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UPSC ASSISTANT COMMANDANT PREVIOUS PAPER 2013

1.

A circle is drawn inside a square of length 4 units as shown in the figure given above. What is the area of the shaded portion?
(a) 16 – 4p
(b) 16 – p
(c) 4 – p
(d) 4 – 2p
Ans: (c)
2. If the ratio of X to Y is and the ratio of Y to Z is $\frac{3}{4}$ , then the ratio of X to Z is
(a) $\frac{12}{13}$
(b) $\frac{13}{3}$
(c) $\frac{1}{3}$
(d) $\frac{4}{13}$
Ans: (d)
3. The sum of the base and altitude of a triangle is 30 cm.
What is the maximum possible area of such a triangle?
(a) 100 cm2
(b) 110 cm2
(c) 112.5 cm2
(d) 120 cm2
Ans: (c)
4. If 9 mangoes cost as much as 5 oranges, 5 oranges as much as 3 apples, 4 apples as much as 9 pineapples and if 3 pineapples cost 48, what will a mango cost?
(a) 9
(b) 12
(c) 18
(d) 27
Ans: (b)
5.

In the diagram (not to scale) given above, the value of x is
(a) 51
(b) $\frac{9}{13}$
(c) 62 $\frac{360}{7}$
(d) 49 $\frac{6}{7}$
Ans: (b)
6. A campus poll covering 300 undergraduate students was conducted in order to study the students’ attitude towards a proposed change in the rules for hostel accommodation. The students were required to respond as ‘support’, ‘neutral’ or ‘oppose’ with regard to the issue.
The poll outcome was presented as a pie chart as given

The numbers for ‘support’, ‘neutral’ and ‘oppose’ are respectively
(a) 150, 90, 60
(b) 120, 100, 80
(c) 80, 100, 120
(d) 60, 90, 150
Ans: (b)
7. The following tables show the expenditure (in percentage) of two families A and B:

Which one among the following statements is true?
(a) Family A spends is much on miscellaneous as family B spends on entertainment
(b) The food expense of family B is equal to the total expense of family A
(c) Families A and B spend equally on food
(d) Families A and B spend equally on entertainment
Ans: (c)
8. Which one among the following diagrams illustrates relationship among animals, cows and horses?
(a)
(b)
(c)
(d)
Ans: (c)
9. Through how many degrees does hour hand a clock move as the time changes from 3 hours and 12 minutes to 6 hours?
(a) 105
(b) 99
(c) 90
(d) 84
Ans: (d)
10.

As shown in the above diagram, a person starts from the centre O of a circular path AB, walks along the line indicated by arrows and returns to the same point. If the radius OA = OB = 100 metres, what is the total distance walked to the nearest metres?
(a) 703
(b) 723
(c) 743
(d) 823
Ans: (b)
11. If 5 persons can weave 160 mats in 8 days, how many mats will 8 persons weave in 6 days?
(a) 200
(b) 192
(c) 190
(d) 180
Ans: (b)
12. Two cars are moving in the same direction with a speed of 45 km/hr and a distance of 10 km separates them. If a car coming from the opposite direction meets these two cars at an interval of 6 minutes, its speed would be
(a) 45 km/hr
(b) 55 km/hr
(c) 65 km/hr
(d) 75 km/hr
Ans: (b)
13. Which one among the following figures will come next in the series given below?

(a)
(b)
(c)
(d)
Ans: (b)
14.

Which one among the following boxes is similar to the box formed from the given sheet of paper (X)?
(a)
(b)
(c)
(d)
Ans: (b)
15. In a class, 40 students passed in Mathematics, 50% of the students passed in English, 5% of the students failed in Mathematics and English, and 25% of the students passed in both the subjects. What is the ratio of the number of students who passed in English to that in Mathematics?
(a) 1: 1
(b) 2: 3
(c) 5: 7
(d) 10: 9
Ans: (c)
16. The least integer whose multiplication with 588 leads to a perfect square is
(a) 2
(b) 3
(c) 4
(d) 7
Ans: (b)
17. The fifth term of the alphabet series BCYX, EFVU, HISR, KLPO,?
is
(a) NOML
(b) NOLM
(c) ONML
(d) ONLM
Ans: (a)
18. By selling an article at Rs. 270, a man loses 10%. If he would sell it at Rs. 360 his gain percent is
(a) 10
(b) 15
(c) 20
(d) 25
Ans: (c)
19. In a certain code, ‘PLANT’ is written as ‘\$ 2*ã’ and ‘YIELD’ is written as ‘b64 %’. How is ‘DELAY’ written in that code?
(a) b4*2%
(b) b4 2%
(c) %42 b
(d) %4 2b
Ans: (d)
20. If A is coded as 1, B as 3, C as 5 and so on, which of the following is the numerical value of the word ‘FAZED’ if the numerical value of ‘CABLE’ is 41?
(a) 81
(b) 80
(c) 79
(d) 77
Ans: (c)
21. Natural gas is mixture of gases and contains mainly
(a) methane and higher hydrocarbons
(b) butane and isobutene
(c) methane only
(d) methane, hydrogen and carbon monoxide
Ans: (a)
22. Diamond is a polymorph of graphite. Both contain carbon atoms, but they have extremely different properties because of the condition in which they are formed. Diamond is obtained after applying
(a) very high pressure and low temperature
(b) very low pressure and high temperature
(c) very low pressure and low temperature
(d) very high pressure and high temperature
Ans: (d)
23. The three primary soil micronutrients are
(a) carbon, oxygen and water
(c) nitrogen, phosphorus and potassium
(d) boron, zinc and magnesium
Ans: (c)
24. Diamond Ring, God’s Eye and Baily’s Beads are the parts of which one among the following natural phenomena?
(a) Solar eclipse
(b) Aurora
(c) Lightning
(d) Solar storm
Ans: (a)
25. ‘Turing machine’ server as
(a) a machine to identify explosives
(b) an indicator to inform about forest fire
(c) an instrument for finding out gravitational constant
(d) a theoretical computing machine to act as an ideal model for mathematical calculation
Ans: (d)
26. Leaves of lotus and water lily are not easily wet because the leaves
(a) have surface uneven in microscale and water cannot come into contact with the depressed areas due to high surface tension
(b) contain an oily substance
(c) contain a greasy substance
(d) have surface too smooth to attract water
Ans: (a)
27. Arsenic present in groundwater can be partially removed
(a) along with removal of iron by precipitation/coagulation method if iron is also present in the water
(b) on boiling even if iron is absent in the water
(c) on UV-treatment
(d) on filtration even if iron is absent in the water
Ans: (a)
28. Transformer is used to
a. convert low a.c. voltage to high voltage
b. convert high a.c. voltage to low voltage
c. convert direct current to alternating current
d. regulate the fluctuation of voltage Select the correct answer using the code given below.
(a) a and c only
(b) c and d
(c) a and b only
(d) a, b and c
Ans: (c)
29. The filament of electric bulb is generally made of tungsten because
(a) tungsten is cheap
(b) durability of tungsten is high
(c) light-emitting power of tungsten is high
(d) melting point of tungsten is high
Ans: (d)
30. Electricity meter may be a/an
(a) mainframe computer
(b) microcomputer
(c) hybrid computer
(d) analog computer
Ans: (b)
31. Advanced sunrise and delayed sun-set fount in the sky are due to the phenomenon of
(a) diffraction of sunlight
(b) refraction of sunlight
(c) scattering of sunlight
(d) total internal reflection of sun-light
Ans: (b)
32. The formation of colours in soap bubbles is due to the phenomenon of
(a) dispersion of light
(b) interference of light
(c) diffraction of light
(d) polarization of light
Ans: (b)
33. Geostationary satellite completes its one revolution around the earth in
(a) 90 minutes
(b) 24 hours
(c) 30 days
(d) 365 days
Ans: (b)
34. What is the correct sequence of conductivity when arranged in ascending order?
(a) Metals, semiconductors, insulators
(b) Insulators, metals, semiconductors
(c) Semiconductors, metals, insulators
(d) Insulators, semiconductors, metals
Ans: (d)
35. Which one among the following statements about ‘modem’ is correct?
(a) Modem is a software
(b) Modem helps in stabilizing the voltage
(c) Modem is an operating system
(d) Modem converts the analog signal into digital signal and vice versa
Ans: (d)
36. Which one among the following is not a form of carbon?
(a) Graphene
(b) Graphite
(c) Fullerene
(d) Quartz
Ans: (d)
37. Plants capable of performing photosynthesis belong to which one among the following types of organisms?
(a) Heterotrophs
(b) Saprotrophs
(c) Autorophs
(d) Chemiheterotrophs
Ans: (c)
38. With reference to India, which of the following statements relating to urbanisation is/are correct?
a. It is a manifestation of economic, social and political progress.
b. Rapid growth of urban population puts pressure on public utilities.
c. Urban sprout is encroaching the precious agricultural land Select the correct answer using the code given below.
(a) a and b only
(b) only b
(c) a and c only
(d) a, b and c
Ans: (d)
39. Which of the following statements regarding landslides is/ are correct?
a. They are sudden and sporadic.
b. They result when the slope is gentle.
c. Mining activity is also responsible for landslides.
Select the correct answer using the code given below:
(a) a and b only
(b) a and c only
(c) c only
(d) a, b and c
Ans: (b)
40. Which of the following statements related to globalization is/are correct?
a. It has resulted in the change of scale in economic activities.
b. End of Cold War facilitated globalisation.
c. Flow of money in transactional corporations is discouraged.
Select the correct answer using the code given below:
(a)a and b only
(b) a only
(c) b and c only
(d) a, b and c
Ans: (a)
41. The continent having the largest area in the equatorial belt is
(a) Asia
(b) South America
(c) Africa
(d) North America
Ans: (c)
42. Which of the following statements are correct?
a. Sediments of Gondwana System were deposited under marine condition.
b. Rocks of Gondwana System are fossiliferous.
c. Rocks of Gondwana System contain metallic mineral deposits.
d. Gondwana deposition took place in downfaulted trough.
Select the correct answer using the code given below.
(a) a, b and c
(b) a, b and d
(c) b and d only
(d) a and c only
Ans: (c)
43. Which one among the following statements is not correct?
(a) Shillong Plateau is an outlier of Penisular Plateau of India
(b) Aravalli Mountain is the oldest mountain China of India
(c) Vidhyans are examples of fold mountain
(d) Rajamahal Highlands are composed of lava deposits
Ans: (c)
44. Which one among the following systems contains the oldest rock formation of India?
(a) Aravali System
(b) Archean System
(c) Cuddapah System
(d) Vindhyan System
Ans: (b)
45. Which one among the following is not correct regarding the black soils of Peninsular India?
(a) Rich in iron, lime and potash
(b) Retentive in moisture
(c) Fertile and well-suited for growing sugarcane
(d) Rich in phosphorus and organic matter
Ans: (d)
46. Which one among the following places in India is nearest to the Tropic of Cancer?
(a) Aizawl
(b) Rajkot
(c) Kolkata
(d) Imphal
Ans: (a)
47. Match List-I with List-II and select the correct answer using the code given below the Lists:
List-I List-II
(River)
(City)
A. Spree 1. Bonn
B. Rhine 2. Hamburg
C. Seine 3. Paris
D. Elbe 4. Berlin
Code:
A
B C D
(a) 4 3 1 2
(b) 4 1 3 2
(c) 2 1 3 4
(d) 2 3 1 4
Ans: (b)
48. Which of the following pairs are correct matched?
a. Idukki: Thermal Power station
b. Sabarigiri: Hydroelectric Project
c. Ghatprabha: I r r i g a t i o n Project
d. Ramganga: Multipurpose Project Select the correct answer using the code given below:
(a) b, c and d
(b) a, b and d
(c) c and d only
(d) b and c only
Ans: (a)
49. Which one among the following States shares common boundaries with maximum number of other States?
(b) West Bengal
(c) Chhattisgarh
Ans: (c)
50. The Sate of Sikkim is surrounded by
(a) China, Nepal, Bhutan and West Bengal
(b) Bhutan, Nepal, West Bengal and Assam
(c) China, Nepal, West Bengal and Assam
(d) China, Bhutan, West Bengal and Assam
Ans: (a)
51. Khumbum monastery is situated in
(a) India
(b) Thailand
(c) China
(d) Japan
Ans: (c)
52. The place located at the confluence lf Alakananda and Pindar rivers is
(a) Rudraprayag
(b) Karnaprayag
(c) Devaprayag
(d) Vishnuprayag
Ans: (b)
53. Match List-I with List-II and select the correct answer using the code given below the Lists:
List-I List-II
(Continent)
(Desert)
A. Asia 1.Atacama
B. Africa 2.Mojave
C. North America 3.Kalahari
D. South America 4.Gobi
Code:
A
B C D
(a) 4 2 3 1
(b) 1 3 2 4
(c) 4 3 2 1
(d) 1 2 3 4
Ans: (c)
54. Which one among the following ocean currents mixes with Labrador current?
(a) Canaries current
(b) Benguela current
(c) Florida current
(d) California current
Ans: (c)
55. The Wallace’s Line distinguishes or separates the flora and fauna between
(b) Taiga region and Tundra region
(c) Mexico and Central America
(d) South-East Asia and Australia
Ans: (d)
56. Which one among the following is the major occupation in equatorial region?
(a) Growing of tropical crops
(b) Growing cereals
(c) Growing of citrus fruits
(d) Animal rearing
Ans: (a)
57. Mahatma Gandhi’s opposition to separate electorates for untouchables was because
(a) separate electorates would ensure them bondage in perpetuity
(b) of the apprehension of offending the conservative high caste Hindus
(c) it would weaken Mahatma Gandhi’s position as a leader
(d) None of the above
Ans: (a)
58. Various causes have been suggested for the decline of Harappan culture. Consider the causes mentioned below and identify the weakest of them.
(a) Due to constant incidents of naturally occurring floods
(b) Due to increase in the salinity of the soil, fertility decreased there
(c) Earthquakes caused changes in the course of the Indus, which led to inundation
(d) The Aryans invaded and destroyed the Harappan culture
Ans: (d)
59. Who among the following is the author of ‘Ashtadhyayi’, the Sanskrit grammar?
(a) Patanjali
(b) Panini
(c) Kalidasa
(d) Banabhatta
Ans: (b)
60. Which one of the following inscriptions was installed in the easternmost part of Ashoka’s territory?
(a) Barabar hill cave inscription
(b) Dhauli major rock edicts
(c) Sahasram minor rock edicts
(d) Lauriya Araraj pillar edicts
Ans: (b)
61. The prevalence of grain in Harappan sites indicted that
(a) Harappans ploughed their fields
(b) Harappans broadcast seed on their fields
(c) Agriculture was prevalent in Harappan sites
(d) Trade in bulk items like food grains was well-established in Harappan times
Ans: (c)
62. Which one among the following statements about industries in colonial India is not correct?
(a) The jute industry was almost entirely owned by Europeans
(b) The cotton textile industry was alomst wholly owned by Indians
(c) The cotton textile industry was small in size
(d) The growth of cotton industry was the result of government support
Ans: (d)
63. The establishment of Mughal rule in India
a. strengthened urbanization
b. strengthened inter-urban contact in riparian North India
d. decreased the risk of carrying long-distance trade Select the correct answer ushing code given below.
(a) a, b and c
(b) a and b only
(c) c and d only
(d) a only
Ans: (a)
64. The first major boost of modern industry in India happened in the 1860s. It was a direct result of
(a) the demand created in America because of the Civil War
(b) the demand created in Europe because of the Civil War in America
(c) thedecline in competition from the cotton mills of Lancashire and Manchester
(d) the support of government to industries in India
Ans: (b)
65. The significant difference between Mahayana and Hinayana forms of Buddhism lay in that
(a) Mahayana allowed for the transference of merit while in Hinayana, a person would only helpe another by example and advice
(b) Mahayana believed in the Bodhisattvas while Hinayana did not
(c) Hinayana promoted the ideas of a suffering saviour
(d) Mahayana propounded the idea of the ‘Arhant’, the ‘worthy’
Ans: (b)
66. The ancient trade route, popularly called the Dakshinapatha, connected
(a) Ajanta with Golconda
(b) Ellora with Muziris
(c) Ajanta with Arikamedu
(d) Ajanta with Pataliputra
Ans: (b)
67. The Salt Satyagraha
(a) encouraged Indians to manufacture salt
(b) showed to the government that Indians would break unfair laws
(c) proved that Mahatma Gandhi was a mass leader
(d) was designed to destroy the finances of the colonial government
Ans: (b)
68. The Khalafat Movement was built around
(a) opposing British rule in India
(b) protecting the sovereignty of the Khalifa
(c) opposing the national movement
(d) protesting against lack of educational opportunities in India
Ans: (b)
69. Mahatma Gandhi’s severe criticism of the Congress leadership at the opening of the Banaras Hindu University was focused on
(a) the Congress strategy for opposing the government
(b) the Congress accepting offices under the government
(c) condemnation of Indian nationalism for being an elite phenomenon
(d) All of the above
Ans: (c)
70. Akbar’s Ibadat Khana was the place where
(a) military strategy was decided
(b) inter-faith debates and discussions were held
(c) Akbar preached his principles of Sulh-i-kul
(d) fine arts were practised
Ans: (b)
71. The Buddhist Sangha was an organisation of monks
(a) who became teachers of Dhamma
(b) that helped the spread of education
(c) to help the integration of the State
(d) to prove relief to the poor in time of distress
Ans: (a)
72. Match List-I with List-II and select the correct answer using the code given below the Lists:
List-I List-II
(Festival)
(Occasion)
A. Vallamkali 1. T e m p l e Festival
B. Pooram 2. Boat race festival
C. Chapchar 3. The marri- Kut gage of Lord Krishna and Rukmini
D. Madhavrai 4. Spring fair festival
Code:
A
B C D
(a) 3 1 4 2
(b) 2 1 4 3
(c) 2 4 1 3
(d) 3 4 1 2
Ans: (b)
73. The direct correlation among, caste, poverty and social status implied that
a. with improvement in economic status, one could claim higher social status
b. cast hierarchy was immutable
c. lower castes were the only ones to be pushed into menial labour
d. with improvement in social status, one could claim higher caste status Select the correct answer using the code given below.
(a) a, b and d
(b) a, c and d
(c) b and d only
(d) a and c only
Ans: (b)
74. Ritual kinship was the hallmark of Vijayanagar rule. Vijayanagar rulers claimed to have ruled on behalf of which one among the following shrines?
(a) Vithala
(b) Tirupati
(c) Virupaksha
(d) Mallikarjuna
Ans: (c)
75. Separate electorates for representation of Indian Christians and Anglo-Indians were created under the
(a) Indian Councils Act, 1861
(b) Government of India Act, 1909
(c) Government of India Act, 1919
(d) Government of India Act, 1935
Ans: (c)
76. The Chipko Movement
a. was an environmental movement to prevent cutting down of trees
b. raised he question of ecological and economic exploitation
c. is a movement against alcoholism as its broadened agedna
d. demanded that local communities should have control over their natural resources Select the correct answer using the code given below:
(a) a and b only
(b) b and c only
(c) a, c and d only
(d) a, b, c and d only
Ans: (d)
77. The Parliament of India may form a new State by separation of territory from any State or by unifying any territory to a part of any State.
Which of the following procedures is/are true in this regard?
a. By a simple majority and by the oridinary legislative process
b. One the recommendation of the President, who usually has to refger the bill to the legislature of the State(s) which is/are going to be affected by the changes in the bill
c. On the advice of the Prime Minister to the President Select the correct answer using the code given below:
(a) a and b only
(b) a, b and c only
(c) b only
(d) a and c only
Ans: (b)
78. A bill introduced in the Parliament in order to become an Act, has to have which of the following procedures to be followed?
a. It is to be passed by both the Houses of the Parliament.
b. The President has to give his/her assent.
c. The Prime Minister has to sign it after the ratification by the Parliament.
d. The Supreme Court has to approve and declare it to be within the jurisdiction of the Parliament.
Select the correct answer using the code given below.
(a) a and b only
(b) a, b and c only
(c) a, b, c and d
(d) c and d only
Ans: (a)
79. Which of the following statements is/are correct?
a. Offices connected with a religious or denominated institution may be reserved for members professing the particualr religion to which the institution relates.
b. The State may reserve any post or appointment in favour of any backward class of citizens who, in the opinion of the State, are not adequately represented in the services under that States.
c. No citizen shall, on grounds of religion, race, caste, sex, descent, place of birth or any of them, be ineligible for any officer under the State.
Select the correct answer using the code given below:
(a) a and b only
(b) b and c only
(c) a, b and c
(d) c only
Ans: (c)
80. Consider the following statements:
a. While the Fundamental Rights constitute limitations on State action, the Directive Principles are in the nature of instruments of instruction to the govenment of the day to do certain things and to achive certain goals by their actions.
b. The Directive Principles, however, require to be implemented by legislations and so long as there is no law carrying out the policy laid down in a Directive Principle, neither the State nor an individual can violate any existing law or legal rights under the colour of getting a Directive.
c. The Directive Principles are enforceable in the courts and create justiciable rights in favour of the individual.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a) a, b and c
(b) a and c only
(c) a and b only
(d) b only
Ans: (c)
81. Consider the following statements:
a. In shall be the endeavour of every State and every local authority within the State to provide adequate facilities for instruction in mother tongue at the primary state of education to children belonging to linguistic minority groups.
b. The Constitution enjoins the Union of India to provide and promote the spread of Hindi language and the develop it so that it may serve as a medium of expression of all the elements of the composite culture of India.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a) a only
(b) b only
(c) Both a and b
(d) Neither a nor b
Ans: (c)
82. Which of the following expenditures is/are charged on the Consolidated Fund of India?
a. The emoluments and allowances of the President and the expenditure relating to his/her office
b. The salaries and allowances of the Chiairman and Deputy Chairman of the Council of Sates and the Speaker and Deputy Speaker and Deputy Speaker of the House of the People
c. Debt charges for which the Government of India is liable Select the correct answer using the code given below:
(a) a and b only
(b) a, b and c
(c) b and c only
(d) c only
Ans: (b)
83. Which of the following are the previleges of the House of the People collectively?
a. The right to publish debates and preceedings, and the right to restrain publication by others
b. The right to exclude others – the exclude strangers from the galleries anytime
c. The right to punish members and outsiders for breach of its privileges
d. What is said or done within the walls of the Parliament, however, can be inquired into a court of law.
Select the correct answer using the code given below:
(a) a, b and c only
(b) a, b, c and d
(c) a and b only
(d) c and d only
Ans: (a)
84. A bill is deemed to be a ‘Money Bill’ if it contains only provisions dealing with
a. the imposition, alteration or regulation of any tax
b. the regulation for the borrowing of money by the government
c. the custody of the Consolidated Fund of India or the Contigency Fund of India
d. the provision for imposition of fines or other penalties, or for the demand or payment of fees for licenses or fees for services rendered Select the correct answer using the code given below.
(a) a, b and c only
(b) a and b only
(c) c and d only
(d) a, b, c and d
Ans: (a)
85. Which of the following statements regarding the powers of the Speaker of the House of the People is/are correct?
a. The Speaker’s conduct in regulating the procedure of maintaining order in the House will not be subject to the jurisdictio of any court.
b. Besides presiding over his/ her own House, the Speaker possesses certain powers like presiding over a joint sitting of the two Houses of the Parliament.
c. While a resolution for his/ her temoval is under consideration, the Speaker shall preside but shall have no right to speak, and shall have no right of vote.
Select the correct answer using the code given below:
(a) a, b and c
(b) a and b only
(c) b and c only
(d) a only
Ans: (b)
86. A person shall be disqualified for being chosen as, and for being, a member of either House of the Parliament if she/he
a. holds any office of profit under the Government of India or the Government of any State, other than an office exempted by the Parliament by law
b. is of unsound mind and stands so declared by a competent court
c. remains absent from all meetings of the House for a period of 60 days without the permission of the House Select the correct answer using the code given below:
(a) a and b only
(b) b and c only
(c) a, b and c
(d) a and c only
Ans: (c)
87. Consider the following statements regarding termination of sitting of a House:
a. Only the House of the People is subjet to dissolution.
b. The powers of dissolution and prorogation are exercised by the President on the advice of the Council of Ministers.
c. The power of adjourn the daily sittings of the House of the People and the Council of States belongs to the Speaker and the Chairman respectively.
d. The Parliament cannot be dissolved as it is a permanent chamber.
Which of the statements give above are correct?
(a) a, b and c
(b) b, c and d
(c) a and c only
(d) a, b and d
Ans: (a)
88. Consider the following statements:
a. A person who is not a member of either House of the Parliament can be appointed a member of the Council of Ministers.
b. Anyone can be appointed as a member of the Council of Ministers for a maximum period of three years.
c. A person shall not be less than 25 years of age in order to become a minister.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a) a, b and c
(b) a only
(c) a and c only
(d) b and c only
Ans: (c)
89. The Central Administrative Tribunal adjudicates disputes with respect to the recruitment and conditions of service of persons appointed
a. to public services and posts in connnection with the affairs of the Union
b. members of the defence forces
c. officers and servants of the Supreme Court or of any High Court in India Select the correct answer using the code given below:
(a) a and b
(b) a only
(c) b only
(d) b and c
Ans: (b)
90. The following are some of the items of expenditure of the Central Government in India:
a. Interest payment
b. Major subsidies
c. Pensions
d. Loans and advances Which of the above is/are included in non-plan revenue expenditure?
(a) a only
(b) b and c only
(c) a, b and c
(d) b, c and d
Ans: (c)
91. If we deduct grants for creation of capital assets from revenue deficit, we arrive at the concept of
(a) primary deficit
(b) net fiscal deficit
(c) budgetary deficit
(d) effective revenue deficit
Ans: (d)
92. Which one among the following items has maximum weight in wholesale price index in India?
(a) Primary article
(b) Fuel and power
(c) Manufactured product
(d) Food item
Ans: (c)
93. Which among the following agencies disbursed maximum credit to the arricultural sector in India between 2006-07 and 2011-12?
(a) Cooperative banks
(b) Regional rural banks
(c) Commercial banks
(d) Moneylenders
Ans: (c)
94. Consider the following statements:
a. Repo rate is the interest rate at which RBI lends to commercial banks for short period.
b. Reverse repo rate is the interest rate which RBI pays to commercial banks on short-term deposits.
c. Gap between repo rate and reverse repo rate has been declining in India in the recent past.
Which of the statements given above is/are not correct?
(a) a only
(b) b only
(c) c only
(d) b and c
Ans: (c)
95. The rule of inflation in India is measured generally in respect of movement of
(a) consumer price index
(b) wholesale price index
(c) cost of living index for agricultural labour
(d) money supply
Ans: (b)
96. Privatisation includes
(a) sale of public enterprises to private sector
(b) disinvestment of public enterprise equity
(c) participation of private sector in management in public sector enterprises
(d) All of the above
Ans: (d)
97. Which of the following statements is correct with respect to the convertibility of Indian rupee?
(a) It is convertible on capital account
(b) It is convertible on current account
(c) It is convertible both on current and capital account
(d) None of the above
Ans: (c)
98. The Government of India refers to the absolute poverty line in terms of
(a) household savings
(b) household consumption
(c) household investment
(d) household income
Ans: (b)
99. In the current pricing policy, the price of diesel in India consists of
(a) Fuel component + Customs duty + Excise duty + Sales VAT + Dealer’s commission
(b) Fuel component + Excise duty + Sales VAT + Dealer’s commission
(c) Fuel component + Customs duty + Sales VAT + Dealer’s commission
(d) Fuel component + Customs duty + Excise duty + Dealer’s commission
Ans: (a)
100.Which one among the following is not a Mars rover?
(a) Sojourner
(b) Opportunity
(c) Curiosity
(d) Apollo
Ans: (d)
101.Consider the following statements:
a. The Fifth Summit of BRICS
(2013) was held in Durban.
b. Dr. Manmohan Singh became the only head of State or head of Government to attend all BRICS Summits held so far.
c. The theme of Fifth Summit of BRICS was “BRICS and Africa: Partnership of Deve,opment, Integration and Industrialisation”.
Which of the following statements given above is/are correct?
(a) a, b and c
(b) a and b only
(c) b and c only
(d) c only
Ans: (a)
102. The logo of which of the following famous organisations is a Giant Panda?
(a) World Wildlife Fund or World Wide Fund for Nature (WWF)
(b) International Union for Conservation of Nature and Natural Resources (IUCN)
(c) United Nations Educational, Scientific and Cultural Organisation (UNESCO)
(d) United Nations Environment Programme (UNEP)
Ans: (a)
103. Which of the following is the correct chronological order of TV display technologies?
(a) CRT, Plasma, LED
(b) CRT, LED, Plasma
(c) LED, CRT, Plasma
(d) Plasma, LED, CRT
Ans: (a)
104. Consider the following statements:
a. Employment growth in India in the second half of the first decade of 21st century was relatively modest.
b. There was lower labour force participation rate across all ages during the period.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a) a only
(b) b only
(c) Both a and b
(d) Neither a nor b
Ans: (c)
105. Which one among the following sectors in India has the highest share of employment?
(a) Agriculture and allied activities
(b) Manufacturing
(c) Construction
(d) Tertiary sector
Ans: (a)
106. The Human Development Report, 2013 (UNDP) does not focus on
(a) sustaining development momentum
(b) peace and security
(c) confronting environmental pressure
(d) managing demographic change
Ans: (b)
107. In order to provide pensions to workers of the unorganized sector, which one among the following schemes has been launched by the Government?
(a) Swabhiman
(b) Swavalamban
Ans: (b)
108. Which one among the following is the latest nation to join the World Trade Organisation
(as on March 2013)?
(a) North Korea
(b) China
(c) Russia
(d) Tajikistan
Ans: (d)
109. The 27th Indira Gandhi Award for National Integration was conferred on
(a) Ela Bhatt
(b) Gulzar
(c) Mohan Dharia
(d) A. R. Rahman
Ans: (b)
110. Who among the fllowing won the Men’s Singles All-England Badminton Championship held in Birmingham, England in 2013?
(a) Lee Chong Wei
(b) Chen Long
(c) Chen Jin
(d) Lin Dan
Ans: (b)
111. The following are some important sources of tax revenue for the Union Government in India:
a. Corporation tax
b. Customs
c. Union excise duties
d. Service tax Arrange the aforesaid sources of revenue in ascending order as per the Budget Estimates for 2013-14.
(a) a-b-c-d
(b) a-b-d-c
(c) b-a-c-d
(d) d-c-b-a
Ans: (d)
112.Which of the following statements about the scheme ‘Roshni’ launched by the Ministry of Rural Development in June 2013 is/are correct?
a. The scheme is supposed to provde training and employment to youth in the age group of 10 to 35 years.
b. 50% of the beneficiaries of the scheme will be women.
c. It is a cent percent Central Government funded scheme.
Select the correct answer using the code given below.
(a) a only
(b) b only
(c) a and b only
(d) a, b and c
Ans: (b)
113. In February 2013, the International Court of Arbitration at The Hague ruled in favour of India’s position on the diversion of Kishanganga water setting aside the objections raised by
(a) Pakistan
(b) China
(c) Nepal
Ans: (a)
114.Consider the following statements about NEOSSat launched at PSLV in February 2013?
a. It is the only space telescope dedicated to searching for asteriods that might have a threat to the earth.
b. It was designed and developed by ISRO.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a) a only
(b) b only
(c) Both a and b
(d) Neither a nor b
Ans: (a)
115.The Government of India on 12th June, 2013 enhanced the limit of foreign investments in government securities by 5 billion US dollar. In this regard, which of the following statements is not correct?
(a) It was done in order to increase inflow of overseas capital
(b) It will strengthen the value of rupee
(c) The foreign institutional investors registered to SEBI are only eligible for investment in enhanced limit of 5 billion US dollar
(d) The investment can be made in all categories of investments across the board
Ans: (d)
116. The Central Board of Direct Taxes (CBDT) in June 2013 has specirfied a value for the cost inflation index of 2013- 14. In this regard, which of the statements given below is/are correct?
a. There has been a rise in the cost inflation index over the year 2012-13.
b. The cost inflation index helps in reducing the inflationary gains, thereby reducing the long=term capital gains tax payout for a taxpayer.
Select the correct answer using the code given below:
(a) a only
(b) b only
(c) Both a and b
(d) Neither a nor b
Ans: (c)
117.United Nations General Assembly declared the year 2013 as
(a) International Year of Water Cooperation
(b) International Year of Space Cooperation
(c) International Year of Air Cooperation
(d) International Yearof Science and Technology Cooperation
Ans: (a)
118. Which of the following recommendations of J.S. Verma Committee on crime against women was/were accepted by the Government by way of an ordinance?
a. Armed force personnel, who commit crime against women, could be tried under ordinary criminal law
b. There would be restriction of politicians facing sexual offence charges from contesting elections
c. Criminalisation of marital rape
d. Question regarding moral character will not be put to the victim during cross-examination Select the correct answer using the code given below:
(a) b, c and d
(b) b and d only
(c) a, b and c
(d) d only
Ans: (d)
Directions (119-125): The followin seven (7) items consists of two statements. Statements I and Statement II. You are to examine these two statements carefully and select the answer to these items using the code given below:
Code:
(a) Both the statements are invidually true and Statement II is the correct explanation of Statement I
(b) Both the statements are individually true but Statement II is not the correct explanation of Statement I
(c) Statement I is true but Statement II is false
(d) Statement I is false buy Statement II is true
119.
Statement I: When a piece of brick lying on grass for a number of days is removed, the covered part of the grass appears pale.
Statement II: Synthesis of chlorophyll, which gives green pigment, occurs in presence of sunlight
Ans:
(a)
120. Statement I: The mirror used in searchlight is parabolic.
Statement II: All the rays coming from the source at the focus of a parabolic mirror are reflected as an intense parallel beam.
Ans:
(a)
121. Statement I: Ozone is produced naturally by the action of ultraviolet radiation on oxygen molecule (O2) in the upper atmosphere.
Statement II: Ozone depletion has been caused by the release of chlorofluoro carbons
(CFCs) into the atmosphere.
Ans:
(b)
122. Statement I: Virgin soils of newly cleared forests give higher yield of office.
Statement II: Coffee is a soil nutrient exhaustive crop.
Ans:
(a)
123. Statment I: Ashoka called the Third Buddhist Council in 252 BC at Pataliputra and it was there that the Buddhist Chruch became divided into two sects – the Hinayana and the Mahayana.
Statement II: K a n i s h k a called the Fourth Buddhist Council at Kundalvana near Srinagar and Vasumitra was believed to have acted as President.
Ans:
(d)
124.Statement I: The Jajmani system was one in which the village artisans supplied traditionally fixed quantities of their products to peasant families in return for shares in the harvest.
Statement II: The Jajmani system was a system of the Jotedars (rich farmers) and the Bargadars (sharecroppers).
Ans:
(c)
125. Statement I: For the three years after 2007-08 Annul Budget in India, there was practically no increase in tax/ GDP ratio.
Statement II: At the same time, government expenditure jumped noticeably.
Ans: (b)

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