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Law UGC NTA NET JRF Previous Year Papers June 2015 PAPER-III

Law UGC NTA NET JRF Previous Year Papers June 2015 PAPER-III

1. Through 42nd Amendment to the constitution which of the following ‘Expressions’ were added to the Preamble?
(a) Sovereign (b) Socialist
(c) Secular (d) Integrity
Codes:
A. Only (a), (b) and (c)
B. Only (b), (c) and (d)
C. Only (a), (c) and (d)
D. (a), (b), (c) and (d)
ANS: B

2. Match List-I with List-II and give the correct answer by using the codes given below the lists:
List-I List-II
(a) Compensation to persons killed in“Fake Encounter (i) Delhi Domestic working women’s” forum vs. Union of India
(b) Compensation to Rape Victims (ii) Bodhisathwa Gautam vs. Shubhra Chakraborty
(c) Interim Compen sation to Rape Victims (iii) People’s Union for Civil liberties vs. Union of India
(d) Protection against.illegal arrest, detentions and custodial deaths. (iv) Joginder Kumar vs. State of U.P
Codes:
(a) (b) (c) (d)
A. (iv) (iii) (ii) (i)
B. (iii) (i) (ii) (iv)
C. (ii) (iv) (i) (iii)
D. (i) (ii) (iii) (iv)
ANS: B

3. Match List-I with List-II and give the correct answer by using the codes given below the Lists:
List-I List-II
(a) Right to speak includes Right not to speak (i) R. Rajagopal vs.State of T.N.
(b) Government has no monopoly on electronic media (ii) Tata Press Ltd. vs.
Mahanagar Telephone Nigam Ltd.
(c) Commercial Advertisement is part of Freedom of Speech and Expression (iii) Secretary, Ministry I and B vs. Cricket Association of Bengal (W.B.)
(d) Government cannot Kerala impose prior restraint on publication of defamatory material against its officials (iv) Bijoe Emmanuel vs. State of
Codes:
(a) (b) (c) (d)
A. (iv) (iii) (ii) (i)
B. (iii) (ii) (i) (iv)
C. (i) (iv) (iii) (ii)
D. (ii) (i) (iv) (iii)
ANS: A

4. Which of the following statement/statements is/are correct?
(a) Fundamental Rights are not absolute.
They are subject to reasonable restrictions.
(b) Freedom of Press is implict in Article 19 of the Constitution
(c) Socially and economically backward classes of persons are entitled to get benefit under clause (4) of Article 15 of the Constitution
(d) ‘Equal protection of laws’ under Article 14 of the constitution is based upon English law
Codes:
A. Only (a) and (b) are correct
B. (a), (b) and (c) are correct
C. (c) and (d) are correct
D. (a), (b), (c), (d) all are correct
ANS: A

5. Match List-I with List-II and give the correct answer by using the codes given below the lists:
List-I List-II
(a) Parliamentary Form of Government (i) The U.S.A.Constitution
(b) Directive Principles of State Policy (ii) German Constitution
(c) Fundamental Rights (iii) United Kingdom Constitution
(d) Emergency Provisions (iv) Constitution of Ireland
Codes:
(a) (b) (c) (d)
A. (iv) (iii) (i) (ii)
B. (iii) (iv) (i) (ii)
C. (i) (ii) (iii) (iv)
D. (ii) (i) (iv) (iii)
ANS: B

6. In which of the following cases the Supreme Court held that Art. 31-C was beyond the amending power of the parliament and was void since it destroyed the basic features of the constitution. The court observed that the constitution is founded on the bedrock of the balance between Part III and Part IV. To give absolute primary to one over the other is to disturb the harmony of the constitution which is essential feature of the Basic Structure.
A. Minerva Mills vs. Union of India
B. In Re Kerala Education Bill Case
C. Keshavananda Bharati vs. State of Kerala
D. Sarla Mudgal vs. Union of India
ANS: A

7. Match List-I with List-II and give the correct answer by using the codes given below the lists:
List-I List-II
(a) Original Jurisdiction (i) Article 143 of the Supreme Court
(b) Advisory Jurisdiction (ii) Article 136
(c) Appeal by Special leave (iii) Article 132
(d) Appellate Jurisdiction (iv) Article 131
Codes:
(a) (b) (c) (d)
A. (ii) (iii) (iv) (i)
B. (i) (ii) (iii) (iv)
C. (iv) (i) (ii) (iii)
D. (iii) (iv) (i) (ii)
ANS: C

8. Which of the following statement/statements is/are correct?
(a) Predominance is given to the Union List Under Article 246 (1) of the Constitution
(b) Residuary powers are given to states under the Indian Constitution
(c) “Pith and Substance” means “the true object of the legislation or a statute”
(d) “Colourable Legislation” means “what you can do directly you can also do indirectly”
Codes:
A. Only (a) and (c) are correct
B. (a), (b) and (c) are correct
C. (b), (c) and (d) are correct
D. (a), (b), (c) and (d) all are correct
ANS: A

9. Administrative law primarily does not concern itself with which of the official functions?
A. Rule – making
B. Rule – application
C. Quasi – judicial action
D. Private law
ANS: D

10. Which of the following is not an exception to the principles of natural justice?
A. Impracticability
B. Legislative action
C. Rule against dictation
D. Statutory necessity
ANS: C

11. Match the List-I with List-II using codes given below:
List-I List-II
(a) Ram Jawaya Kapur vs. State of Punjab (i) Doctrine of post decisional hearing
(b) Maneka Gandhi vs. Union of India (ii) Doctrine of public accountability
(c) Vineet Narain vs. Union of India (iii) Doctrine of separation of powers
(d) Union of India vs. Hindustan Corporation (iv) Doctrine of legitimate Development expectation
Codes:
(a) (b) (c) (d)
A. (iii) (i) (ii) (iv)
B. (iv) (ii) (i) (iii)
C. (i) (iv) (iii) (ii)
D. (i) (ii) (iii) (iv)
ANS: A

12. Read Assertion (A) and Reason (R) and answer using the codes given below:
Assertion (A): It is true that in any intensive form of government, the government cannot function without the exercise of some discretion by its official.
Reason (R): Giving discretion to government officials is necessary for the welfare of people.
Codes:
A. (A) and (R) are right and (R) is the right reason for (A)
B. (A) and (R) are right, but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A)
C. (A) is right, but (R) is wrong
D. Both (A) and (R) are wrong
ANS: A

13. Which of the following is correct in relation to the functioning of the institution of Lokayukta in Indian States?
A. Provided with independent investigating agency
B. They have not been given constitutional status
C. Prosecution and final punishment power vested with them
D. Their decisions are final and not recommendentory in nature
ANS: B

14. Which of the following is not considered ‘irrational’, basing upon the Wednesbury principles laid down in Associated Provincial Picture House Ltd. V. Wednesbury Corporation, 1948 (KB)?
A. Without the authority of law
B. Based on no evidence
C. It has sanction of law
D. It is unreasonable
ANS: C

15. On which of the following ground writ of certiorari cannot be issued?
A. Abuse of jurisdiction
B. Exercise of jurisdiction
C. Violation of principles of natural justice
D. Error of law apparent on the face of the record
ANS: B

16. Which of the following is not a jural postulate of the legal system of a society as propounded by Roscoe Pound. So in a civilized society men must be able to assume:
A. That these will be no intent ional aggression
B. That members of society will act in good faith
C. That people will control for their beneficial use, what they have created
D. That people will cause injury to others during their course of work
ANS: D

17. Who said that customs are superior to the legislation. Therefore legislations should not abrogate the customs rather synthesize them with the common consciousness of the people and society?
A. Henry Maine B. H.L.A. Hart
C. Savigny D. Hans Kelson
ANS: C

18. Who among the following is not the exponent of Philosophical school?
A. Hegel B. Kant
C. Puchta D. Holland
ANS: D

19. According to Hohfeld, table of jural relations the jural correlative of right is duty. What are the jural correlatives of Liberty, Power and Immunity respectively?
A. No claim, Liability and Power
B. No claim, Responsibility and Liability
C. No claim, Duty and Liberty
D. No claim, Liability and Disability
ANS: D

20. ‘The Limits of Jurisprudence Defined’ was published in 1945. It was written in 1782 by ……………… .
A. Bentham B. Blackstone
C. Hobbes D. Locke
ANS: A

21. Who among the following has not associated his theory of the state with ‘Social Contract’?
A. Hobbes B. Locke
C. Henry Maine D. Rousseau
ANS: C

22. Read Assertion (A) and Reason (R) and give the correct answer with the help of codes given below:
Assertion (A): Criminal is a victim of circumstances, he is sick so he requires treatment.
Reason (R): Prison reforms and juvenile schools are established to reform the criminals.
Codes:
A. (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).
B. (A) and (R) are true, but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A).
C. (A) is true, but (R) is false.
D. (A) is false, but (R) is true.
ANS: B

23. Match List-I with List-II using the codes below:
List-I List-II
(a) Right of a person not to be assaulted (i) Right in re propria
(b) Right of a person in his own property (ii) Right in rem
(c) Right of a person to enjoy his premises (iii) Right in personam
(d) Right of a person rein the property of someone else (iv) Right in aliena
Codes:
(a) (b) (c) (d)
A. (ii) (i) (iii) (iv)
B. (iv) (iii) (i) (ii)
C. (i) (ii) (iv) (iii)
D. (iii) (iv) (ii) (i)
ANS: A

24. Read the following situations and state which combination is correct to claim benefit under the broad concept of unsoundness of mind:
(a) Extreme Anger (b) Somnambulism
(c) Irresistible impulse (d) Hallucination
Codes:
A. (a) and (b) both B. (a) and (c) both
C. (b) and (c) both D. (b) and (d) both
ANS: D

25. Read the following situations and choose the correct one, where right of private defence is available:
A. Against an act done or attempted to be done by a public servant
B. Where there is time available to have recourse to state authorities
C. Where there is a reasonable apprehension of causing injury to third person
D. Where harm caused in no case should exceed the quantum of harm
ANS: C

26. Match cases from Group-A with relevant legal provisions from Group-B and find the correct answer:
Group-A Group-B
(a) K.N. Mehra vs. State of Rajasthan (i) Section 300
(b) Aruna Ramchandra Shanbaugh vs. Union of India (ii) Section 120-A
(c) State (NCT of Delhi) vs. Navjot Sandhu aka Afsana Guru (iii) Section 309
(d) Virsa Singh vs. State of Punjab (iv) Section 378
Codes:
(a) (b) (c) (d)
A. (i) (iii) (iv) (ii)
B. (i) (iii) (ii) (iv)
C. (iv) (iii) (ii) (i)
D. (iii) (iv) (ii) (i)
ANS: C

27. Criminal Law (Amendment) Act 2013, seems to have determined quantum of punishment proportionate to the severity of offence.
Following are two sets of offences and punishment. Match the correct ones and give appropriate answer using the code.
Offences Maximum Punishment
(a) Voluntarily causing grevious hurt by acid attack (i) Life imprisonment (Remainder of the period of life)
(b) Stalking (ii) 3 years
(c) Gang rape (iii) Life imprisonment and fine
(d) Sexual intercourse by husband upon his wife during separation (iv) 7 years and fine
Codes:
(a) (b) (c) (d)
A. (ii) (iii) (i) (iv)
B. (iii) (ii) (i) (iv)
C. (i) (ii) (iii) (iv)
D. (i) (iii) (ii) (iv)
ANS: B

28. X a servant committed theft of Mobile phone of his master M and ran away from home.
While travelling the said mobile phone was taken away by Y a co-traveller without the knowledge of X. Decide the liability of Y, choose correct one among the following:
A. Criminal misappropriation as the phone was lying on the seat of X.
B. Criminal Breach of Trust–as they were co-travellers
C. Theft–as property in possession of X was taken without his consent
D. Cheating as the method adopted was dubious
ANS: C

29. Certain factors are essential to get Extortion converted to Robbery. Following are a few given factors, choose the one which is not required for the said conversion:
A. Dishonesty
B. Removal of property from the possession of another, by putting him in fear
C. It is immaterial whether the person putting another in fear must be in the immediate presence or far away
D. Such fear should result in the delivery of property
ANS: C

30. “There are two facets to the definition of dishonesty and it is sufficient to establish the existence of any one of them. There is no requirement in Law to establish both” Choose the correct case among the following in which the above statement of Supreme Court has been laid down as ratio.
A. Tulsi Ram vs. State of Uttar Pradesh
B. Hari Sao vs. State of Bihar
C. Gurdatta Mal vs. State of Uttar Pradesh
D. State of Bihar vs. Nathu Pandey
ANS: A

31. Following are given some Provisions of Law
(IPC). Choose the odd one out.
A. Section 149 B. Section 141
C. Section 34 D. Section 147
ANS: C

32. Which one of the following institutions gave suggestion for imposing environmental tax?
A. Amnesty International
B. World Water Institute
C. UNESCO
D. United Nations
ANS: B

33. Under the Environment (Protection) Act, the term ‘environment’ does not include:
A. Water, air and land
B. Inter-relationship which exists between water, air and land, and human beings
C. Inter-relationship which exists between water, air and land, and plants
D. Environment at workplace
ANS: D

34. Match List-I with List-II and select the correct answer using the codes given below:
List-I List-II
(a) Power of Central of Government to take measures to protect and improve environment (i) Section 6 Environment (Protection) Act
(b) Constitution of of Central Pollution Control Board(ii) Section 3 Environment (Protection) Act
(c) Power of Central of the Government to make rules to regulate environmental pollution (iii) Section 6 Water (Prevention and Control of Pollution) Act
(d) Gaseous or liquid the pollutants in atmosphere injurious to human beings (iv) Section 2(a) of the Air (Prevention and Control of Pollution) Act
Codes:
(a) (b) (c) (d)
A. (i) (iii) (iv) (ii)
B. (ii) (iv) (i) (iii)
C. (ii) (iii) (i) (iv)
D. (iii) (iv) (ii) (i)
ANS: C

35. Match List-I with List-II and select the correct answer using the codes given below:
List-I List-II
(a) Rylands vs. Fletcher (i) Principle of public trust for ecological protection
(b) Indian Council for Environment Legal Action vs. Union of India(ii) Precautionary Principle
(c) Vellore Citizens Welfare Forum vs. Union of India(iii) Principle of Polluter pays
(d) M.C. Mehta vs. Kamal Nath (iv) Principle of Strict liability
Codes:
(a) (b) (c) (d)
A. (iv) (iii) (ii) (i)
B. (i) (ii) (iv) (iii)
C. (ii) (iv) (iii) (i)
D. (i) (ii) (iii) (iv)
ANS: A

36. Which one of the following statements is incorrect?
A. The Public Liability Insurance Act was enacted to provide immediate relief to the victims of an accident involving a hazardous substance
B. The Public Liability Insurance Act imposes ‘no fault’ liability upon the owner of the hazardous substance and requires the owner to compensate the victims irrespective of any neglect or default on his part.
C. The Public Liability Insurance Act, does not provide for maximum compensation for injury or death of the victims
D. The Public Liability Insurance Act obligates every owner to take out an insurance policy covering potential liability from an accident
ANS: C

37. Read Assertion (A) and Reason (R) and answer using codes given below:
Assertion (A): Polluter pays principle means polluters should internalise the costs of their pollution, control it at its source, and pay for its effects, including remedial or cleanup costs, rather than forcing other states or future generations to bear such costs.
Reasons (R): Vellore citizen’s welfare forum
vs. Union of India decided so.
Codes:
A. (A) is right, but (R) is wrong
B. Both (A) and (R) are right and (R) is the correct reason of (A)
C. Both (A) and (R) are wrong
D. Both (A) and (R) are right, but (R) is not the correct reason of (A)
ANS: B

38. Match List-I with List-II and select the correct answer using the codes given below:
List-I List-II
(a) Rural Litigation and Entitlement Kendra, Dehradun vs. State of Uttar Pradesh (i) Grant of a lease of land or its renewal without the approval of the central government is void
(b) Samatha vs. State of Andhra Pradesh (ii) Balancing environmental and ecological integrity against industrial demands on forest resources.
(c) K.V. Shanmugam vs. State of Tamil Nadu (iii) Renewal of lease on forest land is not a vested right
(d) State of Himachal Pradesh vs. Wood Products (iv) Forest-based Ganesh industries do not have an absolute or an unrestricted right to operate their units where forest resources are scarce.
Codes:
(a) (b) (c) (d)
A. (ii) (iii) (i) (iv)
B. (i) (iv) (ii) (iii)
C. (ii) (iii) (iv) (i)
D. (i) (ii) (iii) (iv)
ANS: A

39. Who of the following has remarked that International law is a “Living and Expanding Code”?
A. Judge Alvarez
B. Lord Chancellor Sankey
C. J.G. Starke
D. Prof. Lissitzyn
ANS: B

40. Which of the following statement/statements is/are incorrect?
(a) Long duration is an essential element for International Custom
(b) The custom should be completely uniform and consistent to be an International custom
(c) In an International custom, universality of practice is not necessary, the practice should have been generally observed or repeated by numerous states.
(d) Opinio Juris is present, that is to say, customary pratice to be a International Custom, must be recognised as being required by International law.
Codes:
A. Only (a) is incorrect
B. Only (a) and (b) are incorrect
C. (b), (c) and (d) are incorrect
D. (a), (b), (c), (d) all are incorrect
ANS: B

41. Match List-I with List-II and give the correct answer by using the codes given below the lists:
List-I List-II
(Topics) (Related Cases)
(a) Sources of International law (i) Haya Dela Torra Case
(b) Recognition (ii) Re Castioni Case
(c) Extradition (iii) The Arantzazu Mendi Case
(d) Asylum (iv) United States vs.
Schooner
Codes:
(a) (b) (c) (d)
A. (iv) (iii) (ii) (i)
B. (iii) (ii) (iv) (i)
C. (iv) (iii) (i) (ii)
D. (ii) (iv) (iii) (i)
ANS: A

42. Which one of the following cases is not a case decided by permanent court of International Justice?
A. Movrommatis Palestine Concessions Case
B. S.S. Wimbledon Case
C. Anglo Norwegian Fisheries Case
D. Chorzow Factory (Indemnity) Case
ANS: C

43. Read both statements (A) and (R) and give the correct answer by using the codes given below:
Assertion (A): By the term ‘Asylum’ we generally mean the shelter and active protection which is extended to a political refugee from another state, by a state which admits him on his request.
Reason (R): Everyone has a right to seek and enjoy in other countries, an asylum from prosecution.
Codes:
A. Both (A) and (R) are correct and (R) is the correct explanation of (A)
B. Both (A) and (R) are correct, but (R) is not correct explanation of (A)
C. (A) is correct, but (R) is wrong
D. (A) is wrong, but (R) is correct
ANS: A

44. Which of the following is the only Principal organ of the UNO which consists of all the Members of United Nations?
A. Security Council
B. General Assembly
C. The Economic and Social Council
D. Trusteeship Council
ANS: B

45. Match List-I with List-II and give the correct answer by using the codes given below:
List-I List-II
(Provisions) (Articles of U.N.
Charter)
(a) Suspension of Members (i) Article 5
(b) Veto Power (ii) Article 97
(c) Appointment of Secretary General(iii) Article 27
(d) Composition of Trusteeship Council (iv) Article 86
Codes:
(a) (b) (c) (d)
A. (i) (iii) (ii) (iv)
B. (iv) (iii) (ii) (i)
C. (iii) (ii) (iv) (i)
D. (ii) (i) (iii) (iv)
ANS: A

46. Which is not the official language of the United Nations?
A. Russian B. Japanese
C. Spanish D. Arabic
ANS: B

47. The offence of bigamy is not committed under the Hindu Marriage Act, 1955 if a person marries during lifetime of his or her spouse provided:
(a) The first marriage is null and void
(b) The first marriage was performed without ceremonies
(c) The first marriage is voidable and decree annulling it has not been passed
(d) The first marriage is valid
Codes:
A. (a) and (c) B. (a) and (b)
C. (b) and (c) D. (b) and (d)
ANS: B

48. A marriage under the Hindu Marriage Act 1955, must be solemnised in accordance with the customary rites and ceremonies of:
A. The bridegroom
B. The bride
C. Either bride or bridegroom
D. Both bride and bridegroom
ANS: C

49. The absence of witnesses make a Muslim marriage:
A. Irregular under Sunni law, but void under Shia law.
B. Irregular under Sunni and Shia Law.
C. Valid under Sunni law but irregular under Shia law.
D. Valid under Shia law, but irregular under Sunni law.
ANS: D

50. Section 14 of the Hindu Marriage Act, 1955 enacts a ‘fair trial’ rule, according to which a person:
A. Can petition for divorce within one year of marriage
B. Cannot petition for divorce within one year of marriage except in exceptional cases
C. Cannot petition for judicial separation within one year of marriage
D. Can petition for restitution of Conjugal Rights within one year of marriage
ANS: B

51. With the help of codes given below mark the incorrect statement in the light of the Hindu Adoptions and Maintenance Act, 1956:
(a) Permission of the court is not necessary except when guardian gives the child in adoption.
(b) An adoption once made is revocable by natural parents only.
(c) Mother may give the child in adoption with the consent of father.
(d) Performance of ‘datta homam’ ceremony is essential for a valid adoption.
Codes:
A. (c) and (d) B. (d) and (b)
C. (b) and (c) D. (a) and (d)
ANS: B

52. Abstinence from sexual intercourse for a period of not less than four months persuant to a vow is called:
A. Divorce in hasan form
B. Divorce in ahsan form
C. Divorce by Zihar
D. Divorce of Ila
ANS: D

53. In which of the following cases the Supreme Court of India has not addressed the issue of Uniform Civil Code:
A. Sarla Mudgal vs. Union of India
B. John Vallamattom vs. Union of India
C. Ramesh Chander vs. Savitri
D. John Deingdeh vs. S.S. Chopra
ANS: C

54. Answer using the following codes:
A Hindu wife is entitled to claim maintenance from her husband under the provisions of the Hindu Adoption and Maintenance Act, 1956 if:
(a) She is unchaste but living with her husband
(b) She is unchaste but not living with her husband
(c) She is living separate on any ground mentioned under section 18(2) of the Act.
(d) She has converted to Muslim religion
Codes:
A. (a) and (c) B. (a) and (b)
C. (b) and (c) D. (c) and (d)
ANS: A

55. Which of the following statement is wrong?
Answer using codes given below:
(a) Human Rights are essentially a product of bureaucracy.
(b) Human Rights are a reaction to tyranny
(c) Primitive man could move all over world, without any restriction
(d) All women are born free, but everywhere they are in chains.
Codes:
A. (a) B. (b)
C. (c) D. (d)
ANS: A

56. Read Assertion (A) and Reason (R) and answer using codes given below:
Assertion (A): In the exercise of his rights and freedoms, no one shall be subjected only for such limitations as are determined by law solely for the purpose of securing due recognition and respect for the rights and freedoms of others, and of meeting the just requirements of morality, public order, and the general welfare in a democratic society.
Reason (R): Because Article 29(2) of the Universal Declaration of Human Rights states so.
Codes:
A. Both (A) and (R) are right and (R) is correct reason of (A)
B. (A) is right, but (R) is wrong
C. (A) is wrong, but (R) is right
D. Both (A) and (R) are wrong
ANS: D

57. Section 3 of the protection of Civil Rights Act, 1955 prescribes punishment for:
A. Enforcing economic disabilities
B. Civil disobedience
C. Enforcing religions disabilities
D. Enforcing political disabilities
ANS: C

58. Article 6 of the Universal Declaration of Human Rights provides for:
A. Right to life
B. Prohibition of slavery
C. Right to be recognised as a person before law
D. Equality before law
ANS: C

59. Match List-I with List-II in the light of Geneva Convention Relating to the Treatment of Prisoners of War, using codes given below:
List-I List-II
(a) Categories of Prisoners to be treated as prisoner of war(i) Article 13
(b) Prisoners of war to be humanly treated(ii) Article 91
(c) No physical or mental torture(iii) Article 4
(d) Escape of prisoner of war (iv) Article 17
Codes:
(a) (b) (c) (d)
A. (i) (iii) (ii) (iv)
B. (i) (iii) (iv) (ii)
C. (iii) (i) (ii) (iv)
D. (iii) (i) (iv) (ii)
ANS: D

60. Match List-I with List-II in the light of Human Rights under the Constitution of India.
List-I List-II Case Law Principles
(a) East Coast Railway vs. Madhav Appa Rao (i) Freedom of expression
(b) L.I.C. vs. Professor Manubhai D. Shah (ii) Equality
(c) Vakil Prasad Singh vs. State of Bihar (iii) Religious instructions
(d) Aruna Roy vs. Union of India (iv) Speedy trial
Codes:
(a) (b) (c) (d)
A. (ii) (i) (iv) (iii)
B. (i) (ii) (iv) (iii)
C. (i) (ii) (iii) (iv)
D. (ii) (i) (iii) (iv)
ANS: A

61. State of Kerala vs. N.M. Thomas is about:
A. Religious minorities
B. Linguistic minorities
C. Areawise reservation
D. Backward class
ANS: D

62. The main aims of law of tort are:
(a) Punishment
(b) Deterrence to wrong doers
(c) Restoration of original position
(d) Damages to victims
Codes:
A. (a) and (c) B. (c) and (b)
C. (b) and (d) D. (c) and (d)
ANS: C

63. The ‘Absolute Liability’ theory on the basis of pollution causing industrial injuries was propounded by:
A. V.R. Krishna Iyer, J.
B. P.N. Bhagwati, C.J.
C. Kuldip Singh, J.
D. M.N. Venkatachaliah, C.J.
ANS: B

64. Defence of absolute privilege in case of defamation is available in which of the following cases:
(a) Parliamentary Proceedings
(b) Publication of matters of Public interest
(c) State of Communications
(d) Judicial Proceedings
Codes:
A. (a), (b) and (c) B. (b), (c) and (d) C (a), (b) and (d) D. (d), (c) and (a)
ANS: D

65. The essential ingredients of the tort of negligence are:
(a) One owes a duty of care towards the other
(b) One commits a breach of that duty
(c) The other person suffers damage as a consequence thereof.
Choose your correct answer with the help of codes given below:
Codes:
A. Only the first is an essential ingredient
B. None of them is an essential ingredient
C. All of them are essential ingredients
D. Even if the first is absent the tort of negligence is committed
ANS: C

66. Negligence is failure in duty of taking due care. The expression ‘duty’ means:
A. A legal duty
B. A legal as well as moral duty
C. A legal as well as social duty
D. A specific legal duty
ANS: D

67. There is no qualitative difference between a medical practitioner and an advocate, … from the point of view of his status, duties and regulatory control by a statutory body. Hence there is no reason why the legal practitioner should be excluded from the purview of Consumer Protection Act.
From the following choose the correct decision in which it has been held:
A. K. Vishnu vs. National Consumer Dispute Redressal Commission and others
B. Joshi vs. Motor Industries Co.
C. Charan Sing vs. Healing touch Hospital
D. Arvind Mills Ltd vs. Associated Roadways
ANS: A

68. Read Assertion (A) and Reason (R) and answer using codes below:
Assertion (A): Consumer Act is made to simplify the procedure and avoid the complexity so that an ordinary citizen can file a complaint without a difficulty.
Reason (R): It intends to protect a large body of consumers from exploitation.
Codes:
A. (A) and (R) are right and (R) is the right reason for (A)
B. Both (A) and (R) are wrong
C. (A) is right and (R) is wrong
D. (R) is right and (A) is wrong
ANS: A

69. Which are essentials of sale of goods? Answer using codes given below:
(a) Contractual capacity
(b) Bilateral contract
(c) Profit for seller
(d) Mutual and free consent of parties to the contract of sale of goods
Codes:
A. (a), (b), (c) B. (a), (b), (d)
C. (b), (c), (d) D. (a), (c), (d)
ANS: B

70. Read Assertion (A) and Reason (R) and answer using codes given below:
Assertion (A): Every partner is an agent of the other partner.
Reason (R): Partnership is agency
Codes:
A. Both (A) and (R) are wrong
B. (A) is right, but (R) is wrong
C. (A) is wrong, but (R) is right
D. Both (A) and (R) are right and (R) is correct reason of (A)
ANS: D

71. Match List-I with List-II and select the correct answer using the code given below:
List-I List-II
(a) Instalment Supply Ltd. vs. STO (i) Conditions applied by trade usage
(b) Gardiner vs. Gray (ii) Nemo dat quo non habet
(c) Peter Darlington Partners Ltd. vs. Gesho Co. Ltd. (iii) Sale by description
(d) Farquharson Bros vs. King and Co. (iv) Difference between sale and agreement to sale
Codes:
(a) (b) (c) (d)
A. (iii) (iv) (ii) (i)
B. (iii) (iv) (i) (ii)
C. (iv) (iii) (i) (ii)
D. (iv) (iii) (ii) (i)
ANS: C

72. Which one statement is correct from the following statements?
A. A director of a company as a director is a servant of the company
B. A director is an agent of his company
C. A director is not a fiduciary person of his company
D. A director is master of his company
ANS: B

73. Match List-I with List-II and select the correct answer using codes given below:
Answer in context of the Negotiable Instruments Act.
List-I List-II
(a) Time and place for presentment(i) Section 19
(b) Cheques are payable in demand(ii) Section 8
(c) Holder of a negotiable instrument(iii) Section 61
(d) Fictitious drawer or payee (iv) Section 42
Codes:
(a) (b) (c) (d)
A. (i) (iv) (ii) (iii)
B. (iii) (ii) (iv) (i)
C. (ii) (iii) (iv) (i)
D. (ii) (iii) (i) (iv)
Ans: *

74. Which of the following statement is correct?
A. Open cheques are those which cannot be directly presented to the drawee bank for payment across the counter
B. A 16 year old girl can draw a cheque
C. Indorsement is written on front of a cheque
D. Indorsement cannot be made by the holder of a negotiable instrument
ANS: B

75. Which of the following statement (s) is/are incorrect? Answer using codes given below:
(a) In Attorney General vs. Great Eastern Railway Co. the House of Lords observed that the doctrine of ultra vires as it was explained in the Ashbury case, should not be maintained.
(b) Section 13 (i) (c) of the Companies Act provides incidental objects which need not be stated in the memorandum.
(c) If incidental objects are not stated in the memorandum, they would not be allowed by the principle of reasonable construction
(d) The doctrine of indoor management operates to protect insiders against the company
Codes:
A. Only (a) and (b)
B. Only (b) and (c)
C. Only (a), (b) and (c)
D. (a), (b), (c) and (d) .
ANS: [email protected]

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