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Paper 1 December 2012 – UGC NTA NET JRF Solved Previous Year Paper

Paper 1 December 2012 – UGC NTA NET JRF Solved Previous Year Paper

Q1. The English word communication is derived from the words
(a) Communis and communicare
(b) Communist and commune
(c) Communism and communalism
(d) Communion and common sense
Ans: (a)
Q2. Chinese Cultural Revolution leader Mao Zedong used a type of communication to talk to the masses known as
(a) Mass line communication
(b) Group communication
(c) Participatory communication
(d) Dialogue communication
Ans: (a)
Q3. Conversing with the spirits and ancestors is termed as
(a) Transpersonal communication
(b) Intrapersonal communication
(c) Interpersonal communication
(d) Face-to-face communication
Ans: (a)
Q4. The largest circulated daily newspaper among the following is
(a) The Times of India
(b) The Indian Express
(c) The Hindu
(d) The Deccan Herald
Ans: (a)
Q5. The pioneer of silent feature film in India was
(a) K. A. Abbas (b) Satyajit Ray
(c) B. R. Chopra (d) Dadasaheb Phalke
Ans: (d)
Q6. Classroom communication of a teacher rests on the principle of
(a) Infotainment (b) Edutainment
(c) Entertainment (d) Power equation
Ans: (b)
Q7. The missing number in the series 0, 6, 24, 60, 120, ?, 336, is
(a) 240 (b) 220 (c) 280 (d) 210
Ans: (d)
Q8. A group of 7 members having a majority of boys is to be formed out of 6 boys and 4 girls. The number of ways the group can be formed is
(a) 80 (b) 100 (c) 90 (d) 110
Ans: (b)
Q9. The number of observations in a group is 40. The average of the first 10 members is 4.5, and the average of the remaining 30 members is 3.5. The average of the whole group is
(a) 4 (b) 15/2 (c) 15/4 (d) 6
Ans: (c)
Q10. If ‘MOHAN’ is represented by the code ‘KMFYL’, then ‘COUNT’ will be represented by
(a) AMSLR (b) MSLAR
(c) MASRL (d) SAMLR
Ans: (a)
Q11. The sum of the ages of two persons A and
B is 50. Five years ago, the ratio of their ages was 5:3. The present age of A and
B are
(a) 30 and 20 (b) 35 and 15
(c) 38 and 12 (d) 40 and10
Ans: (a)
Q12. Let A mean minus (-), B mean multiplied by (×), C mean divided by (÷), and D mean plus (+). The value of 90 D 9 A 29 C 10 B 2 is
(a) 8 (b) 10 (c) 12 (d) 14
Ans: (d)
Q13. Consider the Assertion – I and Assertion – II and select the right code given below.
Assertion I: Even bank lockers are not safe. Thieves can break them and take away your wealth. However, thieves cannot go to heaven. So, you should keep your wealth in heaven.
Assertion II: The difference in skin colour of living beings is because of the distance from the sun and not because of some permanent traits. Skin colour is the result of body’s reaction to the sun and its rays.
Codes:
(a) Both the assertions are forms of argument.
(b) Assertion – I is an argument, but Assertion – II is not.
(c) Assertion – II is an argument, but Assertion – I is not.
(d) Both the assertions are explanations of facts.
Ans: (b)
Q14. By which of the following proposition, the proposition, some men are not honest, is contradicted?
(a) All men are honest.
(b) Some men are honest.
(c) No men are honest.
(d) All of the above
Ans: (a)
Q15. A stipulative definition is
(a) Always true
(b) Always false
(c) Sometimes true sometimes false
(d) Neither true nor false
Ans: (c)
Q16. Choose the appropriate alternative given in the codes to replace the question mark.
Examiner examinee, Pleader client, Preceptor ?
(a) Customer (b) Pathfinder
(c) Perceiver (d) Disciple
Ans: (d)
Q17. If the statement, most of the students are obedient, is taken to be true, which one of the following pair of statements can be claimed to be true?
I. All obedient persons are students.
II. All students are obedient.
III. Some students are obedient.
IV. Some students are not disobedient.
Codes:
(a) – I and – II (b) – II and III
(c) – III and – IV (d) – II and IV
Ans: (c)
Q18. Choose the right code:
A deductive argument claims that:
I. The conclusion does not claim something more than that is contained in the premises.
II. The conclusion is supported by the premise or premises conclusively.
III. If the conclusion is false, then premise or premises may be either true or false.
IV. If premise or combination of premises is or are true, then conclusion must be true.
Codes:
(a) – I and – II (b) – I and III
(c) – II and – III (d) All of the above
Ans: (a)
Government Expenditures on Social Services (as per cent of total expenditure)

Sl. No.Items2007–082008–092009–102010–11
Social services11.0612.9413.0614.02
(a)Education, sports, and youth affairs4.024.043.964.46
(b)Health and family welfare2.051.911.902.03
(c)Water supply, housing, etc.2.022.312.202.27
(d)Information and broadcasting0.220.220.200.22
(e)Welfare of SC/ST and OBC0.360.350.410.63
(f)Labour and employment0.270.270.220.25
(g)Social welfare and nutrition0.820.720.791.06
(h)North-eastern areas0.001.561.501.75
(i)Other social services1.291.551.871.34
Total government expenditure100.00100.00100.00100.00

Q19. How many activities of social services have shown the expenditure to be less than 5% of the total expenditures incurred on social services in 2008–2009?
(a) One (b) Three
(c) Five (d) All of the above
Ans: (b)
Q20. In which year, the expenditures on social services increased with the highest rate?
(a) 20072008 (b) 20082009
(c) 20092010 (d) 20102011
Ans: (b)
Q21. Which of the following activities remain almost stagnant in terms of shares of expenditure?
(a) North-eastern areas
(b) Welfare of SC/ST and OBC
(c) Information and broadcasting
(d) Social welfare and nutrition
Ans: (c)
Q22. Which of the following item’s expenditure share is almost equal to the remaining three items in the given years?
(a) Information and broadcasting
(b) Welfare of SC/ST and OBC
(c) Labour and employment
(d) Social welfare and nutrition
Ans: (d)
Q23. Which of the following items of social services have registered the highest rate of increase in expenditure during 20072008 to 20102011?
(a) Education, sports, and youth affairs
(b) Welfare of SC/ST and OBC
(c) Social welfare and nutrition
(d) Overall social services
Ans: (b)
Q24. Which of the following items have registered the highest rate of decline in terms of expenditure during 20072008 to 20092010?
(a) Labour and employment
(b) Health and family welfare
(c) Social welfare and nutrition
(d) Education, sports, and youth affairs
Ans: (a)
Q25. ALU stands for
(a) American Logic Unit
(b) Alternate Local Unit
(c) Alternating Logic Unit
(d) Arithmetic Logic Unit
Ans: (d)
Q26. A personal computer uses a number of chips mounted on a circuit board called
(a) Microprocessor (b) System board
(c) Daughter board (d) Mother board
Ans: (d)
Q27. Computer virus is a
(a) Hardware (b) Bacteria
(c) Software (d) None of the above
Ans: (c)
Q28. Which one of the following is correct?
(a) (17)10 =(17)16 (b) (17)10 =(17)8
(c) (17)10 =(10111)2 (d) (17)10 =(10001)2
Ans: (d)
Q29. The file extension of MS-Word document in Office 2007 is __________
(a) .pdf (b) .doc (c) .docx (d) .txt
Ans: (c)
Q30. __________ is a protocol used by e-mail clients to download e-mails to your computer
(a) TCP (b) FTP
(c) SMTP (d) POP
Ans: (d)
Q31. Which of the following is a source of methane?
(a) Wetlands
(b) Foam industry
(c) Thermal power plants
(d) Cement industry
Ans: (a)
Q32. Minamata disease in Japan was caused by pollution due to
(a) Lead (b) Mercury
(c) Cadmium (d) Zinc
Ans: (b)
Q33. Biomagnification means increase in the
(a) Concentration of pollutants in living organisms
(b) Number of species
(c) Size of living organisms
(d) Biomass
Ans: (a)
Q34. Nagoya Protocol is related to
(a) Climate change (b) Ozone depletion
(c) Hazardous waste (d) Biodiversity
Ans: (d)
Q35. The second most important source after fossil fuels contributing to India’s energy needs is
(a) Solar energy (b) Nuclear energy
(c) Hydropower (d) Wind energy
Ans: (c)
Q36. In case of earthquakes, an increase in magnitude 1 on Richter scale implies
(a) A ten-fold increase in the amplitude of seismic waves
(b) A ten-fold increase in the energy of the seismic waves
(c) A two-fold increase in the amplitude of seismic waves
(d) A two-fold increase in the energy of seismic waves
Ans: (a)
Q37. Which of the following is not a measure of human development index?
(a) Literacy rate (b) Gross enrolment
(c) Sex ratio (d) Life expectancy
Ans: (c)
Q38. India has the highest number of students in colleges after
(a) UK (b) USA
(c) Australia (d) Canada
Ans: (b)
Q39. Which of the following statement(s) is/are not correct about the Attorney General of India?
I. The President appoints a person, who is qualified to be a judge of a High Court, to be the Attorney General of India.
II. He has the right of audience in all the courts of the country.
III. He has the right to take part in the proceedings of the Lok Sabha and the Rajya Sabha.
IV. He has a fixed tenure.
Select the correct answer from the codes given below:
Codes:
(a) – I and – IV (b) II, III, and IV
(c) – III and – IV (d) – III only
Ans: (a)
Q40. Which of the following prefixes President Pranab Mukherjee desires to discontinue while interacting with Indian dignitaries as well as in official notings?
I. His Excellency
II. Mahamahim
III. Hon’ble
IV. Shri/Smt Select the correct answer from the codes given below:
Codes:
(a) – I and – III (b) – II and III
(c) – I and – II (d) I, II, and III
Ans: (c)
Q41. Which of the following can be done under conditions of financial emergency?
I. State Legislative Assemblies can be abolished.
II. Central government can acquire control over the budget and expenditure of states.
III. Salaries of the judges of High Courts and the Supreme Court can be reduced.
IV. Right to constitutional remedies can be suspended.
Select the correct answer from the codes given below:
Codes:
(a) I, II, and – III (b) II, III, and IV
(c) – I and – II (d) – II and III
Ans: (d)
Q42. Match List – I with List – II and select the correct answer from the codes given below:
List – I List II
A Poverty Reduction Programme – I Mid-day Meals List – I List II
B Human Development Scheme – II Indira Awaas Yojana (IAY)
C Social Assistance Scheme – III National Old Age Pension (NOAP)
D Minimum Need Scheme – IV MNREGA
Codes:
(a) A-IV, B-I, C-III, and D-II
(b) A-II, B-III, C-IV, and D-I
(c) A-III, B-IV, C-I, and D-II
(d) A-IV, B-III, C-II, and D-I
Ans: (a)
Q43. For an efficient and durable learning, learner should have
(a) Ability to learn only
(b) Requisite level of motivation only
(c) Opportunities to learn only
(d) Desired level of ability and motivation
Ans: (d)
Q44. Classroom communication must be
(a) Teacher-centric (b) Student-centric
(c) General-centric (d) Textbook-centric
Ans: (b)
Q45. The best method of teaching is to
(a) Impart information
(b) Ask students to read books
(c) Suggest good reference material
(d) Initiate a discussion and participate in it
Ans: (d)
Q46. Interaction inside the classroom should generate
(a) Argument (b) Information
(c) Ideas (d) Controversy
Ans: (c)
Q47. ‘Spare the rod and spoil the child’ gives the message that
(a) Punishment in the class should be banned
(b) Corporal punishment is not acceptable
(c) Undesirable behaviour must be punished
(d) Children should be beaten with rods
Ans: (c)
Q48. The type of communication that a teacher has in the classroom is termed as
(a) Interpersonal
(b) Mass communication
(c) Group communication
(d) Face-to-face communication
Ans: (c)
Q49. Which of the following is an indication of the quality of a research journal?
(a) Impact factor (b) h-index
(c) g-index (d) i10-index
Ans: (a)
Q50. Good research ethics means
(a) Not disclosing the holdings of shares or stocks in a company that sponsors your research
(b) Assigning a particular research problem to one PhD or research student only
(c) Discussing with your colleagues confidential data from a research paper that you are reviewing for an academic journal
(d) Submitting the same research manuscript for publishing in more than one journal
Ans: (b)
Q51. Which of the following sampling methods is based on probability?
(a) Convenience sampling
(b) Quota sampling
(c) Judgement sampling
(d) Stratified sampling
Ans: (d)
Q52. Which one of the following references is written according to American Psychological Association (APA) format?
(a) Sharma, V. (2010). Fundamentals of Computer Science. New Delhi: Tata McGraw Hill
(b) Sharma, V. 2010. Fundamentals of Computer Science. New Delhi: Tata McGraw Hill
(c) Sharma, V. 2010. Fundamentals of Computer Science, New Delhi: Tata McGraw Hill
(d) Sharma, V. (2010), Fundamentals of Computer Science, New Delhi: Tata McGraw Hill
Ans: (a)
Q53. Arrange the following steps of research in correct sequence:
I. Identification of research problem
II. Listing of research objectives
III. Collection of data
IV. Methodology
V. Data analysis
VI. Results and discussion
Codes:
(a) I, II, III, IV, V, and VI
(b) I, II, III, IV, V, and VI
(c) II, I, III, IV, V, and VI
(d) II, I, IV, III, V, and VI
Ans: (b)
Q54. Identify the incorrect statement.
(a) A hypothesis is made on the basis of limited evidence as a starting point for further investigations.
(b) A hypothesis is a basis for reasoning without any assumption of its truth.
(c) A hypothesis is a proposed explanation for a phenomenon.
(d) A scientific hypothesis is a scientific theory.
Ans: (d)
Read the following passage carefully and answer the questions from 55 to 60.
The popular view of towns and cities in developing countries and of urbanization process is that despite the benefits and comforts it brings, the emergence of such cities connotes environmental degradation, generation of slums and squatters, urban poverty, unemployment, crimes, lawlessness, traffic chaos, and so on.
But what is the reality? Given the unprecedented increase in urban population over the past 50 years from 300 million in 1950 to 2 billion in 2000 in developing countries, the wonder is how well the world has coped and not how badly.
In general, the urban quality of life has improved in terms of availability of water and sanitation, power, health and education, communication, and transport. By way of illustration, a large number of urban residents have been provided with improved water in urban areas in Asia’s largest countries such as China, India, Indonesia, and Philippines. Despite that, the access to improved water in terms of percentage of total urban population seems to have declined during the past decade of 20th century, although in absolute numbers, millions of additional urbanites have been provided improved services. These countries have made significant progress in the provision of sanitation services too, together, providing for an additional population of more than 293 million citizens within a decade (19902000). These improvements must be viewed against the backdrop of rapidly increasing urban population, fiscal crunch, and strained human resources and efficient and quality-oriented public management.
Q55. The popular view about the process of urbanization in developing countries is
(a) Positive (b) Negative
(c) Neutral (d) Unspecified
Ans: (b)
Q56. The average annual increase in the number of urbanites in developing countries, from 1950 to 2000 AD, was close to
(a) 30 million (b) 40 million
(c) 50 million (d) 60 million
Ans: (a)
Q57. The reality of urbanization is reflected in
(a) How well the situation has been managed
(b) How badly the situation has gone out of control
(c) How fast has been the tempo of urbanization
(d) How fast the environment has degraded
Ans: (a)
Q58. Which one of the following is not considered as an indicator of urban quality of life?
(a) Tempo of urbanization
(b) Provision of basic services
(c) Access to social amenities
(d) All of the above
Ans: (a)
Q59. The author in this passage has tried to focus on
(a) Extension of knowledge
(b) Generation of environmental consciousness
(c) Analytical reasoning
(d) Descriptive statement
Ans: (c)
Q60. In the above passage, the author intends to state
(a) The hazards of the urban life
(b) The sufferings of the urban life
(c) The awareness of human progress
(d) The limits of growth
Ans: (d)

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