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Paper 1 December 2013 – UGC NTA NET JRF Solved Previous Year Paper

Paper 1 December 2013 – UGC NTA NET JRF Solved Previous Year Paper

Q1. Which is the main objective of research?
(a) To review the literature
(b) To summarize what is already known
(c) To get an academic degree
(d) To discover new facts or to make fresh interpretation of known facts
Ans: (d)
Q2. Sampling error decreases with the
(a) Decrease in sample size
(b) Increase in sample size
(c) Process of randomization
(d) Process of analysis
Ans: (b)
Q3. The principles of fundamental research are used in
(a) Action research
(b) Applied research
(c) Philosophical research
(d) Historical research
Ans: (b)
Q4. Users who use media for their own ends are identified as
(a) Passive audience (b) Active audience
(c) Positive audience (d) Negative audience
Ans: (b)
Q5. Classroom communication can be described as
(a) Exploration
(b) Institutionalization
(c) Unsignified narration
(d) Discourse
Ans: (d)
Q6. Ideological codes shape our collective
(a) Productions (b) Perceptions
(c) Consumptions (d) Creations
Ans: (b)
Q7. In communication, myths have power, but are
(a) Uncultural (b) Insignificant
(c) Imprecise (d) Unpreferred
Ans: (c)
Q8. The first multi-lingual news agency of India was
(a) Samachar
(b) API
(c) Hindustan Samachar
(d) Samachar Bharati
Ans: (c)
Q9. Organizational communication can also be equated with
(a) Intra-personal communication
(b) Inter-personal communication
(c) Group communication
(d) Mass communication
Ans: (c)
Q10. If two propositions having the same subject and predicate terms are such that one is the denial of the other, then the relationship between them is called
(a) Contradictory (b) Contrary
(c) Sub-contrary (d) Sub-alternation
Ans: (a)
Q11. Ananya and Krishna can speak and follow English. Bulbul can write and speak Hindi as Archana does. Archana talks with Ananya also in Bengali. Krishna can not follow Bengali.
Bulbul talks with Ananya in Hindi.
Who can speak and follow English, Hindi, and Bengali?
(a) Archana (b) Bulbul
(c) Ananya (d) Krishna
Ans: (c)
Q12. A stipulative definition may be said to be
(a) Always true
(b) Always false
(c) Sometimes true, sometimes false
(d) Neither true nor false
Ans: (d)
Q13. When the conclusion of an argument follows from its premise(s) conclusively, then the argument is called
(a) Circular argument
(b) Inductive argument
(c) Deductive argument
(d) Analogical argument
Ans: (c)
Q14. Saturn and Mars are planets like the Earth.
They borrow light from the Sun and moves around the Sun as the Earth does. So those planets are inhabited by various orders of creatures as the Earth.
What type of argument is contained in the above passage?
(a) Deductive (b) Astrological
(c) Analogical (d) Mathematical
Ans: (c)
Following table provides details about the Foreign Tourist Arrivals (FTAs) in India from different regions of the world in different years. Study the table carefully and answer the Questions from 16 to 19 based on this table.

Region200720082009
Western Europe168608317995251610086
North America100727610272971024469
South Asia9824281051846982633
South East Asia303475332925348495
East Asia352037355230318292
West Asia171661215542201110
Total FTAs in India508150452826035108579

Q15. Given below are two premises. Four conclusions are drawn from those two premises in four codes. Select the code that states the conclusion validly drawn.
Premises:
(i) All saints are religious. (major)
(ii) Some honest persons are saints. (minor)
Codes:
(a) All saints are honest.
(b) Some saints are honest.
(c) Some honest persons are religious.
(d) All religious persons are honest.
Ans: (c)
Q16. Find out the region that contributed around 20 percent of the total foreign tourist arrivals in India in 2009.
(a) Western Europe (b) North America
(c) South Asia (d) South East Asia
Ans: (b)
Q17. Which of the following regions has recorded the highest negative growth rate of foreign tourist arrivals in India in 2009?
(a) Western Europe (b) North America
(c) South Asia (d) West Asia
Ans: (a)
Q18. Find out the region that has been showing declining trend in terms of share of foreign tourist arrivals in India in 2008 and 2009.
(a) Western Europe (b) South East Asia
(c) East Asia (d) West Asia
Ans: (c)
Q19. Identify the region that has shown hyper growth rate of foreign tourist arrivals than the growth rate of the total FTAs in India in 2008.
(a) Western Europe (b) North America
(c) South Asia (d) East Asia
Ans: (c)
Q20. The post-industrial society is designated as
(a) Information society
(b) Technology society
(c) Mediated society
(d) Non-agricultural society
Ans: (a)
Q21. The initial efforts for internet based communication was for
(a) Commercial communication
(b) Military purposes
(c) Personal interaction
(d) Political campaigns
Ans: (b)
Q22. Internal communication within institutions (Continued) is done through
(a) LAN (b) WAN
(c) EBB (d) MMS
Ans: (a)
Q23. Virtual reality provides
(a) Sharp pictures
(b) Individual audio
(c) Participatory experience
(d) Preview of new films
Ans: (c)
Q24. The first virtual university of India came up in
(a) Andhra Pradesh
(b) Maharashtra
(c) Uttar Pradesh
(d) Tamil Nadu
Ans: (d)
Q25. Arrange the following books in chronological order in which they appeared. Use the code given below:
(i) Limits to Growth
(ii) Silent Spring
(iii) Our Common Future
(iv) Resourceful Earth
Codes:
(a) (i), (iii), (iv), (ii)
(b) (ii), (iii), (i), (iv)
(c) (ii), (i), (iii), (iv)
(d) (i), (ii), (iii), (iv)
Q26. Which one of the following continents is at a greater risk of desertification?
(a) Africa (b) Asia
(c) South America (d) North America
Ans: (a)
Q27. ‘Women are closer to nature than men’.
What kind of perspective is this?
(a) Realist (b) Essentialist
(c) Feminist (d) Deep ecology
Ans: (b)
Q28. Which one of the following is not a matter of a global concern in the removal of tropical forests?
(a) Their ability to absorb the chemicals that contribute to depletion of ozone layer.
(b) Their role in maintaining the oxygen and carbon balance of the earth.
(c) Their ability to regulate surface and air temperatures, moisture content, and reflectivity.
(d) Their contribution to the biological diversity of the planet.
Ans: (a)
Q29. The most comprehensive approach to address the problems of man–environment interaction is one of the following:
(a) Natural Resource Conservation Approach
(b) Urban-industrial Growth-oriented Approach
(c) Rural-agricultural Growth-oriented Approach
(d) Watershed Development Approach
Ans: (d)
Q30. The major source of the pollutant gas, carbon mono-oxide (CO), in urban areas is
(a) Thermal power sector
(b) Transport sector
(c) Industrial sector
(d) Domestic sector
Ans: (b)
Q31. In a fuel cell-driven vehicle, the energy is obtained from the combustion of
(a) Methane (b) Hydrogen
(c) LPG (d) CNG
Ans: (b)
Q32. Which one of the following Councils has been disbanded in 2013?
(a) Distance Education Council (DEC)
(b) National Council for Teacher Education (NCTE)
(c) National Council of Educational Research and Training (NCERT)
(d) National Assessment and Accreditation Council (NAAC)
Ans: (a)
Q33. Which of the following statements are correct about the National Assessment and Accreditation Council?
(i) It is an autonomous institution.
(ii) It is tasked with the responsibility of assessing and accrediting institutions of higher education.
(iii) It is located in Delhi.
(iv) It has regional offices.
Select the correct answer from the codes given below:
Codes:
(a) (i) and (iii) (b) (i) and (ii)
(c) (i), (ii), and (iv) (d) (ii), (iii), and (iv)
Ans: (b)
Q34. The power of the Supreme Court of India to decide disputes between two or more States falls under its
(a) Advisory Jurisdiction
(b) Appellate Jurisdiction
(c) Original Jurisdiction
(d) Writ Jurisdiction
Ans: (c)
Q35. Which of the following statements are correct?
(i) There are seven Union Territories in India.
(ii) Two Union Territories have Legislative Assemblies
(iii) One Union Territory has a High Court.
(iv) One Union Territory is the capital of two States.
Codes:
(a) (i) and (iii) only
(b) (ii) and (iv) only
(c) (ii), (iii), and (iv) only
(d) (i), (ii), (iii), and (iv)
Ans: (d)
Q36. Which of the following statements are correct about the Central Information Commission?
(i) The Central Information Commission is a statutory body.
(ii) The Chief Information Commissioner and other Information Commissioners are appointed by the President of India.
(iii) The Commission can impose a penalty upto a maximum of `25,000/-
(iv) It can punish an errant officer.
Select the correct answer from the codes given below:
Codes:
(a) (i) and (ii) only
(b) (i), (ii), and (iv)
(c) (i), (ii), and (iii)
(d) (ii), (iii), and (iv)
Ans: (c)
Q37. Who among the following conducted the CNN-IBN–The Hindu 2013 Election Tracker Survey across 267 constituencies in 18 States?
(a) The Centre for the Study of Developing Societies (CSDS)
(b) The Association for Democratic Reforms (ADR)
(c) CNN and IBN
(d) CNN, IBN and The Hindu
Ans: (a)
Q38. In a certain code, ‘TEACHER’ is written as ‘VGCEJGT’. Then, the code of ‘CHILDREN’ will be
(a) EKNJFTGP (b) EJKNFTGP
(c) KNJFGTP (d) None of these
Ans: (b)
Q39. A person has to buy both apples and mangoes.
The cost of one apple is `7, whereas that of a mango is `5. If the person has `38, the number of apples he can buy is
(a) 1 (b) 2 (c) 3 (d) 4
Ans: (d)
Q40. A man pointing to a lady said, “The son of her only brother is the brother of my wife”.
The lady is related to the man as
(a) Mother’s sister
(b) Grand mother
(c) Mother-in-law
(d) Sister of Father-in-law
Ans: (d)
Q41. In this series 6, 4, 1, 2, 2, 8, 7, 4, 2, 1, 5, 3, 8, 6, 2, 2, 7, 1, 4, 1, 3, 5, 8, 6, how many pairs of successive numbers have a difference of 2 each?
(a) 4 (b) 5 (c) 6 (d) 8
Ans: (c)
Q42. The mean marks obtained by a class of 40 students is 65. The mean marks of half of the students is found to be 45. The mean marks of the remaining students is
(a) 85 (b) 60
(c) 70 (d) 65
Ans: (a)
Q43. Anil is twice as old as Sunita. Three years ago, he was three times as old as Sunita. The present age of Anil is
(a) 6 years (b) 8 years
(c) 12 years (d) 16 years
Ans: (c)
Q44. Which of the following is a social network?
(a) amazon.com (b) eBay
(c) gmail.com (d) Twitter
Ans: (d)
Q45. The population information is called parameter, whereas the corresponding sample information is known as
(a) Universe (b) Inference
(c) Sampling design (d) Statistics
Ans: (d)
Read the following passage carefully and answer the Questions from 46 to 51:
Heritage conservation practices improved worldwide after the International Centre for the Study of the Preservation and Restoration of Cultural Property (ICCROM) was established with UNESCO’s assistance in 1959. The intergovernmental organization with 126 member states has done a commendable job by training more than 4000 professionals, providing practice standards, and sharing technical expertise. In this golden jubilee year, as we acknowledge its key role in global conservation, an assessment of international practices would be meaningful to the Indian conservation movement. Consistent investment, rigorous attention, and dedicated research and dissemination are some of the positive lessons to imbibe. Countries like Italy have demonstrated that prioritizing heritage with significant budget provision pays. On the other hand, India, which is no less endowed in terms of cultural capital, has a long way to go. Surveys indicate that in addition to the 6600 protected monuments, there are over 60,000 equally valuable heritage structures that await attention. Besides the small group in the service of Archaeological Survey of India, there are only about 150 trained conservation professionals. In order to overcome this severe shortage, the emphasis has been on setting up dedicated labs and training institutions.
It would make much better sense for conservation to be made part of mainstream research and engineering institutes, as has been done in Europe.
Increasing funding and building institutions are the relatively easy part. The real challenge is to redefine international approaches to address local contexts. Conservation cannot limit itself to enhancing the art-historical value of the heritage structures, which international charters perhaps overemphasize. The effort has to be broad-based:
It must also serve as a means of improving the quality of life in the area where the heritage structures are located. The first task, therefore, is to integrate conservation efforts with sound development plans that take care of people living in the heritage vicinity. Unlike in western countries, many traditional building crafts survive in India, and conservation practices offer an avenue to support them. This has been acknowledged by the Indian National Trust for Art and Cultural Heritage charter for conservation but is yet to receive substantial state support. More strength for heritage conservation can be mobilized by aligning it with the green building movement.
Heritage structures are essentially eco-friendly and conservation could become a vital part of the sustainable building practices campaign in future.
Q46. The outlook for conservation heritage changed
(a) After the establishment of the International Centre for the Study of the Preservation and Restoration of Cultural Property
(b) After training the specialists in the field
(c) After extending UNESCO’s assistance to the educational institutions
(d) After ASI’s measures to protect the monuments
Ans: (a)
Q47. The inter-government organization was appreciated because of
(a) Increasing number of members to 126
(b) Imparting training to professionals and sharing technical expertise
(c) Consistent investment in conservation
(d) Its proactive role in renovation and restoration
Ans: (b)
Q48. Indian conservation movement will be successful if there would be
(a) Financial support from the Government of India
(b) Non-governmental organizations, role and participation in the conservation movement
(c) consistent investment, rigorous attention, and dedicated research and dissemination of awareness for conservation
(d) Archaeological Survey of India’s meaningful assistance
Ans: (c)
Q49. As per the surveys of historical monuments in India, there is very small number of protected monuments. As per the given total number of monuments and enlisted number of protected monuments, percentage comes to
(a) 10 per cent (b) 11 per cent
(c) 12 per cent (d) 13 per cent
Ans: (a)
Q50. What should India learn from Europe to conserve our cultural heritage?
(i) There should be significant budget provision to conserve our cultural heritage.
(ii) Establish dedicated labs and training institutions.
(iii) Force the government to provide sufficient funds.
(iv) Conservation should be made part of mainstream research and engineering institutes.
Choose correct answer from the codes given below:
(a) (i), (ii), (iii), and (iv) (b) (i), (ii), and (iv)
(c) (i) and (ii) (d) (i), (iii), and (iv)
Ans: (b)
Q51. INTACH is known for its contribution for conservation of our cultural heritage. The full form of INTACH is
(a) International Trust for Art and Cultural Heritage
(b) Intra-national Trust for Art and Cultural Heritage
(c) Integrated Trust for Art and Cultural Heritage
(d) Indian National Trust for Art and Cultural Heritage
Ans: (d)
Q52. While delivering lecture if there is some disturbance in the class, a teacher should
(a) Keep quiet for a while and then continue.
(b) Punish those causing disturbance.
(c) Motivate to teach those causing disturbance.
(d) Not bother of what is happening in the class.
Ans: (c)
Q53. Effective teaching is a function of
(a) Teacher’s satisfaction
(b) Teacher’s honesty and commitment
(c) Teacher’s making students learn and understand
(d) Teacher’s liking for professional excellence
Ans: (c)
Q54. The most appropriate meaning of learning is
(a) Acquisition of skills
(b) Modification of behaviour
(c) Personal adjustment
(d) Inculcation of knowledge
Ans: (b)
Q55. Arrange the following teaching process in order:
(i) Relate the present knowledge with previous one
(ii) Evaluation
(iii) Reteaching
(iv) Formulating instructional objectives
(v) Presentation of instructional materials
Codes:
(a) (i), (ii), (iii), (iv), (v)
(b) (ii), (i), (iii), (iv), (v)
(c) (v), (iv), (iii), (i), (ii)
(d) (iv), (i), (v), (ii), (iii)
Ans: (d)
Q56. CIET stands for
(a) Centre for Integrated Education and Technology
(b) Central Institute for Engineering and Technology
(c) Central Institute for Education Technology
(d) Centre for Integrated Evaluation Techniques
Ans: (c)
Q57. Teacher’s role at higher education level is to
(a) Provide information to students
(b) Promote self learning in students
(c) Encourage healthy competition among students
(d) Help students to solve their problems
Ans: (b)
Q58. The Verstehen School of Understanding was popularized by
(a) German Social Scientists
(b) American Philosophers
(c) British Academicians
(d) Italian Political Analysts
Ans: (a)
Q59. The sequential operations in scientific research are
(a) Co-variation, Elimination of Spurious Relations, Generalization, and Theorization
(b) Generalization, Co-variation, Theorization, and Elimination of Spurious Relations
(c) Theorization, Generalization, and Elimination of Spurious Relations, Covariation
(d) Elimination of Spurious Relations, The-orization, and Generalization, Covariation
Ans: (a)
Q60. In sampling, the lottery method is used for
(a) Interpretation (b) Theorization
(c) Conceptualization (d) Randomization
Ans: (d)

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