess the validity of elementary inferences of syllogistic form
(b) Represent but not assess the validity of elementary inferences of syllogistic form
(c) Represent and assess the truth of elementary inferences of syllogistic form
(d) Assess but not represent the truth of elementary inferences of syllogistic form
Q17. Reasoning by analogy leads to
(b) Definite conclusion
(c) Predictive conjecture
Q18. Which of the following statements are false?
Choose from the code given below:
I. Inductive arguments always proceed from the particular to the general.
II. A cogent argument must be inductively strong.
III. A valid argument may have a false premise and a false conclusion.
IV. An argument may legitimately be spoken of as ‘true’ or ‘false’.
(a) II, III, and – IV (b) – I and III
(c) – II and – IV (d) – I and II
Q19. Six persons A, B, C, D, E, and F are standing in a circle.
B is between F and C, A is between E and D, and F is to the left of D.
Who is between A and F?
(a) B (b) C (c) D (d) E
Q20. The price of petrol increases by 25%. By what percentage must a customer reduce the consumption so that the earlier bill on the petrol does not alter?
(a) 20% (b) 25%
(c) 30% (d) 33.33%
Q21. If Ram knows that y is an integer greater than 2 and less than 7, and Hari knows that y is an integer greater than 5 and less than 10, then they may correctly conclude that
(a) y can be exactly determined
(b) y may be either of two values
(c) y may be any of three values
(d) There is no value of y satisfying these conditions
Q22. Four pipes can fill a reservoir in 15, 20, 30, and 60 h. The first one was opened at 6 am, second at 7 am, third at 8 am, and the fourth at 9 am. When will the reservoir be filled?
(a) 11 am (b) 12 noon
(c) 1 pm (d) 1:30 pm
Questions 23 and 24: The total electricity generation in a country is 97 GW. The contribution of various energy sources is indicated in terms of percentage in the pie chart given below.
Q23. What is the contribution of wind and solar power in absolute terms in the electricity generation?
(a) 6.79 GW (b) 19.4 GW
(c) 9.7 GW (d) 29.1 GW
Q24. What is the contribution of renewable energy sources in absolute terms in the electricity generation?
(a) 29.1 GW (b) 26.19 GW
(c) 67.9 GW (d) 97 GW
Q25. TCP/IP is necessary if one is to connect to the
(a) Phone lines (b) LAN
(c) The Internet (d) A server
Q26. Each character on the keyboard of computer has an ASCII value which stands for
(a) American Stock Code for Information Interchange
(b) American Standard Code for Information Interchange
(c) African Standard Code for Information Interchange
(d) Adaptable Standard Code for Information Change
Q27. Which of the following is not a programming language?
(a) Pascal (b) Microsoft Office
(c) Java (d) C+
Q28. Minimum number of bits required to store any three-digit decimal number is equal to
(a) 3 (b) 5 (c) 8 (d) 10
Q29. Internet explorer is a type of
(a) Operating system
(d) IP address
Q30. POP3 and IMAP are e-mail accounts in which
(a) One automatically gets one’s mail everyday
(b) One has to be connected to the server to read or write one’s mail
(c) One only has to be connected to the server to send and receive email
(d) One does not need any telephone lines
Q31. Irritation in eyes is caused by the pollutant
(a) Sulphur dioxide (b) Ozone
(c) PAN (d) Nitrous oxide
Q32. Which is the source of chlorofluorocarbons?
(a) Thermal power plants
(c) Refrigeration and air conditioning
Q33. Which of the following is not a renewable natural resource?
(a) Clean air (b) Fertile soil
(c) Fresh water (d) Salt
Q34. Which of the following parameters is not used as a pollution indicator in water?
(a) Total dissolved solids
(b) Coliform count
(c) Dissolved oxygen
Q35. S and P waves are associated with
(a) Floods (b) Wind energy
(c) Earthquakes (d) Tidal energy
Q36. Match Lists – I and – II and select the correct answer from the codes given below:
List – I List II
A Ozone hole – I Tsunami
B Greenhouse effect – II UV radiations
C Natural hazards – III Methane
D Sustainable development – IV Ecocentrism
(a) A-II, B-III, C-I, and D-IV
(b) A-III, B-II, C-I, and D-IV
(c) A-IV, B-III, C-I, and D-II
(d) A-IV, B-II, C-III, and D-I
Q37. Indian Institute of Advanced Study is located at
(a) Dharamshala (b) Shimla
(c) Solan (d) Chandigarh
Q38. Indicate the number of Regional Offices of National Council of Teacher Education.
(a) 04 (b) 05 (c) 06 (d) 08
Q39. Which of the following rights was considered the ‘Heart and Soul’ of the Indian Constitution by Dr. B. R. Ambedkar?
(a) Freedom of Speech
(b) Right to Equality
(c) Right to Freedom of Religion
(d) Right to Constitutional Remedies
Q40. Who among the following created the office of the District Collector in India?
(a) Lord Cornwallis
(b) Warren Hastings
(c) The Royal Commission on Decentralization
(d) Sir Charles Metcalfe
Q41. The fundamental duties of a citizen include
I. Respect for the Constitution, the National Flag, and the National Anthem
II. To develop the scientific temper
III. Respect for the Government
IV. To protect wildlife Choose the correct answer from the codes given below:
(a) I, II, and – III (b) I, II, and IV
(c) II, III, and – IV (d) I, III, IV, and II
Q42. The President of India takes oath
(a) To uphold the sovereignty and integrity of India
(b) To bear true faith and allegiance to the Constitution of India
(c) To uphold the Constitution and Laws of the country
(d) To preserve, protect, and defend the Constitution and the Laws of the country
Q43. If you get an opportunity to teach a visually challenged student along with normal students, what type of treatment would you like to give him in the class?
(a) Not giving extra attention because majority may suffer
(b) Take care of him sympathetically in the classroom
(c) You will think that blindness is his destiny and hence you cannot do anything
(d) Arrange a seat in the front row and try to teach at a pace convenient to him
Q44. Which of the following is not a characteristic of a good achievement test?
(a) Reliability (b) Objectivity
(c) Ambiguity (d) Validity
Q45. Which of the following does not belong to a projected aid?
(a) Overhead projector
(d) Slide projector
Q46. For a teacher, which of the following methods would be correct for writing on the blackboard?
(a) Writing fast and as clearly as possible
(b) Writing the matter first and then asking students to read it
(c) Asking a question to students and then writing the answer as stated by them
(d) Writing the important points as clearly as possible
Q47. A teacher can be successful if he/she
(a) Helps students in becoming better citizens
(b) Imparts subject knowledge to students
(c) Prepares students to pass the examination
(d) Presents the subject matter in a wellorganized manner
Q48. Dynamic approach to teaching means
(a) Teaching should be forceful and effective
(b) Teachers should be energetic and dynamic
(c) The topics of teaching should not be static, but dynamic
(d) The students should be required to learn through activities
Q49. The research that aims at immediate application is
(a) Action research
(b) Empirical research
(c) Conceptual research
(d) Fundamental research
Q50. When two or more successive footnotes refer to the same work, which one of the following expressions is used?
(a) ibid (b) et al.
(c) op. cit. (d) loc. cit.
Q51. Nine-year olds are taller than seven-year olds. This is an example of a reference drawn from
(a) Vertical study
(b) Cross-sectional study
(c) Time series study
(d) Experimental study
Q52. Conferences are meant for
(a) Multiple target groups
(b) Group discussions
(c) Showcasing new research
(d) All of the above
Q53. Ex post facto research means
(a) The research is carried out after the incident
(b) The research is carried out prior to the incident
(c) The research is carried out along with the happening of an incident
(d) The research is carried out keeping in mind the possibilities of an incident
Q54. Research ethics do not include
(a) Honesty (b) Subjectivity
(c) Integrity (d) Objectivity
Read the following passage carefully and answer the questions from 55 to 60:
James Madison said, ‘A people who mean to be their own governors must arm themselves with power that knowledge gives’. In India, the Official Secrets Act, 1923, was a convenient smokescreen to deny members of the public access to information. Public functioning has traditionally been shrouded in secrecy. However, in a democracy in which people govern themselves, it is necessary to have more openness. In the maturing of our democracy, right to information is a major step forward; it enables citizens to participate fully in the decision-making process that affects their lives so profoundly. It is in this context that the address of the Prime Minister in the Lok Sabha is significant. He said, ‘I would only like to see that everyone, particularly our civil servants, should see the Bill in a positive spirit; not as a draconian law for paralyzing Government but as an instrument for improving Government–Citizen interface resulting in a friendly, caring, and effective Government functioning for the good of our People’. He further said, ‘This is an innovative Bill, where there will be scope to review its functioning as we gain experience. Therefore, this is a piece of legislation, whose working will be kept under constant reviews’.
The Commission, in its report, has dealt with the application of the Right to Information in executive, legislature, and judiciary. The judiciary could be a pioneer in implementing the Act in letter and spirit because much of the work that the judiciary does is open to public scrutiny.
Government of India has sanctioned an e-governance project in the judiciary for about 700 crores, which would bring about systematic classification, standardization, and categorization of records. This would help the judiciary to fulfil its mandate under the Act. Similar capacity building would be required in all other public authorities. The transformation from non-transparency to transparency and public accountability is the responsibility of all three organs of the State.
Q55. A person gets power
(a) By acquiring knowledge
(b) From the Official Secrets Act, 1923
(c) Through openings
(d) By denying public information
Q56. Right to Information is a major step forward to
(a) Enable citizens to participate fully in the decision-making process
(b) To make the people aware of the Act
(c) To gain knowledge of administration
(d) To make the people government-friendly
Q57. The Prime Minister considered the Bill
(a) To provide power to the civil servants
(b) As an instrument for improving Government–citizen interface resulting in a friendly, caring, and effective Government
(c) A draconian law against the officials
(d) To check the harassment of the people
Q58. The Commission made the Bill effective by
(a) Extending power to the executive authorities
(b) Combining the executive and legislative power
(c) Recognizing Judiciary a pioneer in implementing the Act in letter and spirit
(d) Educating the people before its implementation
Q59. The Prime Minister considered the Bill innovative and hoped that
(a) It could be reviewed based on the experience gained on its functioning
(b) The civil servants would see the Bill in a positive spirit
(c) It would not be considered as a draconian law for paralyzing Government
(d) All of the above
Q60. The transparency and public accountability is the responsibility of three organs of the State. These three organs are
(a) Lok Sabha, Rajya Sabha, and Judiciary
(b) Lok Sabha, Rajya Sabha, and Executive
(c) Judiciary, Legislature, and the Commission
(d) Legislature, Executive, and Judiciary