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CTET Paper 2 Social Science Previous Year Papers Level-2 (Class VI-VIII) 2015-2

CTET Paper 2 Social Science Previous Year Papers Level-2 (Class VI-VIII) 2015

Part I: Child Development and Pedagogy

Directions: Answer the following questions by selecting the most appropriate option.
Q1. The developmental perspective of teaching demands teachers to
(a) be strict disciplinarians as children experiment quite frequently
(b) adapt instructional strategies based on the knowledge of developmental factors
(c) treat children in different developmental stages in an equitable manner
(d) provide learning that results in the development of only the cognitive domain
Ans: (b)
Q2. Learners cannot learn unless
(a) they are taught according to the needs of social aims of education
(b) they know that the material being taught will be tested in the near future
(c) they are prepared to learn
(d) they are asked about their learning in schools by their parents at home on a daily basis
Ans: (c)
Q3. The theory of social learning emphasises which of the following factors?
(a) Nature
(b) Nurture
(c) Adaptation
(d) Emendation
Ans: (b)
Q4. The psychosocial theory emphasises which of the following?
(a) Stimuli and response
(b) Phallic and latency stages
(c) Industry versus inferiority stage
(d) Operant conditioning
Ans: (c)
Q5. The fact that children require culturally relevant knowledge and skills is attributed to
(a) Charles Darwin
(b) B.F. Skinner
(c) Urie Bronfenbrenner
(d) Lev Vygotsky
Ans: (d)
Q6. As a teacher, you firmly believe in ‘saying no to ragging and bullying’ and put up posters and form committees in schools. The young adolescents who join you with strong beliefs, are at which of the following stages?
(a) The conventional level
(b) The pre-conventional level
(c) The post-conventional level
(d) Social order maintaining level
Ans: (c)
Q7. Progressive education is associated with which of the following statements?
(a) Teachers are the originators of information and authority.
(b) Knowledge is generated through direct experience and collaboration.
(c) Learning proceeds in a straight way with factual gathering and skill mastery.
(d) Examination is norm-referenced and external.
Ans: (b)
Q8. In the context of the the theory of multiple intelligences which one of the following intelligences is required for an air force pilot?
(a) Interpersonal
(b) Linguistic
(c) Kinesthetic
(d) Intrapersonal
Ans: (c)
Q9. The factor ‘g’ in the Spearman definition of intelligence stands for
(a) genetic intelligence
(b) generative intelligence
(c) general intelligence
(d) global intelligence
Ans: (c)
Q10. Retrieving hidden objects is evidence that infants have begun to master which of the following cognitive functions?
(a) Intentional behaviour
(b) Object permanence
(c) Problem solving
(d) Experimentation
Ans: (b)
Q11. Which one of the following may be the criteria of gender parity in a society?
(a) Comparison of the number of male and female teachers in school
(b) Equal number of distinctions achieved by boys and girls in Class 12
(c) Comparison of the number of boys and girls who survive up to Class 12
(d) Whether girl students are allowed to participate in competition organised outside the school
Ans: (c)
Q12. The knowledge of individual differences helps teachers in
(a) understanding the futility of working hard with backward students as they can never be at par with the class
(b) accepting and attributing the failure of students to their individual differences
(c) making their presentation style uniform to benefit all students equally
(d) assessing the individual needs of all students and teaching them accordingly
Ans: (d)
Q13. Assessment for learning
(a) fosters motivation
(b) is done for the purpose of segregation and ranking
(c) emphasises the overall importance of grades
(d) is an exclusive and a per se assessment activity
Ans: (a)
Q14. School-based assessments
(a) focus on exam techniques rather than outcomes
(b) offer less control students over what will be assessed
(c) improve learning by providing a constructive feedback
(d) encourage teaching to test as they involve frequent testing
Ans: (c)
Q15. Students in a class are asked to assemble various artefacts of their work in a notebook to demonstrate what they can do for their society. What kind of activity is this?
(a) Essay type assessment
(b) Anecdotal records
(c) Problem solving assessment
(d) Portfolio assessment
Ans: (d)
Q16. By placing students in the least restricted school environment, the school
(a) equalises educational opportunities for girls and disadvantaged groups
(b) normalises the lives of children from deprived groups who were increasing the linkage of school with the parents and communities of these children
(c) gets disadvantaged children’s involvement in activities such as science fairs and quizzes
(d) sensitises other children not to bully or put the disadvantaged children down
Ans: (b)
Q17. Reducing the time allotted to complete an assignment to make it coincide with the time of attention and increasing this time in a phased manner will be best suited to deal with which of the following disorders?
(a) Disruptive behaviour disorder
(b) Dysphasia
(c) Sensory integration disorder
(d) Attention deficit hyperactivity disorder
Ans: (d)
Q18. Which one of the following approaches suggests interaction of the child with the people around him and with social institutions to deal with disruptive behaviour disorder?
(a) Psychodynamic
(b) Ecological
(c) Biological
(d) Behavioural
Ans: (b)
Q19. Renzulli is known for his ____ definition of giftedness.
(a) four-tiered
(b) four-level
(c) three-circle
(d) three-sided
Ans: (c)
Q20. For gifted students,
(a) it is safe to consider aptitude as a skill
(b) there is no need to monitor progress
(c) the teacher should adapt as the student changes
(d) the teacher should initiate and lead problem solving
Ans: (c)
Q21. Which one of the following is the most appropriate method to monitor the progress of children with learning disabilities?
(a) Case study
(b) Anecdotal records
(c) Behaviour-rating scale
(d) Structured behavioural observation
Ans: (d)
Q22. The best way to increase chances of disabled students leading a full and productive life, is by
(a) focusing on the weaknesses of such students
(b) maintaining high expectations from such students
(c) teaching a variety of skills and strategies that can be applied across a range of contexts
(d) encouraging these children of define their own goals
Ans: (c)
Q23. According to the Socio-cultural Theory of Vygotsky,
(a) culture and language play a crucial role in development
(b) the child thinks in different domains and does not take a complete perspective
(c) children think in abstract terms if presented abstract material at a lower age
(d) self-directed speech is the lowest stage of the scaffold
Ans: (a)
Q24. To explain, predict, and/or control phenomena are the goals of
(a) traditional reasoning
(b) inductive reasoning
(c) deductive reasoning
(d) scientific method
Ans: (d)
Q25. A Class VII student makes errors in mathematics. As a teacher you would
(a) provide the student the correct answer
(b) allow the student to use calculator
(c) ask the student to use the alternative method or redo it to find out errors on his/her own
(d) show the student where the errors were made and ask the student to redo it
Ans: (c)
Q26. Emotional intelligence may be associated with which domain of the theory of multiple intelligences?
(a) Intrapersonal and interpersonal intelligences
(b) Naturalist intelligence
(c) Visual-spatial intelligence
(d) Existential intelligence
Ans: (a)
Q27. Which one of the following facts has been the least discussed in the psychology of emotion?
(a) Emotion is a subjective feeling and varies from person to person.
(b) Emotions may not only occur within individual students, but also with the entire class.
(c) Emotions are a complex pattern of arousal and cognitive interpretation.
(d) Emotional process involves physiological as well as psychological reactions.
Ans: (b)
Q28. Rajesh is struggling to solve a problem of mathematics completely. The inner force compelling him to search for a way to solve it completely is known as
(a) motive
(b) personality trait
(c) emotion
(d) perception
Ans: (a)
Q29. Which one of the following is properly sequenced in the context of the motivation cycle?
(a) Arousal, Drive, Need, Achievement, Goal-directed behaviour, Reduction of arousal
(b) Drive, Need, Arousal, Goal-directed behaviour, Achievement, Reduction of arousal
(c) Need, Goal-directed behaviour, Drive, Arousal, Achievement, Reduction of arousal
(d) Need, Drive, Arousal, Goal-directed behaviour, Achievement, Reduction of arousal
Ans: (d)
Q30. Which of the following is a process in the social observational learning theory of Bandura?
(a) Reflection
(b) Retention
(c) Repetition
(d) Recapitulation
Ans: (b)

Part II: Social Studies

Q31. In some areas, people started living in villages about 8000 years ago. Which of the following were among these areas?
(a) Areas around Narmada
(b) Sulaiman and Kirthar hills
(c) Ganga and Yamuna doab
(d) Deccan and Konkan
Ans: (b)
Q32. Which of the following areas was known as Magadha in the ancient period?
(a) South of Ganga
(b) Between Ganga and Yamuna
(c) North of Ganga
(d) Between Yamuna and Chambal
Ans: (a)
Q33. Bharata was a group of people mentioned in the Rigveda. They lived in
(a) South India
(b) North India
(c) West India
(d) North-West India
Ans: (d)
Q34. Rigveda was originally composed in
(a) Prakrit
(b) Sanskrit
(c) Brahmi
(d) Shauraseni
Ans: (b)
Q35. Which of the following was not a reason for huntergatherers to move from place to place?
(a) Staying at one place would deplete resources
(b) To follow movement of animals which they hunted
(c) To fight for resources with another group of huntergatherers
(d) To search for water resources
Ans: (c)
Q36. Which period is the longest in the human history?
(a) Palaeolithic Age
(b) Megalithic Age
(c) Mesolithic Age
(d) Neolithic Age
Ans: (a)
Q37. Ancient rock paintings have been found in
(a) Karnataka and Tamil Nadu
(b) Tamil Nadu and Andhra Pradesh
(c) Andhra Pradesh and Odisha
(d) Madhya Pradesh and Uttar Pradesh
Ans: (d)
Q38. Which of the following is not a Harappan site?
(a) Rakhigarhi
(b) Sotkakoh
(c) Ganweriwala
(d) Chirand
Ans: (d)
Q39. Puru, Yadu and Bharata are mentioned in the Vedas as
(a) Janas
(b) Rashtras
(c) Rajanyas
(d) Dasyus
Ans: (a)
Q40. Shafi’s and Hanafi are
(a) Islamic architecture styles
(b) Places in Saudi Arabia
(c) Islamic schools of law
(d) Two Islamic rulers
Ans: (c)
Q41. Dantidurga, who performed a ritual called hiranyagarbha, was a
(a) Chola King
(b) Pratihara Chief
(c) Rashtrakuta Chief
(d) Pallava Chief
Ans: (c)
Q42. Who has written that Raziya was more able and qualified than her brothers?
(a) Al-Biruni
(b) Badayuni
(c) Minhaj-i-Siraj
(d) Ziyauddin Barani
Ans: (c)
Q43. In an inscription, a Delhi Sultan is said to have been chosen by God because he had the qualities like Moses and Solomon. Who was that Delhi Sultan?
(a) Sikandar Lodi
(b) Firoz Shah Tughlaq
(c) Balban
(d) Alauddin Khilji
Ans: (d)
Q44. In which revenue settlement during the East India Company’s rule, was the village headman made responsible to collect revenue and pay it to the Company?
(a) Zamindari Settlement
(b) Permanent Settlement
(c) Ryotwari Settlement
(d) Mahalwari Settlement
Ans: (d)
Q45. In which ways did World War I alter the economic and political situations in India?
(a) Political activities of the Indian National Congress were banned for six years.
(b) Common people got benefited as there was a sharp fall in prices.
(c) Many princely states rebelled against the British rule.
(d) Indian industries expanded as war created a demand for industrial goods.
Ans: (d)
Q46. Which of the following is an example of desert?
(a) Ladakh
(b) Sundarban
(c) Konkan
(d) Western Ghats
Ans: (a)
Q47. Which of the following statements regarding position of the earth is true?
(a) The axis of the earth is a definite line that makes an angle of 66 ° with its orbital plane.
(b) The axis of the earth is a definite line that makes an angle of 23 ° with its orbital plane.
(c) The axis of the earth is an imaginary line that makes an angle of 66 ° with its orbital plane.
(d) The axis of the earth is an imaginary line that makes an angle of 23 ° with its orbital plane.
Ans: (c)
Q48. The circle of illumination is the
(a) circle that divides the globe into two parts
(b) circle that divides the day from night on the globe
(c) position of the earth on equinox when day and night are equal
(d) position of the sun on a particular meridian at 12: 00 o’clock noon
Ans: (b)
Q49. Conventionally, the direction marked ‘A’ represents
(a) North
(b) South
(c) East
(d) West
Ans: (d)
Q50. Lakshadweep islands are located in the
(a) Indian Ocean
(b) Arabian Sea
(c) Bay of Bengal
(d) South China Sea
Ans: (b)
Q51. ‘Campos’ found in Brazil is a
(a) tribe
(b) tropical grassland
(c) traditional dance
(d) tropical animal
Ans: (b)
Q52. The Kolkata port is situated on the
(a) Ganga Sagar
(b) Bay of Bengal
(c) River Hooghly
(d) River Bhargirathi
Ans: (c)
Q53. Which continent is the least populated in the world?
(a) Europe
(b) Australia
(c) South America
(d) Africa
Ans: (b)
Q54. ‘Gompas’ found in Ladakh are
(a) Buddhist monasteries/temples
(b) Variety of goat
(c) Variety of shawl
(d) Buddhist monks
Ans: (a)
Q55. The diagram represents
(a) Orographic rainfall
(b) Convectional rainfall
(c) Cyclonic rainfall
(d) Pre-monsoon rainfall
Ans: (c)
Q56. Which industry is often called the backbone of modern industries?
(a) Petroleum
(b) Energy
(c) Transport
(d) Steel
Ans: (d)
Q57. In organic farming
(a) chemical fertilisers are used to increase yield
(b) genetic modification is done to increase yield
(c) organic manures and bio-fertilisers are used
(d) only production of cotton has been allowed in India
Ans: (c)
Q58. Which of the following is true with regard to food security?
(a) Food security exists when the government maintains buffer stock of grains for next five years.
(b) The government imposes ban on grains exports for maintaining sufficient stock.
(c) The government encourages producing organic foods for better and secure health.
(d) Food security exists when all people, at all times have access to sufficient, safe and nutritious food.
Ans: (d)
Q59. Which of the following is a popular eco-friendly automobile fuel?
(a) CNG
(b) PNG
(c) LPG
(d) KG-6
Ans: (a)
Q60. Barometer is used to
(a) measure rainfall
(b) measure temperature
(c) measure atmospheric pressure
(d) measure sea level
Ans: (c)
Q61. The apostle of Christ, St. Thomas, is believed to have come to
(a) Goa
(b) Karnataka
(c) Tamil Nadu
(d) Kerala
Ans: (d)
Q62. What is Zulu?
(a) A tribe of South Africa
(b) A language of South Africa
(c) National animal of South Africa
(d) A traditional dance of South Africa
Ans: (b)
Q63. According to the Constitution, how many organs of the State are there?
(a) Two
(b) Three
(c) Four
(d) Five
Ans: (b)
Q64. Federalism refers to
(a) the existence of more than one level of government in the country
(b) federation of States to run the country
(c) a system where only the Central Government has the right to make laws
(d) a system where Judiciary is the highest authority in the country
Ans: (a)
Q65. If a politician in one State decides to not allow labourers from other States to work in his state, which Fundamental Right will be violated?
(a) Right to Equality
(b) Right to Freedom
(c) Right against Exploitation
(d) Right to Constitutional Remedies
Ans: (a)
Q66. The Rajya Sabha can have
(a) 225 members
(b) 235 members
(c) 245 members
(d) 260 members
Ans: (c)
Q67. The Parliament in our system has immense power because
(a) it has the power to make laws
(b) it has the power to overrule judiciary
(c) it is the representative of the people
(d) all powers are vested with the Parliament
Ans: (c)
Q68. The function of the executive in the Indian democracy is to
(a) enact laws
(b) implement laws made by the Parliament
(c) elect the Prime Minister
(d) elect the President
Ans: (b)
Q69. The Mid-day Meal Programme is said to have many positive effects. Which one of the following is not one of them?
(a) Enrolment of poor children in schools has increased.
(b) Caste prejudices have been reduced.
(c) Poor students can now concentrate on their studies, as they do not have empty stomachs.
(d) Poor children are getting high marks in examination.
Ans: (d)
Q70. The wheel diagram shows typical employment opportunities available to labourers in rural areas. For how long are they unable to get regular jobs?

(a) Three months
(b) Four months
(c) Five months
(d) Six months
Ans: (c)
Q71. A method used in a Social Science classroom in which learners are asked to evaluate one another’s likeability is called
(a) self-assessment
(b) sociometric techniques
(c) case study
(d) psychometric techniques
Ans: (b)
Q72. Which of the following is an essential quality of creative thinking?
(a) Convergent
(b) Generative
(c) Reflective
(d) Deductive
Ans: (b)
Q73. In order to understand the role of various issues during an election, which of the following would you most likely ask your students?
(a) Analyse newspaper editorials regarding arguments against each other by political parties
(b) Analyse each party’s priorities and the types of policies it is most likely to support
(c) Conduct survey in your locality for the popularity of political parties
(d) Analyse and compare the time devoted by national news channels to different parties
Ans: (b)
Q74. Which of the following would you recommend for peer learning in your classroom?
(a) Drama
(b) Computer-aided learning
(c) Participation in routine activities only
(d) Visit to research laboratories
Ans: (a)
Q75. Which of the following statements is correct about Social Science?
(a) Social science is not concerned with diverse concerns of society.
(b) Social science emphasises homogeneity and rituals.
(c) Social science is a subjectivist discipline.
(d) Social science lays the foundation for an analytical and creative mindset.
Ans: (d)
Q76. In Social Science, the recent NCF position paper on examination reforms emphasises
(a) open book exams
(b) continuous assessment
(c) test performance
(d) flexible sitting arrangement while testing
Ans: (b)
Q77. Studying the life history of a village community to understand the education of young ones is the example of
(a) secondary data
(b) narrative data
(c) clinical case study data
(d) primary data
Ans: (d)
Q78. The process of deriving inferences from observable facts is called
(a) analysis
(b) exposition
(c) deduction
(d) brainstorming
Ans: (c)
Q79. To show the change in rainfall in a particular region in a decade, which of the following would be a suitable teaching aid?
(a) Flow chart
(b) Bar diagram
(c) Frequency polygon
(d) Venn diagram
Ans: (b)
Q80. ‘To understand the importance of knowledge and wisdom of peers’ – is valued in which perspective?
(a) Cognitive
(b) Emotive
(c) Behaviourist
(d) Constructivist
Ans: (d)
Q81. Which of the following teaching methods would be most effective in Social Science that teachers must use?
(a) Ensure that learners have learnt the content by taking repetitive tests
(b) Assign grades liberally
(c) Engage learners in critical and thought-provoking activities
(d) Assign home assignments
Ans: (c)
Q82. In the Indian pluralistic society, textbooks of Social Science should
(a) reflect the majority opinion
(b) reflect the government’s views
(c) avoid controversial issues
(d) include and represent all religions and social groups
Ans: (d)
Q83. In order to teach about equity which of the following would be the most suitable method?
(a) Give a lecture
(b) Give a project
(c) Assign field work around the ideas of poverty and capitalism
(d) Highlight the constitutional provisions to promote equity
Ans: (c)
Q84. Which of the following will promote the social learning of rules, regulations and values?
(a) Project work
(b) Group discussions
(c) Book reading
(d) Writing essays
Ans: (b)
Q85. Which of the following descriptions of a learner’s behaviour could be used to assess attitudes and values in a Social Science classroom?
(a) Accepting all the ideas of teachers
(b) Insisting to work alone
(c) Feeling free to ask questions
(d) Getting good grades in academics
Ans: (c)
Q86. Diagnostic and remedial teaching in a Social Science classroom will involve
(a) recognition of specific difficulty of the student
(b) providing a lot of materials to read
(c) providing a lot of opportunities for discussions
(d) correcting the errors of students instantly
Ans: (a)
Q87. During teacher-education, micro-teaching refers to
(a) teaching by observing the teacher-educator minutely
(b) teaching a miniature classroom with peers roleplaying as students
(c) teaching students in small groups
(d) teaching a small chunk of content at a time
Ans: (b)
Q88. When a teacher uses individual experiences in order to explain concepts in a Social Science class, then he is
(a) making the lesson engaging
(b) channelising the energies of students
(c) promoting the ability to relate their local reality with the global context
(d) take care of the linguistic and cultural diversity among learners
Ans: (c)
Q89. Which of the following constitutes the cultural capital of a student?
(a) Monetary and financial resources
(b) Electronic equipment available for use by a student
(c) Educational background of the family
(d) Number of places that a student has visited
Ans: (c)
Q90. Which of the following is an aspect of progressive education in a Social Science classroom?
(a) Segregation of learners
(b) Functional intelligence
(c) Emphasis on scoring in examination
(d) Respect for plurality and multiplicity
Ans: (d)

Part III: Language I English

Directions: Read the given passage and answer the questions that follow (Q. 91–99) by selecting the most appropriate option.
The first detailed description of plastic surgical procedures is found in the clinical text on Indian surgery, the Sushruta Samhita, which incorporates the details of surgical tools and operative techniques. Sushruta wrote based on the lectures of his teacher, the famous surgeon king, Bevadas. He taught his pupils to try their knives first on natural as well as artificial objects resembling diseased parts of the body before undertaking actual operations. It is interesting to note that modern surgery stresses so much upon simulation, models and cadaver training before actual performance to increase and improve patient safety. He stressed on both theoretical and practical training and had famously remarked once: “The physician who has only the book of knowledge (Sastras) but is unacquainted with the practical methods of treatment or who knows the practical details of the treatment but from self-confidence does not study the books is unfit to practise his calling.” Sushruta considered surgery to be the most important branch of all the healing arts, and he had performed and described in detail several complicated operations. These include operations for intestinal obstruction, hernia repairs, bladder stone, but more importantly, several plastic surgical operations, including those for the cleft lip and nose reshaping, which are performed virtually unchanged even today from his descriptions about 3000 years ago;
Q91. The paragraph focuses on the
(a) evolution of medicine in India
(b) life of Sushruta and his work
(c) India’s contribution to medical science
(d) methods of plastic surgery in India
Ans: (c)
Q92. Sushruta’s training consisted of
(a) acquiring complete theoretical knowledge
(b) apprenticeship under a guru
(c) practice on objects similar to human body parts
(d) focusing on non-surgical procedures
Ans: (c)
Q93. The passage gives us details about
(a) how to perform certain types of surgery
(b) how to become a good surgeon
(c) how surgery can replace other treatments
(d) how patients have to be treated after surgery
Ans: (b)
Q94. The closest meaning of the word ‘undertaking’ is
(a) experimenting on
(b) taking up
(c) trying out
(d) venturing to
Ans: (d)
Q95. A word or phrase that can replace ‘virtually unchanged’ in the text is
(a) literally unknown
(b) very well known
(c) factually unaltered
(d) slowly evolving
Ans: (c)
Q96. An antonym of the word ‘complicated’ is
(a) facile
(b) stressful
(c) unknown
(d) mysterious
Ans: (a)
Q97. The personal quality which Sushruta warns against is
(a) arrogance
(b) cowardice
(c) rudeness
(d) ignorance
Ans: (a)
Q98. According to Sushruta, ___ are above all healing arts.
(a) observation and counselling
(b) surgery and post-operative care
(c) timely administration of medicine and counselling
(d) study of patient’s condition
Ans: (b)
Q99. The writer’s objective here is to
(a) present a short history of ancient surgical practices
(b) outline about India’s potential in the medical field
(c) draw attention to Indian traditional knowledge
(d) compare modern and ancient practices
Ans: (c)
Directions: Read the given poem and answer the questions that follow (Q. 100–105) by selecting the most appropriate option.
Remnants Left Behind A leaf detaching herself from a tree strong winds howling catching in a gale just won’t let her be.
A ship sailing on an ocean being bashed by heavy winds forcing her to dry land seeking asylum once again.
Footprints in the sand leaving behind positive thoughts until the tide rushes in and everything is lost.
Remnants of two lovers once so young, and bold signatures etched on a heart A love story never told.
Heather Burns
Q100. The poet’s message here is about the power of
(a) human love that is permanent
(b) nature that can create or destroy
(c) the sea over human life
(d) human beings over nature
Ans: (b)
Q101. just won’t let her be ………” uses __________as the poetic device.
(a) simile
(b) personification
(c) fallacy
(d) exaggeration
Ans: (b)
Q102. In the phrase “……..seeking asylum”, ‘asylum’ means
(a) port
(b) shore
(c) beach
(d) cliff
Ans: (a)
Q103. “… Footprints in the sand …” symbolises
(a) false images
(b) brief lives
(c) short memories
(d) patterns on the sand
Ans: (c)
Q104. The line “Remnants of two lovers …………” suggests to the reader that the lovers
(a) had died together at sea
(b) have decided to spend their lives together
(c) are no longer in love with each other
(d) are now separated from each other
Ans: (c)
Q105. In “……. signatures etched on a……..” ‘etched’ means
(a) chipped
(b) scratched’
(c) engraved
(d) cut
Ans: (c)
Directions: Answer the following questions by selecting the most appropriate option.
Q106. The ‘acquired system’ or ‘acquisition’ of a language is the
(a) formal skills development
(b) subconscious process of learning
(c) input-output process
(d) self-monitoring of learning
Ans: (b)
Q107. Language teachers have to do a ‘needs analysis’ of their students to
(a) measure their learning ability
(b) find out students’ interest in the choice of language
(c) compare the achievement levels among students
(d) evaluate their existing competence
Ans: (d)
Q108. The question: How will I achieve my teaching goal?, in the design of a language instruction, which helps the teacher to ‘keep the lesson on target’, is/are the
(a) objectives
(b) methodology
(c) evaluation
(d) documentation
Ans: (a)
Q109. What are some of the features of a good listening task?
(a) Simple and easily completed in a large class
(b) Gives clues and supports completion of the task
(c) Inexpensive to administer for a large number of students
(d) Has a variety of tasks to be chosen from by students
Ans: (b)
Q110. Combining movement abilities with academics, such as speaking a language, is referred to as
(a) cognitive skills
(b) affective skills
(c) motor-perceptual skills
(d) interaction skills
Ans: (c)
Q111. When the teacher quietly observes students during a collaborative grammar activity, the activity plays a ______role.
(a) diagnostic
(b) evaluative
(c) interactive
(d) record keeping
Ans: (a)
Q112. Students can master complex language structures without being aware of the fact that they are doing so, through
(a) regular, simple grammar practice sessions
(b) teachers avoiding the teaching of structures altogether
(c) use of grammar games with a focus on relevant structures
(d) more speaking and listening practice with regular feedback
Ans: (c)
Q113. In this example, there is a deviation from the apparently intended form of an utterance. Identify the error.
Target: I must let the cat out of the house.
Error: I must let the house out of the cat.
(a) lexical selection error
(b) word-exchange error
(c) omission
(d) substitution
Ans: (b)
Q114. ________ is the particular way a learner prefers to learn a second or foreign language.
(a) Cognitive style
(b) Cognitive process
(c) Behaviourist approach
(d) Literal approach
Ans: (a)
Q115. The focus is on using the language rather than analysis of the language, and grammar is taught implicitly rather than explicitly.
(a) Direct approach
(b) Communicative approach
(c) Grammar-translation method
(d) Structural method
Ans: (b)
Q116. Students are asked to answer inferential questions about information which was implied by the text.
Here, students’ ______ can be evaluated.
(a) speaking skill
(b) listening and writing skills
(c) reading and listening skills
(d) reading skill
Ans: (c)
Q117. Teachers may respond to young writers according to their individual needs. How?
(a) Give them a detailed feedback on grammatical errors only.
(b) Praise what they do well, making specific comments about the work.
(c) Encourage them by overlooking certain errors.
(d) Reward those students who write well before the whole class.
Ans: (b)
Q118. How does computer technology support language learning in Classes V and VI to enhance accuracy in students’ writing?
(a) Rapid drill work
(b) Detailed error feedback
(c) Spelling and grammar checking
(d) Formatting and font designs
Ans: (c)
Q119. The benefit of the bilingual approach in a second language classroom is that
(a) students gain confidence in the mother tongue
(b) students stop using their mother tongue altogether
(c) students understand basic concepts/assumptions more easily
(d) there is less distraction for students in the class
Ans: (c)
Q120. Individualised educational programmes with intensive support to help students consolidate their basic knowledge are referred to as
(a) advanced study programmes
(b) introductory courses
(c) remedial coaching
(d) revision sessions
Ans: (c)

भाग IV: भाषा II हिन्दी

निर्देश: गद्यांश को पढ़कर निम्नलिखित प्रश्नों (प्र. सं. 121 से 128) में सबसे उचित विकल्प चुनिए।
मनुष्य अपने विकास के लिए प्राकृतिक संसाधनों का दोहन करके अपनी विविध आवश्यकताओं की पूर्ति करता है। प्राकृतिक संसाधनों का संरक्षण, संवर्धन एवं मितव्ययितापूर्वक उपयोग मानव की कुशलता, लगन एवं समर्पण पर निर्भर है। प्रकृति के अमूल्य उपहारों, जैसे- वन, जल, खनिज आदि को अपने कल्याण के लिए संपूर्ण प्रयोग करना मानव-मात्र की इच्छा शक्ति व तर्क पर निर्भर है। मानव की प्रगति के सतत विकास का महत्त्व गांधीजी ने बहुत पहले ही पहचान लिया था। इसलिए सतत विकास हेतु मानव की आत्मनिर्भरता को ध्यान में रखकर संसाधनों के संरक्षण पर ज़ोर दिया। विकास का ध्येय जीवन के आर्थिक ही नहीं वरन् सामाजिक, आर्थिक, नैतिक और आध्यात्मिक स्तर को ऊँचा उठाना होना चाहिए। प्रकृति से संस्कृति की ओर बढ़ने की आकांक्षा हमेशा होनी चाहिए। जहाँ इस आकांक्षा की पूर्ति होगी उसे इतिहास में स्वर्ण युग का नाम देना उचित होगा न कि साहित्य और कला की तरक्की का। इस दृष्टि से अभी तक भारत का स्वर्ण युग दूर-दूर तक दिखाई नहीं देता।
Q121. भारत स्वर्ण युग दूर-दूर तक इसलिए दिखाई नहीं देता, क्योंकि
(a) भारत में सोना कम हो गया है
(b) प्रकृति से संस्कृति की ओर बढ़ने की आकांक्षा पूरी नहीं हो रही है
(c) प्रकृति के संसाधनों का संरक्षण नहीं हो रहा है
(d) लोगों का आर्थिक स्तर नहीं बढ़ा है
Ans: (b)
Q122. मनुष्य अपने विकास के लिए क्या करता ह?ै
(a) प्राकृतिक संसाधनों का दोहन करता है
(b) अधिक मेहनत करता है
(c) प्राकृतिक संसाधनों का संरक्षण करता है
(d) विविध संसाधन जुटाता है
Ans: (a)
Q123. मानव की कुशलता, लगन और समर्पण पर क्या निर्भर करता है?
(a) प्राकृतिक संसाधनों का संरक्षण
(b) प्राकृतिक संसाधनों का संवर्धन
(c) प्राकृतिक संसाधनों की मितव्ययता
(d) उपर्युक्त सभी
Ans: (a)
Q124. गांधीजी ने किस पर ज़ोर दिया?
(a) औद्योगिक विकास पर
(b) तकनीकी विकास पर
(c) प्राकृतिक संरक्षण पर
(d) मानव की आत्मनिर्भरता पर
Ans: (c)
Q125. गद्यांश के अनुसार कौन-सा विकास का ध्येय नहीं ह?ै
(a) नैतिक स्तर को ऊँचा उठाना
(b) भौतिक स्तर को ऊँचा उठाना
(c) सामाजिक स्तर को ऊँचा उठाना
(d) आध्यात्मिक स्तर को ऊँचा उठाना
Ans: (b)
Q126. गद्यांश के अनुसार कहा जा सकता है कि
(a) मनुष्य को प्रकृति के अमूल्य उपहारों का प्रयोग सोच-समझकर करना चाहिए
(b) प्रकृति ने मनुष्य को कम उपहार दिए हैं
(c) प्रकृति ने मनुष्य को उपहार-स्वरूप केवल वन और जल दिया है
(d) मनुष्य प्राकृतिक उपहारों का अधिक संरक्षण करता है
Ans: (a)
Q127. किस शब्द में ‘इक’ प्रत्यय का प्रयोग नहीं हो सकता ह?ै
(a) अर्थ
(b) नीति
(c) कला
(d) अध्यात्म
Ans: (c)
Q128. निम्नलिखित में से कौन-सा संज्ञा शब्द नहीं ह?ै
(a) भारत
(b) मानव
(c) गांधीजी
(d) दिखाई
Ans: (d)
निर्देश: गद्यांश को पढ़कर निम्नलिखित प्रश्नों (प्र. सं. 129-135) में सबसे उचित विकल्प चुनिए।
हैरानी की बात यह है कि मेरी दलील मित्रों के हलक़ से नहीं उतरती थी, तब मैं उनसे कहता था- ‘साहित्य की हर विधा को हर तरह की लेखनी को मैं बतौर चुनौती स्वीकार करता हूँ। आम आदमी से लेकर ख़ास आदमी तक के हृदय को छूना कोई मामूली बात नहीं होती। यह तो आप भी स्वीकार करेंगे, क्योंकि यह काम सिर्फ रामायण और महाभारत जैसे ग्रंथ ही कर पाते हैं।’ मेरी यह दलील रामबाण सिद्ध होती थी, वे सारे मित्र सोच में पड़ जाते थे, क्योंकि वे केवल किसी भी एक वर्ग के लिख पाते थे- ‘मास’ के लिए ‘क्लास’ के लिए।
उनके दायरे सीमित थे। लेकिन मैं दायरों के बाहर का शख्स हूँ। शायद इसी कारण मैं आपसे खुलकर अंतरंग बातें भी कर सकता हूँ। बात कहानी की रचना-प्रक्रिया से आरंभ की थी। तब मैं ‘ओ.हेनरी‘ की एक कहानी पढ़ता था और भीतर दो नई कहानियों के बीज अपने आप पड़ जाते थे। न कोई मशक्कत, ना कोई गहरी सोच। यह प्रोसेस मेरे लिए उतना ही आसान था जितना कि कैरम का खेल। फिर भी ये रचनाएँ कहानी के शिल्प में कहानी विधा के अंतर्गत लिखी गई पुख्ता किस्सागोई है। पर यह किस्सागोई जिंदगी से अलग नहीं हो सकती।
Q129. लेखक ने क़िस्सागोई को ज़िंदगी से अलग नहीं माना, क्योंकि
(a) हर लेखक अपनी ज़िंदगी की लंबी कहानी लिखता है
(b) हम अपने आस-पास जो देखते, महसूस करते हैं, उसे शब्द देते हैं
(c) कहानियों में लोगों के जीवन की सच्ची घटनाएँ होती हैं
(d) क़िस्सागोई का अर्थ ही है ज़िंदगी की कहानियाँ
Ans: (b)
Q130. ‘दलील का हलक़ से नहीं उतरने’ का आशय है
(a) दलील को स्वीकार न कर पाना
(b) दलील को दूसरों को ना बताना
(c) दलील को हलके से न लेना
(d) दलील के विपरीत दूसरी दलील रखना
Ans: (a)
Q131. लेखक के लेखन की क्या खा़ स बात ह?ै
(a) वे केवल क़िस्सागोई में निपुण हैं
(b) वे केवल ज़िंदगी की कहानी लिखते हैं
(c) उनका लेखन सभी तरह के लोगों के दिल को छूता है
(d) उनका लेखन ख़ास लोगों के ही दिल को छूता है
Ans: (c)
Q132. गद्यांश के आधार पर कहा जा सकता है कि
(a) लेखक को आ.े हेनरी की किताबें पढ़ना पसंद था
(b) लेखक के लेखन का दायरा थोड़ा बड़ा है
(c) लेखक बेहद कल्पनाशील और सृजनशील हैं
(d) लेखक दूसरों की कहानियों से जल्दी प्रभावित हो जाते हैं
Ans: (c)
Q133. लेखक को कहानी लिखने में
(a) बहुत मेहनत करनी पड़ती है
(b) मेहनत नहीं करनी पड़ती है
(c) बहुत सोचना-विचारना पड़ता है
(d) कहानी के शिल्प पर बहुत मेहनत करनी पड़ती है
Ans: (b)
Q134. ‘क्लास’ का अर्थ है
(a) कक्षा
(b) आम लोग
(c) ख़ास वर्ग
(d) मुनाफ़ा
Ans: (c)
Q135. ‘पुख्ता’ का अर्थ है
(a) ठोस
(b) आसान
(c) कठिन
(d) नई
Ans: (a)
निर्देश: निम्नलिखित प्रश्नों के उत्तर देने के लिए सबसे उचित विकल्प चुनिए।
Q136. उच्च प्राथमिक स्तर पर भाषा सीखने-सिखाने का उद्देश्य है
(a) विभिन्न स्थितियों में प्रभावी संप्रेषण की कुशलता का विकास करना
(b) विभिन्न स्थितियों में मानक भाषा का ही प्रयोग करने की कुशलता का विकास
(c) विभिन्न स्थितियों में मुहावरेदार भाषा का प्रयोग करने की कुशलता का विकास
(d) विभिन्न स्थितियों में व्याकरणसम्मत भाषा का प्रयोग करने की कुशलता का विकास
Ans: (a)
Q137. कक्षा आठ की एक बच्ची ‘लड़का’ को ‘लरका’ बोलती है।
इसका संभावित कारण है
(a) उसे उच्चारण का ज्ञान बिलकुल नहीं है
(b) यह उसकी मातृभाषा का प्रभाव है
(c) वह बोलने में लापरवाही बरतती है
(d) उसे उच्चारण दोष है
Ans: (b)
Q138. पॉल भाषा की कक्षा में अक्सर बाल साहित्य पढ़ते हुए नज़र आता है। इसका संभावित कारण है
(a) उसे केवल कहानियाँ पढ़ने का शौक है
(b) उसकी पाठ्य-पुस्तक नीरस है
(c) उसमें पढ़ने के प्रति ललक है
(d) शिक्षक का शिक्षण नीरस है
Ans: (c)
Q139. भाषा के आधारभूत कौशलों में सर्वोपरि है
(a) सुनना और बोलना
(b) पढ़ना और लिखना
(c) बोलना, पढ़ना और लिखना
(d) सुनना, बोलना, पढ़ना और लिखना
Ans: (d)
Q140. कक्षा छह के बच्चों के लिए कहानी, कविताओं आदि की किताबों का चयन करते समय आप किस बात का विशेष रूप से ध्यान रखेंगे?
(a) किताबें नैतिक उपदेशों से भरी हों
(b) किताबों के पृष्ठ कम हों
(c) किताबें बच्चों की मनोवैज्ञानिक और भाषिक ज़रूरतों के अनुरूप हों
(d) किताबों में रंगीन चित्र अवश्य हों
Ans: (c)
Q141. भाषा अनुकरण के माध्यम से ही सीखी जाती है। यह विचार किससे सम्बद्ध है?
(a) स्किनर से
(b) वाइगोत्स्की से
(c) चॉम्स्की से
(d) पियाज़े से
Ans: (a)
Q142. भाषा सीखने में तब अधिक आसानी होती है जब
(a) पाठ्य-पुस्तक नहीं पढ़ाई जाती
(b) बच्चों को समृद्ध भाषायी परिवेश उपलब्ध कराया जाए
(c) भाषा की परीक्षा नहीं होती
(d) जब शिक्षक कहानी सुनाते हैं
Ans: (b)
Q143. कक्षा में प्रिंट समृद्ध वातावरण से आशय है
(a) कक्षा में रंगीन चार्ट, पोस्टर आदि लगाना
(b) कक्षा की दीवारों पर रंगीन कविता आदि पेंट कराना
(c) कक्षा में बड़े आकार में वर्णमाला के चार्ट लगाना
(d) कक्षा में पढ़ाई जा रही विषय-वस्तु के अनुरूप लिखित सामग्री प्रदर्शित करना
Ans: (d)
Q144. कक्षा में दृष्टिहीन बच्चों के समावेशन के लिए आप क्या करेंगे?
(a) उन्हें भाषा-संबंधी आसान कार्य देंगे
(b) पढ़ाने के बाद उनसे कोई भी सवाल नहीं पूछेंगे
(c) धीमी गति से पाठ पढ़ते हुए उसके वर्णन को विस्तार देंगे
(d) ब्रेल लिपि में सामग्री उपलब्ध होने की प्रतीक्षा करेंगे
Ans: (c)
Q145. भाषा में सतत आकलन का उद्देश्य है
(a) यह जानना कि बच्चे भाषा में क्या नहीं जानते हैं
(b) यह जानना कि बच्चे पाठ्य-पुस्तक में क्या जानते हैं
(c) यह जानना कि बच्चों ने भाषा-संबंधी किन उद्देश्यों की प्राप्ति नहीं की
(d) यह जानना कि भाषा सीखने में बच्चों को किस प्रकार की मदद की आवश्यकता है
Ans: (d)
Q146. बच्चों की भाषायी क्षमता की क्रमिक प्रगति के बारे में बताने में सर्वाधिक मदद करता है
(a) पोर्टफोलियो
(b) लिखित परीक्षा
(c) अवलोकन
(d) जाँच सूची
Ans: (a)
Q147. उच्च प्राथमिक स्तर पर कहानी शिक्षण का उद्देश्य नहीं है
(a) भाषा के विविध प्रयोगों से परिचय कराना
(b) शब्द किस प्रकार संदर्भ में अर्थ देते हैं- इससे परिचय कराना
(c) कहानी-लेखन की विभिन्न शैलियों से परिचय कराना
(d) हिन्दी भाषा में लिखी गई सभी कहानियों से परिचय कराना
Ans: (d)
Q148. फ़रहीन अकसर अपनी कॉपी में कुछ न कुछ लिखती रहती है। एक भाषा-शिक्षक होने के नाते आपकी क्या प्रतिक्रिया होगी?
(a) फ़रहीन को कोई बीमारी है, उसका इलाज कराया जाए
(b) फ़रहीन को कॉपी के पन्ने ख़राब करने की आदत है, उसे मना किया जाए
(c) फ़रहीन अपने मन की बातों की अभिव्यक्ति चाहती है, उसके लेखन को कक्षा में प्रदर्शित किया जाए
(d) फ़रहीन को कुछ-न-कुछ करने की आदत है, इस पर ध्यान देने की ज़रूरत नहीं है
Ans: (c)
Q149. व्याकरण-शिक्षण की अपेक्षाकृत बेहतर विधि है
(a) आगमन विधि
(b) निगमन विधि
(c) सूत्र विधि
(d) पुस्तक विधि
Ans: (a)
Q150. हिन्दी भाषा की कक्षा में सबसे महत्त्वपूर्ण है
(a) पाठ्य-पुस्तक
(b) परीक्षाएँ
(c) पाठ्यचर्या-सहगामी क्रियाएँ
(d) बच्चों का भाषायी क्षमताओं में विश्वास 6
Ans: (d)

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