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Law UGC NTA NET JRF Previous Year Papers July 2014 PAPER-II

Law UGC NTA NET JRF Previous Year Papers July 2014 PAPER-II

1. In which of the following cases, the Supreme Court held that ‘the preamble is the part of the constitution’?
A. Berubari union and Exchage of enclave
B. Golaknath Vs. State of Punjab
C. Kesavananda Bharati Vs. State of Kerala
D. None of the above
ANS: C

2. Clause(5) of article-15 has been added to the constitution by :
A. Constitution (First Amendment) Act
B. Constitution (Seventh Amendment) Act
C. Constitution (Forty-second Amendment) Act
D. Constitution (Ninety-third Amendment) Act
ANS: D

3. Match List-I with List-II and select the correct answer using the codes given below:
List-I List-II
(i) Equal justice and free legal aid(a) Article-44
(ii) Uniform civil code for citizens(b) Article-48A
(iii) Protection and improvement of environment and safeguarding of forests and wild life. (c) Article-39A
(iv) Promotion of international peace and security(d) Article-51
Codes :
(i) (ii) (iii) (iv)
A. (c) (b) (d) (a)
B. (c) (a) (b) (d)
C. (a) (b) (c) (d)
D. (d) (a) (b) (c)
ANS: B

4. Rights of a citizen under Article-19 are automatically suspended during the period of emergency, if emergency under Article-
352 is declared on the grounds of :
A. war, external aggression or armed rebellion
B. war or armed rebellion
C. external aggression or armed rebellion
D. war or external aggression
ANS: D

5. In which of the following cases the supreme court has held that the word ‘law’ in Article-
21 does not mean merely an enacted piece of law but must be just, fair and reasonable law?
A. A.K. Gopalan Vs. State of Madras
B. Maneka Gandhi Vs. Union of India
C. Both A and B
D. None of the above
ANS: B

6. A distinguished jurist can be appointed as a judge of the :
A. High Court only
B. Supreme Court only
C. Both (A) and (B)
D. None of the above
ANS: B

7. ‘Which cannot be done directly, cannot be done indirectly.’ – This statement epitomises the doctrine of :
A. colourable legislation
B. pith and substance
C. harmonious construction
D. eclipse
ANS: A

8. Match List-I with List-II by using the codes given below :
Possession must be protected because :
List-I List-II
1. Kent (a) Man by taking possession has brought the object within his sphere of will.
2. Hegal (b) In possession there is manifestation of individual’s will.
3. Hollard (c) Every act of violence is unlawful.
4. Savigny (d) It is essential for preservation of peace.

Codes :
1 2 3 4
A. (c) (b) (d) (a)
B. (a) (d) (b) (c)
C. (b) (d) (c) (a)
D. (a) (b) (c) (d)
ANS: B

9. Which one of the following statements is not correct?
A. Austin and Kelson did much to rescue jurisprudence from the so-called confusion of social sciences.
B. Historical school of jurisprudence was a reaction against a prior methods of reasoning of eighteen century natural law.
C. Cujas and Hugo also applied the historical approach in the study of law.
D. Savigny did not discard the principle of natural law.
ANS: D

10. Match List-I with List-II and select the correct answer:
List-I List-II
(Name of Books) (Writers)
(a) Pure theory of law 1. Hans Kelson
(b) Three lectures on Vedanta philosophy2. Max Muller
(c) Judiciary attacks and survivals 3. Justice V.D.Tulzapurkar
(d) The growth of law 4. Justice Cardozo
Codes :
(a) (b) (c) (d)
A. 1 2 3 4
B. 4 3 2 1
C. 3 1 4 2
D. 2 4 1 3
ANS: A

11. The term ‘Legal Theory’ has been first time coined by :
A. Hans Kelson B. W. Friedman
C. Salmond D. Ronald Dworkin
ANS: D

12. Which of the following statement is not true about the conformity of custom?
A. It should be in conformity with public policy.
B. It should be in conformity with statutory law.
C. In England, custom will be recognised even if it is in conflict with some fundamental principles of law.
D. The custom must not be in conflict with tradition.
ANS: C

13. “No one has any other right than always to do his duty.” It was stated by :
A. Kelsen B. Prof. Duguit
C. Holland D. Salmond
ANS: B

14. Assertion (A) : Custom is per se law, independent of its prior recognition by the sovereign or the judge.
Reason (R) : Custom is a source of law.

Codes :
A. Both (A) and (R) are true, but (R) is the correct explanation of (A).
B. Both (A) and (R) are true, but (R) is not a correct explanation of (A).
C. (A) is true but (R) is false.
D. (A) is false but (R) is true.
ANS: A

15. Assertion (A) : According to John Austin, international law is true law and not negative international morality.
Reason (R) : Three elements in Austin’s definition of law, namely command of the sovereign, duty of inferiors and sanction incase inferior who commit breach of the command are absent in international law.

Codes :
A. Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).
B. Both (A) and (R) are true but (R) is not a correct explanation of (A).
C. (A) is true, but (R) is false.
D. (A) is false, but (R) is true.
ANS: C

16. “International law is international morality or ethics, international courtesy or convention in the social sense of the word, comity as distinguished from rule of law.” Above statement is attributed to :
A. Hobbes B. Pufendorf
C. Bentham D. Kelsen
ANS: C

17. Match List-I with List-II and select the correct answer using the codes given below :
List-I List-II
(i) International custom (a) Peace keeping
(ii) United Nations (b) Source of international law
(iii) Enforcing list I judgement of international court of justice(c) Entry 14, read with Article-73
(iv) Nirmal bose Vs. Union of India, AIR Calcutta, (d) Political mechanism
Codes :
(i) (ii) (iii) (iv)
A. (b) (a) (d) (c)
B. (a) (b) (d) (c)
C. (a) (b) (c) (d)
D. (d) (b) (a) (c)
ANS: A

18. Estrada doctrine relates to
A. Necessity of recognition
B. Form of recognition
C. No necessity of recognition
D. Recognition is superficial
ANS: C

19. Principle of United Nation is
A. Some sovereigns are more equal than others.
B. Member nations have rights but no obligations.
C. All members shall settle their international disputes by peaceful means.
D. All members shall settle their national disputes by peaceful means.
ANS: C

20. Doctrine of forum prorogatum means
A. Jurisdiction cannot be conferred upon an existing tribunal not otherwise competent by the litigants during the proceedings.
B. Jurisdiction can be conferred upon an existing tribunal not otherwise competent by the litigants during the proceedings.
C. Jurisdiction can be conferred upon an existing tribunal not otherwise competent by the litigants after the proceedings.
D. None of the above
ANS: B

21. Assertion (A) : Nikah is a regular and permanent form of marriage among Muslims.
Reason (R) : Muta is contractual form of marriage and is most uncommon in India.

Codes :
A. Both (A) and (R) are correct.
B. (A) is correct but (R) is false.
C. (R) is correct but (A) is false.
D. Neither (A) is correct nor (R) is correct.
ANS: A

22. Where a Hindu male and Hindu female contract their marriage under the special Marriage Act, 1954, Hindu personal law :
A. Applies to such marriage
B. Does not apply
C. Applies with some modifications
D. Applies with Indian Contract Act
ANS: A

23. When two persons are descendants of a common ancestor but by different wives, they are said to be related to each other by :
A. Full Blood B. Uterine Blood
C. Half-Blood D. None of the above
ANS: C

24. The term “Hindu” denotes the persons :
(i) professing Hindu religion
(ii) professing Buddh, Jain or Sikh religion
(iii) who are not professing Muslims, Christian, Parsi or Jain religion.
In respect of the aforesaid propositions which is correct?
A. (i) and (ii) are correct and (iii) is incorrect.
B. (ii) and (iii) are correct and (i) is incorrect.
C. (i) and (iii) are incorrect but (ii) is correct.
D. (i), (ii) and (iii) all are correct.
ANS: D

25. Assertion (A) : A having a wife alive, marries another wife. The marriage is void.
Reason (R) : Monogamy is the Law.

Codes :
A. Both (A) and (R) are true.
B. Both (A) and (R) are false.
C. (A) is true but (R) is false.
D. (A) is false but (R) is true.
ANS: A

26. A marriage under Muslim law between persons with fosterage relationship is :
A. Sahih B. Batil
C. Fasid D. None of the above
ANS: B

27. Under the Indian Contract Act, acceptance of proposal should be
A. Conditional or Unconditional
B. Conditional but not absolute
C. Unconditional and absolute
D. Unconditional but not absolute
ANS: C

28. In Indian Contract Act, the term voidable contract has been defined under :
A. Section 2(e) B. Section 2(h)
C. Section 2(i) D. Section 2(g)
ANS: C

29. Contractual liability arises, where
A. there is offer and acceptance only
B. there is intention to create legal relation
C. there is loss to one party
D. the loss of one party is the gain of other party
ANS: B

30. There may be a contract without consideration, if
A. agreement is in writing and registered.
B. parties to the agreement are in near relationship.
C. agreement is made due to natural love and affection.
D. All the above elements are present.
ANS: D

31. An agreement of trade combination to regulate legal trade in organised way is
A. Void B. Voidable
C. Legal D. Illegal
ANS: C

32. Which one of the following statements is true?
A. Intimation of minimum price is proposal.
B. An agreement against public policy is voidable.
C. An agreement, the meaning of which is not certain is void.
D. Contingent contracts are illegal.
ANS: C

33. Which one of the following is correct?
A. Damages can be dispensed with in tort
B. Damages cannot be awarded in tort when other remedies are provided by a statute
C. A remedy by way of damages is essential ingredient of tort
D. Damages can be awarded only if there is a physical injury
ANS: C

34. After considering the following, choose the right choice :
1. infringement of a legal right
2. legal damage
3. any damage
4. existence of a legal right Right to claim damages in tort would arise only if :
A. 1, 2 and 3 are present.
B. 1, 2 and 4 are present.
C. 1, 3 and 4 are present.
D. All 1, 2, 3, 4 are present.
ANS: B

35. Mental condition of the wrong doer is
A. relevant in all torts
B. not relevant in tortious liability
C. relevant in case of strict liability
D. relevant in torts based on fault
ANS: D

36. P voluntarily accepted lift from D who was drunk and driving the car. D was affected by the drink and this was known to P. D caused the accident in which P suffered injury. Here,
A. D can escape the liability because P was aware of risk.
B. D is liable because P did not agree to suffer the harm.
C. D is not liable because he gave free lift to P.
D. D is liable because the degree of intoxication was not to such an extent that it can be assumed that there was voluntary assumption of risk by P.
ANS: D

37. A rickshaw was being pulled by the rickshaw puller with three passengers on board, which was against law. A bus was being driven rashly and negligently by its driver. The bus collides with rickshaw resulting into damage to rickshaw and injury to rickshaw passengers.
Here
A. passengers cannot claim compensation from bus operator for the injury as they themselves were not acting according to law.
B. passengers cannot claim compensation from bus operator as there was contributory negligence on their part.
C. passengers can claim full compensation from bus operator as their negligence has not contributed to their injury.
D. passengers are entitled for compensation which shall be proportionally reduced taking into account their illegal act.
ANS: C

38. Consider the following and then select the right code :
1. Absolute liability implies liability without fault.
2. In case of absolute liability defendant is liable for the injury if his act is the direct and proximate cause of plaintiff’s injury.
3. Absolute liability is the liability of the defendant without any defence.
4. In absolute liability, defendant can escape the liability if he can prove that the damage was the result of an act of stranger.

Codes :
A. 1, 2 and 4 are correct.
B. 2 and 3 are correct.
C. 1, 2 and 3 are correct.
D. 1 and 4 are correct.
ANS: C

39. Causing one thing to resemble another thing is known as :
A. Counterfeit B. Deception
C. Cheating D. All of them
ANS: C

40. A private libel is not considered as strict liability because :
A. There is no common injury or danger inferred from the facts
B. It was the result of bonafide belief
C. It is not a statutory offence
D. The principles of Rayland Vs. Fletcher is not applicable
ANS: A

41. Assertion (A) : The principle of common intention applies when a criminal act is done by several persons in furtherance of that intention.
Reason (R) : A intentional cooperation for committing an offence culminated from several acts.

Codes :
A. (A) is true but (R) is not the reason.
B. Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the reasonable explanation of (A).
C. Both are distinctive offences and (A) is not dependent on (R).
D. (A) is false but (R) is true.
ANS: C

42. Assertion (A) : The right of private defence does not depend upon the actual criminality of the aggressor but on the wrongful character of the act attempted.
Reason (R) : Even if an act is treated as offence the right of private defence arises against the author despite his personal incapacity.

Codes :
A. (A) is correct principle because (R) is the right reason.
B. (A) is untenable under law while (R) is the justifiable cause.
C. (A) is the law on an unlawful act while
(R) results without mens rea.
D. (A) is not true while (R) is false.
ANS: A

43. The maxim “De Minimis non curat” relates to _______.
A. Slight harm
B. Trifles
C. Exhibition of disrespect
D. Annoyance
ANS: A

44. Instigating or engaging in a conspiracy or intentionally aiding a person to commit an offence is better known as _____.
A. Principal Crime
B. Second Degree Crime
C. Wilful mis-representation
D. Abetment
ANS: D

45. The First Come Last Go, and the Last Come First Go rule is associated with
A. Strike
B. Lockout
C. Retrenchment
D. Closure
ANS: C

46. One of the following is not the duty of works committee under the Industrial Disputes Act.
A. To promote measures for securing and preserving amity and good relations between the employees and workmen.
B. To form groups among workmen and strengthen mediation between employer and employee.
C. To achieve the object, it is their duty to comment upon matter of common interest or concern of employers and workmen.
D. To endeavour to compose any material difference of opinion in respect of matters of common interest or concern between employers and workmen.
ANS: B

47. An unregistered trade union has one of the following disadvantage :
A. It can acquire and hold both movable and immovable property.
B. It has no corporate existence.
C. It can contract through agents.
D. It is a legal entity.
ANS: B

48. In order to entitle the workmen to wages for the period of strike, the strike should be legal as well as justified. The above principle was laid down in one of the following case by the apex court :
A. Crompton Greaves Vs. The workmen AIR 1978 SC.
B. Ballarpur collieries Vs. C.G.I.T Dhanbad AIR 1972 SC.
C. Management of India Radiatiors Ltd and another Vs. presiding officer and another AIR 2003 II LLJ (Mad)
D. Workmen of Motor Industries Co. Ltd Vs.
Management of Motor Industires Co Ltd AIR 1969 SC.
ANS: A

49. In one of the following case the Supreme Court held that when retrenchment of a workmen is invalid reinstatement can be ordered :
A. Harindara Singh Vs. Punjab State warehousing Corporation 2010 II LLJ SC
B. Surendara Kumar Verma Vs. Central Govt.
Indl. Tribunal 1981 ILLJ SC
C. Management W.B. India Ltd Vs. Jagannath AIR 1974 SC
D. Pioneer Ltd Vs. Tajdar Hussain AIR 1974 SC
ANS: B

50. In which of the following, the members of the registered trade union can claim immunity in criminal cases?
A. The combination of two or more members of a registered trade union act in furtherance of a trade dispute.
B. The combination of two or more members of a registered trade union act with an intention to create loss or damage to the properties of the employer.
C. The trade union leaders in exercise of the managerial powers direct the workers from abstaining to do the work.
D. The members of a trade union act in combination with an intention to coerce the employer to acced to their demands.
.
ANS: [email protected]

1. ‘The constitution establishes a system of government which is almost quasi-federal ……. a unitary state with subsidiary federal features rather than a federal state with subsidiary unitary features.’ This is the opinion of :
A. K.C. Wheare
B. Jennings
C. A.V. Dicey
D. None of the above
ANS: A

2. Match List-I with List-II and select the correct answer using the codes given below :
List-I List-II
(i) Appointment of Judges(a) Article-124
(ii) A Court of Record (b) Article-129
(iii) Appeal in civil cases(c) Article-133
(iv) Certificate for appeal to Supreme Court (d) Article-134A
Codes :
(i) (ii) (iii) (iv)
A. (a) (b) (c) (d)
B. (a) (c) (b) (d)
C. (a) (b) (d) (c)
D. (b) (a) (d) (c)
ANS: A

3. The constitution of Election Commission is provided in the constitution under :
A. Article-323 B. Article-324
C. Article-327 D. Article-329
ANS: B

4. Match List-I with List-II and select the correct answer using the codes given below :
List-I List-II
(i) Doctrine of Eclipse (a) RMDC Vs.Union of India
(ii) Doctrine of severability (b) State of Bombay Vs. F.N. Balsara
(iii) Doctrine of Waiver (c) Bhikaji Vs. State of M.P.
(iv) Doctrine of pith and substance (d) Bashesher Nath Vs.Income Tax Commissioner
Codes :
(i) (ii) (iii) (iv)
A. (c) (b) (d) (a)
B. (b) (c) (a) (d)
C. (c) (a) (d) (b)
D. (d) (b) (c) (a)
ANS: C

5. Incase there is any inconsistency between the laws made by parliament and the laws made by the state legislature, which one of the following shall prevail?
A. The law made by parliament only if it is passed before the law made by state legislature.
B. The law made by parliament only if it is passed after the law made by state legislature.
C. The law made by parliament whether it is passed before or after the law made by state legislature.
D. The law made by state if it is passed after the law made by parliament.
ANS: C

6. Which of the following statements is true?
A. All self incriminatory statements are valid.
B. All self-incriminatory statements are violative of article-20(3).
C. Self incriminatory statements furnished under compulsion are violative of article-
20(3).
D. None of the above.
ANS: C

7. Assertion (A) : Under Article-368, the parliament can amend any part of the constitution of India.
Reason (R) : The parliament is supreme legislative body elected by people of India.

Codes :
A. Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).
B. Both (A) and (R) are true but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A).
C. (A) is true, but (R) is false.
D. (A) is false, but (R) is true.
ANS: D

8. Match List-I with List-II and select the correct answer using the codes given below :
List-I List-II
(i) Separation of judiciary from executive(a) Article-51
(ii) Promotion of international peace and security(b) Article-48A
(iii) Organisation of village panchayats(c) Article-50
(iv) Protection and improvement of forests and wild life (d) Article-40
Codes :
(i) (ii) (iii) (iv)
A. (a) (b) (c) (d)
B. (c) (a) (d) (b)
C. (c) (b) (d) (a)
D. (b) (a) (c) (d)
ANS: B

9. Lokpal or Lokayukta is competent to
A. Discharge the functions of administrative officer.
B. Investigate complaints involving grievances in respect of administrative actions.
C. Conduct inquiry against administrative officer for disciplinary action.
D. Give observations and recommendations in respect of administrative actions to the government.
ANS: B

10. Assertion (A) : Indian Constitution has not recognized the doctrine of separation of power in its absolute rigidity.
Reason (R) : Doctrine of separation of power accommodates a system of checks and balances.

Codes :
A. Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).
B. Both (A) and (R) are true but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A).
C. (A) is true, but (R) is false.
D. (R) is true, but (A) is false.
ANS: A

11. Administrative law is concerned with the operation and control of the powers of administrative authorities with emphasis on functions rather than on structure. This definition was given by
A. K.C. Davis B. Jennings
C. A.V. Dicey D. Wade
ANS: D

12. Which one of the following is not basic source of administrative law ?
A. Custom
B. Delegated legislation
C. Ordinance promulgated by Governor
D. Reports of the committees and commission
ANS: A

13. Doctrine of pleasure is related to
A. Fundamental duties
B. Fundamental rights
C. Directive principles of state policy
D. None of the above
ANS: D

14. Which of the following statements is true ?
A. Mandamus lies against quasi-judicial order.
B. Mandamus is issued where inferior court declined jurisdiction.
C. Mandamus may be issued, even if alternate remedy is available.
D. Mandamus may be issued even no legal right of petitioner subsists.
ANS: B

15. The rule of ‘Audi alteram partem’ requires reasonable opportunity of hearing. Hearing may be
A. only in writing
B. only orally
C. written or oral
D. written and oral both
ANS: C

16. The high court can exercise the supervisory jurisdiction over the courts and tribunals subordinate to it under
A. Article-32 B. Article-226
C. Article-227 D. Article-141
ANS: C

17. Fiction theory is related to which one of the following concepts?
A. Ownership B. Justice
C. Legal personality D. None of the above
ANS: C

18. “We must admit openly that precedent makes law as well as declare it …….. . Original precedents are the outcome of the international exercise by the courts of their privileges of developing the law at the same time that they administer it.” Who said it?
A. Salmond B. Redcliffe
C. Lord Denning D. Starke
ANS: A

19. Prof. Holland distinguishes a legal right from:
A. Moral and Natural rights
B. External and Internal rights
C. Might and Moral rights
D. Sight and Moral rights
ANS: C

20. Match List-I with List-II and select the correct answer using the codes given below :
List-I List-II
(Concepts) (Jurists)
(i) Minimum content of law(a) Fuller
(ii) Inner morality of law(b) Hart
(iii) Law with a variable content(c) Kohler
(iv) Law as a phenomenon of civilization (d) Stammler
Codes :
(i) (ii) (iii) (iv)
A. (c) (a) (b) (d)
B. (b) (c) (d) (a)
C. (b) (a) (d) (c)
D. (a) (b) (c) (d)
ANS: C

21. The ‘Bracket Theory’ contemplates :
A. The members of the corporation are the only persons who have rights and duties.
B. Law puts a bracket around the persons, by organising juristic personality.
C. Only human beings can have personality.
D. Group has a real will, read mind and real power of action.
ANS: B

22. Consider the following statements and give the correct answer by using the codes given below:
I. Equitable ownership always presupposes the existence of a legal ownership.
II. Where property is given by A to B for the benefit of C. B becomes the legal owner and C the equitable owner.
III. In many cases, equity recognises ownership whereas law does not recognise ownership owing to some flaw or defect.
IV. Contingent ownership is spes successions.

Codes :
A. I, II and III are correct.
B. II and III are correct.
C. I and II are correct.
D. II and IV are correct.
ANS: A

23. Who defined possession as “to gain possession a man must stand in a certain physical relation to the object and to the rest of world and must have a certain intent”?
A. Holmes B. Salmond
C. Pollock D. Savigny
ANS: A

24. Statement I : Person of inheritance is the owner of the right.
Statement II : Inheritance is a means to ownership.

Codes :
A. Both Statement I and II are individually true statements and Statement II is the correct explanation of Statement I.
B. Both Statements I and II are individually true, but Statement II is not the correct explanation of Statement I.
C. Statement I is true, but Statement II is false.
D. Statement I is false, but Statement II is true.
ANS: A

25. Malum Prohibitum means :
A. Intrinsically wrong
B. Course of law has made it otherwise
C. Innocent but made punishable by statute.
D. All of them.
ANS: C

26. Demolishing a private structure standing encroached on a public street amounts to :
A. Gain by unlawful means.
B. Wrongful gain for public purpose.
C. Wrongful loss by mischief.
D. None of above.
ANS: C

27. Assertion (A) : When an act is done dishonestly it does not require deception or concealment as its ingredient.
Reason (R) : Dishonesty requires an intention to cause wrongful loss or gain of property.

Codes :
A. (A) is true, but (R) is not the reason.
B. Both (A) and (R) are true because (R) is the right reason of (A).
C. Both (A) and (R) are distinctive offences.
D. (A) is false, while (R) is true.
ANS: B

28. Assertion (A) : Harbouring includes supplying a person with shelter, food, money or conveyance.
Reason (R) : The supply must relate to evading apprehension.

Codes :
A. (A) is correct clarification, but (R) is not the correct reason.
B. (A) is not true while (R) is the correct explanation.
C. Both (A) and (R) are correct proposition.
D. Only in exceptional situation (R) is the reason of (A).
ANS: C

29. The real and abiding concern for the dignity of human life was decided in the case of :
A. Rajendra Prasad Vs. State of U.P.
B. Mohindra Singh Vs. Delhi Administration
C. Javed Ahmed Vs. State of Maharashtra.
D. Bachan Singh Vs. State of Punjab.
ANS: D

30. An unlawful assembly is a particular state of activity accompanied by the use of force or violence is riot, but it does not include :
A. There must be five or more persons
B. There must be animation by a common object
C. Persons assembled for lawful purpose but started quarrelling without any previous intention.
D. All of them.
ANS: C

31. Which of the following statements are not false evidence in discharge of public justice?
A. A false statement given under instigation.
B. A statement known to be false.
C. A statement not believed to be true.
D. None of above.
ANS: A

32. A ceremonial pollution is an act relating to unclean worship and is known as the offence of _____.
A. Insult to religion
B. Defilement
C. Anti secularism
D. Religious hatredness
ANS: B

33. One of the following case is popularly known as “Doon Valley case”:
A. Pathumna Vs. State of Kerala AIR 1978, 2 SCC.
B. M.C. Metha Vs. Union of India AIR 1987 SC.
C. Unni Krishnan Vs. State of A.P. AIR 1993, 1 SCC.
D. R.L. & E. Kendra Vs. State of UP AIR 1985 SC.
ANS: D

34. The polluter pays principle has been incorporated in
A. Principle 15 of the Rio Declaration on Environment and Development
B. Principle 27 of the Rio Declaration on Environment and Development
C. Principle 8 of the Rio Declaration on Environment and Development
D. Principle 16 of the Rio Declaration on Environment and Development
ANS: D

35. Protection and Improvement of environment and safeguarding forests and wild life is
A. One of the Directive Principles of state policy
B. A fundamental right
C. Fundamental duty
D. Both directive principles of state policy and fundamental duties
ANS: D

36. Two important Amendments were brought in the year 1976. One with reference to directive principles of state policy making the state responsible to protect and improve the environment and safeguard the forests and wild life of the country. The other under fundamental duties making every citizen to protect and improve the natural environment including forests, lakes, rivers and wild life and to have compassion for living creatures.
The relevant amendment is
A. 49th Amendment
B. 45th Amendment
C. 43rd Amendment
D. 42nd Amendment
ANS: D

37. Section 19 of the Environment (Protection) Act 1986 enables a person to file a complaint in a criminal court after giving a notice to the Pollution Control Board. Once a complaint has been made, the board is bound to make available to the complaint all relevant reports to him on demand. The board may also refuse to disclose on public interest.
Similar provisions are also available under
A. Section 49 of the Water Act 1974 and Section 43 of the Air Act 1981
B. Section 43 of the Water Act 1974 and Section 49 of the Air Act 1981
C. Section 42 of the Water Act 1974 and Section 46 of the Air Act 1981
D. Section 41 of the Water Act 1974 and Section 42 of the Air Act 1981
ANS: A

38. The Supreme Court of India ordered conversion from fuel to CNG on July 28, 1998. It also set up a committee to evaluate the cleanliness of various fuels on April 27, 2001. The name of the committee is
A. Bhurelal Committee
B. Santhanam Committee
C. Mallimath Committee
D. Madanlal Committee
ANS: A

39. “The public trust doctrine primarily rests on the principle that certain resources like air, sea, water and the forests have such a great importance to the people as a whole that it would be wholly injustified to make them a subject of private ownership.” The above Doctrine was discussed in detail in one of the following case :
A. M.C. Metha Vs. Kamalnath 1997 1 SCC.
B. Rural litigation and Environment Kendra
Vs. Union of India AIR.1985 SC.
C. Vellore Citizen’s welfare Forum Vs. Union of India 1996, 5 SCC.
D. M.C. Metha Vs. Union of India AIR. 1987 SC.
ANS: A

40. “Form of rules accepted by civilized states as determining their conduct towards each other and each other’s subject, is defined as international law.” Above statement is attributed to :
A. S.S. Lotus case
B. West Rand Central Gold Mining Ltd. Co.
Vs. King
C. Queen Vs. Keyn
D. L. Oppenheim
ANS: B

41. Assertion (A) : International convention is the most important source of law.
Reason (R) : International convention has generic wisdom.

Codes :
A. Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).
B. Both (A) and (R) are true but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A).
C. (A) is true, but (R) is false.
D. (A) is false, but (R) is true.
ANS: B

42. Which of the following statement is true?
A. The community to be recognized as an international person should be organised one.
B. Control of the community over definite territory is desirable.
C. The control over the territory may be permanent.
D. The community must be independent.
ANS: D

43. Which of the following statement is correct?
A. Primary responsibility of international peacekeeping and security is on the General Assembly.
B. The Security Council is a deliberative organ.
C. Members may not accept and carry out the advice of the security council.
D. Social and economic council is to discharge the responsibility of the states enshrined in Chapter-IX from Articles 55-
60. This council operates under the authority and supervision of general assembly.
ANS: D

44. Match List-I with List-II and select the correct answer using the codes given below :
List-I List-II
(i) Doctrine of forum prorogatum (a) Certain expenses case, ICJ Rep.
1962, p. 151
(ii) Condition of reciprocity (b) Nicaragua v. US, ICJ Rep. 1984, pp.
392, 421-26
(iii) Advisory jurisdiction (c) Interhandel case, ICJ Rep. 1959, p.6
(iv) Reservations (d) Corfu channel case, (Preliminary objection), ICJ
Rep. 1948, p.28
Codes :
(i) (ii) (iii) (iv)
A. (c) (d) (a) (b)
B. (d) (c) (a) (b)
C. (d) (c) (b) (a)
D. (a) (b) (d) (c)
ANS: B

45. Which of the following statement is true ?
A. Mere counting of heads is enough to assess the degree of authority and credibility of a resolution of General Assembly.
B. Mere counting of heads is not enough to assess the degree of authority and credibility of a resolution of General Assembly.
C. Mere counting of heads is enough to assess integrity of General Assembly.
D. None of the above
ANS: B

46. Assertion (A) : Recognition of a state is not the same as recognition of its government.
Reason (R) : Within existing states, governments come and go and normally the changes raise no question of recognition.

Codes :
A. Both (A) and (R) are correct and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).
B. Both (A) and (R) are correct but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A).
C. (A) is true, but (R) is false.
D. (A) is false, but (R) is true.
ANS: A

47. A Muslim wife may sue for divorce under the Dissolution of Muslim Marriage Act, 1939 if the husband has been insane for a period of:
A. 1 year B. 2 years
C. 3 years D. 5 years
ANS: B

48. Which of the following is not essential for divorce by mutual consent?
A. They have been living separately for one year.
B. They have not been able to live together.
C. The wife has not received any maintenance.
D. They have mutually agreed that the marriage should be dissolved.
ANS: C

49. That the respondent was, at the time of the marriage, pregnant by some person other than the petitioner, is a ground for voidable marriages under
A. Section-12(1)(a) B. Section-12(1)(b)
C. Section-12(1)(c) D. Section-12(1)(d)
ANS: D

50. A petition for the dissolution of the marriage by a decree of divorce may be presented, if cohabitation as between the parties to the marriage, after the passing of a decree of judicial separation, is not resumed for a period of :
A. One year or upwards
B. Two years or upwards
C. Six months or upwards
D. None of the above
ANS: A

51. Match List-I with List-II and select the correct answer using the codes given below :
List-I List-II
(a) Marriage during Iddat period is(i) Void
(b) Marriage with an impotent person is(ii) Irregular
(c) Marriage below the age of 18 years is(iii) Voidable
(d) Inter-caste marriage (iv) Valid
Codes :
(a) (b) (c) (d)
A. (i) (ii) (iii) (iv)
B. (ii) (i) (iv) (iii)
C. (iii) (ii) (i) (iv)
D. (ii) (iii) (i) (iv)
ANS: D

52. Where the marriage has not been consummated, Iddat has to be observed in case of :
A. Death of husband
B. Divorce
C. Both death and divorce
D. Neither death nor divorce
ANS: B

53. Match List-I with List-II and select the correct answer using the codes given below :
List-I List-II
(Cases) (Grounds)
(a) Ram Narayan Vs. Rameshwari(i) Insanity
(b) Lachman Vs. Meena (ii) Cruelty
(c) Dastane Vs. Dastane (iii) Desertion
(d) Mr. X Vs. Hospital Z (iv) Venereal Diseases
Codes :
(a) (b) (c) (d)
A. (iii) (i) (iv) (ii)
B. (ii) (iv) (iii) (i)
C. (i) (iii) (ii) (iv)
D. (iv) (ii) (i) (iii)
ANS: C

54. Under the Shia school, what is the cronical order of persons entitled to the ‘Hizanat’ of a minor child?
(a) Father (b) Mother
(c) Grandfather (d) Grandmother
A. (b), (a), (c), (d)
B. (b), (a), (d), (c)
C. (c), (b), (a), (d)
D. (d), (c), (b), (a)
ANS: A

55. The solidarity rights, more commonly known as ‘Third Generation Human Rights’ is based on :
A. Independent needs of people
B. Concept of universalism
C. Right to self-determination
D. Common heritage of mankind
ANS: B

56. “Human rights have two main dimensions.
One of them can be called negative freedom in the sense that it is less important, it is negative because such freedom is based on a bedrock of what cannot be done, rather than what can be done.” The above is from the thoughts of
A. Kofi Annan
B. P.N. Bhagwati
C. Amartya Sen
D. M.N. Venkatachaliah
ANS: C

57. Match List-I containing Human rights and List-II containing related Articles of Universal Declaration of Human Rights, using the codes given below :
List-I List-II
(i) Rights to own property(a) Article-18
(ii) Freedom of religion (b) Article-9
(iii) Right to liberty andsecurity of person (c) Article-12
(iv) Right to privacy (d) Article-17
Codes :
(i) (ii) (iii) (iv)
A. (a) (c) (d) (b)
B. (a) (d) (c) (b)
C. (a) (d) (b) (c)
D. (d) (a) (b) (c)
ANS: D

58. Human rights are inscribed in the hearts of the people ; they were there long before law makers drafted their first proclamation. This statement was made by :
A. Kofi Annan B. Krishna Iyer, J.
C. Mary Robinson D. None of the above
ANS: C

59. Human Rights Council has taken the place of:
A. Human Right Committee
B. International Human Rights Institute
C. Centre for Human Rights
D. Human Right Commission
ANS: B

60. Select the best answer using the codes given below :
The national Human Rights commission can:
1. itself take action and punish those who violate human rights.
2. recommend the government to take action.
3. initiate proceedings in the court.
4. join as a party to a case in the court involving violation of human rights.

Codes :
A. 1 and 2 are correct.
B. 2, 3 and 4 are correct.
C. 1, 2 and 3 are correct.
D. 3 and 4 are correct.
ANS: B

61. Some of the human rights are contained in the Indian Constitution under :
A. Part III and Part IV-A
B. Part III and Part IV
C. Part IV and Part IV-A
D. Part II and Part IV-A
ANS: B

62. Tort is defined as “an infringement of a right in rem of a private individual giving a right of compensation of the suit of the injured party” by
A. Salmond B. Franger
C. Winfield D. Flemmings
ANS: B

63. Which of the following correctly represent the position under the law of torts ?
Select from the code given below : A person is responsible for
1. all the consequences of his wrongful act.
2. consequences which directly flow from his wrongful act.
3. consequences which are not too remote.
4. all the consequences which are reasonably foreseable.

Codes :
A. 1 and 2 are correct.
B. 1, 2 and 3 are correct.
C. 2 and 3 are correct.
D. 2, 3 and 4 are correct.
ANS: D

64. Which of the following is not necessary in tort of defamation?
A. The statement is defamatory.
B. There is intention to refer to the plaintiff.
C. The right thinking members in the society infer that the statement refers to plaintiff.
D. The statement is made known to other members of society.
ANS: B

65. A film critic in his review of a film comments adversely on the cinematic values and quality of the film. The director of the film sues the film critic for defamation. Which of the following is correct, use the code given below:
1. The film critic is not liable as he can raise the defence of justification.
2. The critic is not liable because it was a fair and bonafide comment in public interest.
3. It was an expression of opinion and not assertion of facts.
4. It was a fair criticism of a film meant for public entertainment.

Codes :
A. 1 and 4 are correct.
B. 1 and 2 are correct.
C. 2, 3 and 4 are correct.
D. 1 and 3 are correct.
ANS: C

66. The ‘standard of care’ generally used in care of negligence is
A. the care taken by an intelligent and prudent man.
B. the skill and care taken by a qualified and competent person.
C. the foresight of an adult person.
D. the care and skill of a prudent and careful man belonging to defendant’s calling or business or skill.
ANS: D

67. Which one of the following is a good defence for the tort of private nuisance?
A. Plaintiff has come to the place of nuisance.
B. Reasonable care was taken to prevent nuisance.
C. The activity is for the public benefit.
D. The activity is continuing for the past 20 years.
ANS: D

68. Who is a consumer under the Consumer Protect Act, 1986?
A. A person who gives his pants for stitching to a tailor.
B. A person who purchases goods for sale in his shop.
C. A person who purchases a car for being used as a taxi in his taxi service.
D. A person who avails of medical services free of cost.
ANS: A

69. Partnership is
A. Trust B. Company
C. Mutual agency D. Mutual fund
ANS: C

70. Assertion (A) : When something of valuable nature is acquired by a partner in breach of his duty in good faith, it is taken to be acquired for the benefit of all the partners and has to be accounted for to the firm.
Reason (R) : Partnership is a trust.

Codes :
A. Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).
B. Both (A) and (R) are true but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A).
C. (A) is true, but (R) is false.
D. (A) is false, but (R) is true.
ANS: C

71. Arrange the following concepts in which sequence they appeared, using the codes given below :
(i) Damage
(ii) Breach of terms of agreement of partnership
(iii) Damaged
(iv) Agreement to share profits from business of firm
Codes :
A. (i), (ii), (iv), (iii)
B. (iv), (ii), (i), (iii)
C. (ii), (iv), (i), (iii)
D. (iii), (i), (ii), (iv)
ANS: B

72. Match items in List-I with items in List-II using the codes given below :
List-I List-II
(i) Liability for misappro- priation by a partner(a) Section-26
(ii) Liability of a partner for torts(b) Section-27
(iii) Liability of a partner for holding out(c) Section-28
(iv) Doctrine of implied authority of a partner and 19 (d) Sections-18
Codes :
(i) (ii) (iii) (iv)
A. (c) (d) (a) (b)
B. (b) (a) (d) (c)
C. (a) (b) (c) (d)
D. (b) (a) (c) (d)
ANS: D

73. Which one of the following pairs does match?
A. Definition and essentials of sale – E. & S 5 : 02 PM Ruben Ltd. Vs.Faire Bros. (1949)1 KB 254
B. Formalities of sale – Drummond & Sons Vs. Van Ingen, (1887) 12 App. Cases 284
C. Conditions implied by trade and usage – Peter Darlington Partners Ltd. Vs. Gosho Co. Ltd., (1964) 1 Lloyds
Rep. 149
D. Sale by sample – Rowland Vs.
Divall (1923) 2 KB 500, CA.
ANS: C

74. Which one of the following statements is true?
A. The order contained in the bill of exchange may be conditional.
B. A bill of exchange must contain a request to pay.
C. Every bill of exchange is a promissory note.
D. The payee must be certain.
ANS: D

75. Haward Vs. Patent Ivory Manufacturing Co.,
(1888) 38 Ch.D. 156 is a case about
A. Doctrine of ultra vires
B. Doctrine of indoor management
C. Doctrine of public notice
D. Doctrine of social responsibility .
ANS: [email protected]

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