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UPSC CAPF ASSISTANT COMMANDANT PREVIOUS YEAR PAPER 2010

UPSC ASSISTANT COMMANDANT PREVIOUS PAPER 2010


1.
Six friends A, B, C, D, E and F are seated in a circle facing centre.
If F is between A and D, C is between E and B, E is not between D and C, and D is 2nd to the left of C; which one of the following is the position of D?
(a) 2nd to the right of A
(b) Next to the right of B
(c) 3rd to the left of B
(d) 4th to the right of A
Ans: (a)
2. A man is 24 years older than his son. In two years, his age will be twice the age of his son. Which one of the following is the present age of his son?
(a) 14 years
(b) 18 years
(c) 20 years
(d) 22 years
Ans: (d)
3. The sum of ages of 5 children born at the intervals of 3 years each is 50 years. Which one of the following is the age of the youngest child?
(a) 4 years
(b) 5 years
(c) 6 years
(d) 10 years
Ans: (a)
4. A number consists of two digits.
If the digits interchange places and the new number is added to the original number, then the resulting number will always be divisible by:
(a) 10
(b) 11
(c) 12
(d) 13
Ans: (b)
5. Ms X drove at the speed of 45 km/hr from home to a resort. Returning over the same route she got stuck in traffic and took an hour longer, also she could drive only at the speed of 40 km/hr.
How many kilometers did she drive each way?
(a) 250
(b) 300
(c) 310
(d) 360
Ans: (d)
6. X, Y and Z can finish a work in 12, 15 and 18 days respectively.
In how many days will all the three finish the work?
(a) 4 \(\frac{32}{37}\)
(b) 5
(c) 5 \(\frac{1}{37}\)
(d) 5 \(\frac{5}{37}\)
Ans: (a)
7. If the ratio of the sum and difference of two numbers be 17:
13, which one of the following is the ratio of the numbers?
(a) 12: 5
(b) 15: 2
(c) 9: 8
(d) 2: 15
Ans: (b)
8.

Which one among the following is the water image of the figure given above?
(a)
(b)
(c)
(d)
Ans: (c)
9.

How many triangles are there in the figure given above?
(a) 10
(b) 11
(c) 12
(d) 13
Ans: (b)
10.

Two different positions of the same dice are shown above. If digit 1 be on the base, which one among the following digits will be on the top?
(a) 2
(b) 3
(c) 4
(d) 6
Ans: (a)
11.

Which one among the following figures will replace the question mark on the figure given above?
(a)
(b)
(c)
(d)
Ans: (c)
12.

A sheet has been folded in the manner as shown in X and Y and punched as in Z above. Choose from the following how will it look when unfolded?
(a)
(b)
(c)
(d)
Ans: (d)
13. Which one among the following figures does not follow the same trend?
(a)
(b)
(c)
(d)
Ans: (b)
Next Two (02). Items are based on the following Table: Installed capacity and production of vehicles over the years

Capacity utilization = \(\frac{Production}{Installed\ Capacity}\)
14. Which one among the following categories has not experienced growth in installed capacity over the period of 2005 to 2007?
(a) Cars
(b) Motor-bikes
(c) Jeeps
(d) Autorickshaws
Ans: (c)
15. Which of the following statements is/are correct?
1. All categories of automobiles experienced a growth in production between 2006 and 2007.
2. In 2007 the capacity utilization of Jeeps was higher than that of Motor bikes.
3. Cars, Scooters and Autorickshaws experienced a decline in production from 2006 to 2007.
Select the correct answer using the code given below:
(a) 1 and 2
(b) 2 only
(c) 3 only
(d) 2 and 3 Next Three (03) Items have problem figures and answer figures. You are to identify the answer figure which will come at the end of the problem figure: Problem Figures Answer Figures
Ans: (c)
16. Rs. 782 is divided into three parts proportional to the fractions \(½,23 and34\). Then the first part is
(a) Rs. 182
(b) Rs. 190
(c) Rs. 196
(d) Rs. 204
Ans: (c)
17. If the duty on an article is reduced by 40% of its present rate, by how much per cent must the consumption increase in order that the revenue remains unaltered?
(a) 60%
(b) 62 %
(c) 66 \(\frac{1}{3}\) %
(d) 72%
Ans: (a)
18. A train passes through a tunnel whose length is 500 metres in 1 minute while running at a speed of 72 km. per hour.
The length of the train is—
(a) 700 metres
(b) 750 metres
(c) 800 metres
(d) 825 metres
Ans: (d)
19. Below are the sales figures for 3 different types of network servers over 3 months:
\(\frac{2}{3}\)ServerJanuaryFebruaryMarchUnitsValueUnitsValueUnitsValueZXC43324804060048720ZXC53455854558545585ZXC63122401428018340

Which one of the following servers had its unit price changed in March?
(a) ZXC43
(b) ZXC53
(c) ZXC63
(d) None of them organisms.
Ans: (c)
20.

Consider the above diagram and identify from below the number which represents graduate hardworking rural people who are not honest?
(a) 2
(b) 3
(c) 5
(d) 6
Ans: (a)
21. Which one of the following elements has valency three?
(a) Oxygen
(b) Lithium
(c) Carbon
(d) Boron
Ans: (d)
22. Which one of the following has highest energy?
(a) a-rays
(b) b-rays
(c) g-rays
(d) X-rays
Ans: (c)
23. Glass is a:
(a) vitrified liquid.
(b) crystalline material.
(c) semisolid.
(d) polymeric material.
Ans: (a)
24. Which one among the following is a physical process?
(a) Digestion of food
(b) Corrosion or rusting of a metal
(c) Production of hydrogen from an acid
(d) Sublimation of iodine
Ans: (d)
25. Smoking causes oxygen deficiency in the body because of:
(a) increase in SO2 levels in blood.
(b) decrease in O2 content in blood.
(c) increase in CO and CO2 contents in blood.
(d) increase in only CO content in blood.
Ans: (b)
26. The rate of breathing in aquatic animals/organisms is much faster than that seen in terrestrial
Ans:
(d)
27. Which organ in animals breaks fat to produce cholesterol?
(a) Kidney
(b) Heart
(c) Lungs
(d) Liver
Ans: (d)
28. The coconut water from a tender coconut is:
(a) an embryo.
(b) a free nuclear endosperm with multiple nuclei,
(c) a cellular endosperm.
(d) a non-nutritive fluid.
Ans: (b)
29. A patient suffering from a prolonged illness and on an antibiotic regime is recommended intake of probiotics in his diet.
These probiotics are supplements essentially comprising:
(a) proteins.
(b) vitamins.
(c) lactic acids bacteria.
(d) electrolytes.
Ans: (c)
30. Who among the following can be the chairman of the National Human Rights Commission?
(a) Any serving judge in the Supreme Court
(b) Any serving judge in the High Courts
(c) Only a retired Chief Justice of India
(d) Only a retired Chief Justice of High Courts
Ans: (c)
31. A person may bleed from the nose when at a great height above the sea level. With reference to this, which one of the following statements is correct?
(a) The pressure exerted by the blood in blood capillaries is slightly less than the atmospheric pressure
(b) The pressure exerted by the blood in blood capillaries is more than the atmospheric pressure
(c) There is no difference in the internal and external pressures on the walls of the cells and blood capillaries
(d) Blood capillaries in the nose can absorb less oxygen at greater height so it bursts
Ans: (b)
32. The Stethoscope used by a medical practitioner is based on the phenomenon of:
(a) multiple reflection of sound waves.
(b) scattering of sound waves.
(c) refraction of sound waves.
(d) none of the above
Ans: (a)
33. The Earth travels on its orbit at a speed of approximately 4400 km per hour. Why do we not feel this high speed?
(a) We are too small compared to the size of the Earth
(b) Our relative speed with respect to the Earth along the Earth’s orbit is zero
(c) The gravity of the Earth constantly pulls us towards the Earth’s centre
(d) The solar system as a whole is also moving
Ans: (d)
34. During free fall of an object:
(a) its potential energy increases and its kinetic energy decreases.
(b) its potential energy decreases and its kinetic energy increases.
(c) both its potential energy and kinetic energy increase.
(d) both its potential energy and kinetic energy decrease.
Ans: (b)
35. Spectacles used for viewing 3- Dimensional films have:
(a) convex lens.
(b) polaroids.
(c) concave lens.
(d) bifocal lens.
Ans: (b)
36. Which one of the following pairs of rays is not electromagnetic in nature?
(a) X-rays and cathode rays
(b) Gamma rays and X-rays
(c) Alpha rays and beta rays
(d) Beta rays and gamma rays
Ans: (a)
37. Gases may be distinguished from other forms of matter by their:
(a) lack of colour.
(b) ability to flow.
(c) inability to form free surfaces.
(d) ability to exert a buoyant force.
Ans: (c)
38. The vesting of ‘residuary’ powers in the central government by the Constitution of India indicates:
(a) that India is a federal polity.
(b) that India is neither federal nor unitary.
(c) that India is quasi federal.
(d) unitary character of Indian polity.
Ans: (d)
39. Ice is lighter than pure water and floats on the surface. Which one of the following statements is correct to explain this phenomenon?
(a) The structure of ice is similar to that of water
(b) Ice has a disordered 3-dimensional structure
(c) Hydrogen-bonding in ice gives an open type structure with interstitial holes
(d) There is no hydrogen bonding in water
Ans: (c)
40. Which one of the following is a compound?
(a) Milk
(b) Sugar
(c) Tea
(d) Coffee
Ans: (b)
41. Which one of the following statements regarding matter is not correct?
(a) Matter is anything that occu pies space
(b) At high temperatures matter becomes plasma
(c) All matter is composed of large particles such as atoms and molecules
(d) Colloids are made up of larger particles of matter
Ans: (d)
42. Which of the following are the risk factors in the transmission of the HIV infection?
1. Smoking and drinking alcohol
2. Observing bad hygiene
3. Blood transfusion
4. Unprotected sex Select the correct answer using the code given below:
(a) 1 and 3 only
(b) 3 and 4 only
(c) 1,3 and 4
(d) 1, 2 and 4
Ans: (b)
43. Which of the following is/are the methods of prevention from HIV infection?
1. Use of condoms.
2. Use of intra-uterine devices like Copper-T.
3. Staying away from HIV infected person.
4. Using a face mask when in company of HIV infected person.
Select the correct answer using the code given below:
(a) 1 and 2 only
(b) 3 and 4
(c) 1, 2 and 4
(d) 1 only
Ans: (d)
44. Consider the following items of wholesale price index:
1. Primary articles
2. Fuel, power, lights and lubricants
3. Manufacturing products Arrange the above items in descending order in terms of their weightage in calculating wholesale price index:
(a) 1, 2, 3
(b) 1, 3, 2
(c) 3, 1, 2
(d) 3, 2, 1
Ans: (c)
45. Which among the following is/are the reasons behind using Mercury in thermometers?
1. Mercury does not wet the inner sides of the thermometer.
2. It can be seen easily in a thin, capillary tube of the thermometer.
3. It is a good conductor of heat,
4. It is non-toxic.
Select the correct answer using the code given below:
(a) 1 only
(b) 1 and 2 only
(c) 1, 2 and 3
(d) 3 and 4
Ans: (c)
46. X is twice as massive as Y. X also runs twice faster than Y. Which one among the following is the ratio of kinetic energy of X and Y?
(a) 1: 8
(b) 8: 1
(c) 4: 1
(d) 2: 1
Ans: (b)
47. Which one among the following expenditures shall not be charged on the Consolidated Fund of India?
(a) The emoluments and allowances of the President and other expenditure relating to his office
(b) Debt charges for which the Government of India is liable including interests, sinking fund charges and redemption charges
(c) Any sum required to satisfy any judgement, decree or award of any court or arbitral tribunal
(d) The sum required to meet expenditure incurred in natural calamities
Ans: (d)
48. Match List-I with List-II and select the correct answer using the code given below the lists:
List-I (Phenomenon)
A. Reverberation
B. Resonance
C. Refraction of light
List-II
(Reason)
1. Occurs when two waves of equal frequency superpose
2. Occurs when two waves have slightly different frequencies superpose
3. Prolonged echo
4. Occurs as a ray of light enters a second medium
Code:
A B C
(a) 4 3 1
(b) 4 3 2
(c) 2 1 4
(d) 3 1 4
Ans: (d)
49. Which of the following is / are the status of the national assembly called the State Duma constituted by the Czar during the Russian revolution?
1. An elected body
2. An advisory body
3. A law making body
4. An executive body Select the correct answer using the code given below:
(a) 1, 2 and 3
(b) 1 and 2 only
(c) 3 only
(d) 3 and 4
Ans: (a)
50. Which one among the following statements about Kyrgyzstan is not correct?
(a) In June 2010 there was violence between ethnic Kyrgyz and Uzbeks in southern Kyrgyzstan leading to large casualties
(b) Kyrgyzstan hosts US and Russian military bases and it shares a border with China
(c) The country has recently voted to create central Asia’s first parliamentary democracy
(d) USA and Russia have welcomed the developments in the direction of parliamentary democracy in the country
Ans: (d)
51. Consider the following statements about Financial Action Task Force (FATF):
1. It is an Inter Governmental body that devises policies to combat money laundering and terrorist financing.
2. India is a full fledged member of FATF.
3. FATF membership will enable India to access information on suspect accounts in nations such as Switzerland and UK.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a) 1, 2 and 3
(b) 1 and 2 only
(c) 3 only
(d) 1 and 3 only
Ans: (a)
52. Consider the following statements:
1. Sachin Tendulkar has been conferred with the honorary rank of Group Captain by the Indian Air Force.
2. He is the first sportsperson to be conferred with this honour.
Which of the statements given above is/ are correct?
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
Ans: (c)
53. Garuda 2010 is a military exercise involving the air forces of:
(a) India and Russia
(b) India and USA
(c) India and France
(d) India and Japan
Ans: (c)
54. Consider the following statements regarding a record breaking First Round match in Wimbledon Tennis Tournament 2010 between John Isner and Nicolas Mahut:
1. This match is considered as the longest tennis match in the history.
2. There were 183 games in the match with altogether more than 200 aces served.
3. The match was spread over three days.
Which of the statements given above is/ are correct?
(a) 1, 2 and 3
(b) 1 only
(c) 2 and 3 only
(d) 1 and 2 only
Ans: (a)
55. Consider the following statements regarding the Bay of Bengal Initiative for Multi Sectoral Technical and Economic Cooperation
(BIMSTEC):
1. It is an international organisation involving a group of countries in South Asia and South East Asia.
2. All countries with whom India shares international border are members of the organisation.
3. Bangladesh, India, Sri Lanka and Thailand were the original members of the organisation.
Which of the statements given above is/ are correct?
(a) 1, 2 and 3
(b) 1 and 3 only
(c) 1 only
(d) 2 and 3 only
Ans: (b)
56. Why are governments of various countries finding it difficult so far to agree on the ways and means to limit the greenhouse gas emission?
1. They fear that measures to reduce greenhouse gas emissions will have negative effects on their economy.
2. The developing nations regard mandatory limits on their emissions as attempts by the richer countries to hobble their progress.
Select the correct answer using the code given below:
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
Ans: (c)
57. Which one of the following was not identified as a pillar of their reform agenda by the heads of the G-20 nations in the declaration at the Toronto Summit in June 2010?
(a) Relaxing regulatory framework
(b) Effective supervision
(c) Resolution and addressing systemic institutions
(d) Transparent international assessment and peer review
Ans: (a)
58. Which of the following statements is/are correct?
1. The Ajanta caves have been painted with scenes from Jainism.
2. The crowning achievements of Ellora caves is the colossal monolithic Kailasanath temple.
3. The Ajanta caves have been built over a period of eight centuries by different rulers.
Select the correct answer using the code given below:
(a) 1, 2 and 3
(b) 1 and 3 only
(c) 2 only
(d) 2 and 3 only
Ans: (d)
59. Which one of the following is not a World Heritage Site as identified by UNESCO?
(a) Kaziranga National Park
(b) Keoladeo National Park
(c) Manas Wildlife Sanctuary
(d) Bandipur National Park
Ans: (d)
60. The objective of the ‘Golden Handshake’ scheme was to:
(a) stabilize the prices of gold in the market.
(b) improve the labour-management relations in industrial organizations.
(c) close the sick industrial units.
(d) reduce the burden of overstaffing in public enterprises.
Ans: (d)
61. Consider the following statements:
1. Nuclear power is the fourth largest source of electricity in India after thermal, hydro and renewable sources.
2. India is a non-signatory of the Nuclear Non Proliferation Treaty.
3. India is a member of Nuclear Suppliers Group.
Which of the statements given above is/ are correct?
(a) 1, 2 and 3
(b) 1 and 2 only
(c) 1 only
(d) 2 and 3 only
Ans: (b)
62. Consider the following statements:
1. Non Resident Indians (NRIs) can not maintain both Rupee and foreign currency accounts in India.
2. The National Commission for Women has recommended that registration of marriages of NRIs be made mandatory.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
Ans: (b)
63. Consider the following passage and identify the festival referred therein using the code given below:
This festival is celebrated to commemorate the advent of New Year. The celebration is marked with ancient rituals, the stage fights between good and evil, chanting and passing through the crowds with fire torches. The dance of the Ibex deer and the dramatic battles between the King and his ministers add to the joyous atmosphere. The festival is full of dance, music and merry-making.
Code:
(a) Losar
(b) Ullambana
(c) Passover
(d) Gahambars
Ans: (a)
64. With which one among the following countries India does not have any defence treaty?
(a) France
(b) Israel
(c) China
(d) UK
Ans: (c)
65. Which of the following statements regarding the ‘doctrine of cold start’ of the Indian Army is/are correct?
1. It involves joint operations between India’s three services and integrated battle groups.
2. It is a defensive doctrine to respond to Pakistani attack on Indian territory.
3. The doctrine was launched in the year 2004.
Select the correct answer using the code given below:
(a) 2 only
(b) 1 only
(c) 1 and 3
(d) 2 and 3
Ans: (c)
66. Which one among the following is the oldest regiment of the Indian Army?
(a) The Punjab Regiment
(b) The Madras Regiment
(c) The Dogra Regiment
(d) The Gorkha Rifles
Ans: (b)
67. Which one among the following statements about Agni-l is correct?
(a) It is a single stage, solid fuel missile
(b) It has a maximum striking range of 1000 kms
(c) It is a double stage, solid fuel missile
(d) It has a maximum striking range of 1500 kms
Ans: (a)
68. Operation all clear was launched by the:
(a) Indian Army against the NSCN (IM) in Nagaland
(b) Indian Army and Myanmarese Militaries against the insurgents of North East India
(c) Royal Bhutan Army against the insurgents of North East India
(d) Indian Army against the militants of Jammu and Kashmir
Ans: (c)
69. Which among the following actions would violate human rights?
1. State forces disrupting peaceful protests.
2. State forces carrying out search warrants in insurgency affected areas.
3. State forces engaging with armed insurgents in civilian areas resulting in loss of civilian lives.
Select the correct answer using the code given below:
(a) 1 and 3
(b) 1 and 2
(c) 3 only
(d) None of the above
Ans: (a)
70. Consider the following passage:
Dialogue is one of the most important tools of conflict resolution. It implies a sense of creating meaning through talking or reasoning together.
The idea behind a dialogue is to bring together diverse groups of actors with differences in personal experiences, perceptions, and at times, a history of violent conflict between them. The aim of dialogical conflict resolution mechanisms is to create conditions for coordinated action towards a common goal:
the end of violence and the emergence of an inclusive and peaceful society. From the above passage, what would you consider the best option for a successful dialogue between two conflicting actors?
(a) Domination of the strong party in arriving at a negotiated settlement
(b) Work on building a meaningful relationship
(c) Use it as a means to buy time
(d) Create an asymmetric relationship
Ans: (b)
Directions: The following Six
(06)
items consist of two statements, statement I and statement II. You are to examine these two statements carefully and select the answers to these items using the code given below:
Code:
(a) Both the statements are individually true and statement II is the correct explanation of statement I
(b) Both the statements are individually true but statement II is not the correct explanation of statement I
(c) Statement I is true but statement II is false
(d) Statement I is false but statement II is true
71.
Statement I: Crooke’s glass for spectacles contains rare earth metal oxides of praseodymium and neodymium.
Statement II: Crooke’s glass is characterized by its ability to absorb ultraviolet light and to transmit visible light completely.
Ans:
(a)
72. Statement I: Heavy water is used as moderator in nuclear reactor.
Statement II: Thermal neutrons are used for fission reaction in a reactor.
Ans:
(a)
73. Statement I: Conversion of coal to diamond is a physical change.
Statement II: Physical change does not change the composition of the material.
Ans:
(d)
74. Statement I: The Finance Commission makes principles which govern the grants-in-aid of revenues given to the States out of the Consolidated Fund of India.
Statement II: Members of the Finance Commission are drawn from all the States and Union Territories.
Ans:
(c)
75. Statement I: Despite the northerly latitude, the climate of U.K.
is generally mild.
Statement II: Warm air from North Atlantic Drift and Western Africa combines with cold wet air from the Arctic and Iceland.
Ans:
(a)
76. Statement I: The Greek influence on the Indian art manifested itself in the form of Gandhara School of Art and moved from Taxila to Mathura and Saranath.
Statement II: During Gupta period art became entirely and truly Indian.
Ans:
(c)
77. The antipodal position of a place located at 35° south and 80° west is:
(a) 55° north and 80° east
(b) 35° north and 100° east
(c) 100° north and 80° east
(d) 55° south and 10° east
Ans: (b)
78. The irregularity in the amount of rainfall in different parts of north Indian plains is mainly due to:
(a) irregular intensity of low pressure in the north-western parts of India.
(b) variation in the location of the axis of low pressure trough.
(c) difference in frequency of cyclones.
(d) variation in the amount of moisture carried by winds every year.
Ans: (b)
79. Salinity in ocean water decreases when:
(a) evaporation is more.
(b) wind velocity is high.
(c) humidity is high.
(d) rainfall is high.
Ans: (d)
80. Which one among the following is a deep-water all weather sea port in India?
(a) Kandla
(b) Marmugao
(c) Paradeep
(d) Vishakhapatnam
Ans: (c)
81. Why western coast of India receives heavy rainfall but the Deccan Plateau receives very little?
(a) The Deccan Plateau is situated on the beeward side of the Western Ghats
(b) The region is simply bypassed by the south-west monsoon
(c) There is lack of high mountains in the Deccan Plateau
(d) There is weak low pressure belt
Ans: (a)
82. Isohaline is an imaginary line joining the places having equal:
(a) radiation.
(b) insolation.
(c) salinity.
(d) sunshine.
Ans: (c)
83. Which one of the following characteristics related to Nordic countries is true?
(a) None of them are land locked from all four sides
(b) The Arctic Circle passes through all of them
(c) Inland waterway is the most important means of internal transport
(d) The whole region is icecapped throughout the year
Ans: (a)
84. Which one of the following statements about the ‘Sir Creek’ is correct?
(a) It forms the boundary between Gujarat and Sind province of Pakistan
(b) It is an imaginary line dividing the river Jhelum between India and Pakistan
(c) It is a narrow stream forming the boundary between India and Myanmar
(d) It is a tiny island and a reputed tourist spot in the Bay of Bengal
Ans: (a)
85. Consider the following railway zones:
1. North-Eastern Railway
2. Central Railway
3. North-Western Railway
4. South-Eastern Railway.
Which one of the following is the correct order of locations of the headquarters of the above railway zones from west to east?
(a) 1-2-3-4
(b) 2-3-1-4
(c) 3-2-4-1
(d) 3-4-2-1 Next Four (04) items are based on the passage given below: Roughly extending from 8° north to 38° north latitude and from 68° east to 98° east longitude the country of India is of great geographical extent and diversities. It sprawls from the snowy ranges of the Himalayas in the north to the shores of the Indian Ocean in the south through the great plains and plateaus in between. It is about 3200 km in length from north (Kashmir) to south (Kanyakumari) and 2900 km from west (Gujarat) to east (Arunachal Pradesh). Its vastness in area and variation in tropographic character and geological structure result in great diversities in climate, vegetation, soil, cropping pattern, human activities and so on across the country. It is often known as a subcontinent.
Ans: (b)
86. Although the extents of latitude and longitude are same, i.e., 30° why is India’s north-south length longer than the east-west length by 300 km?
(a) The alignment of the country is such that the north-south length is longer than its eastwest length
(b) The north-south length, which is measured along the meridian (great circle) is longer than the east-west length which is measured along the parallel close to the tropic of cancer (small circle)
(c) The north-south and eastwest lengths can not be compared, as the former is measured along the meridian and the latter along the parallel
(d) The difference in length is due to variation in scale error along the meridian and parallel
Ans: (b)
87. Which one among the following is the most important reason behind the prevalence of extreme type of climate in different parts of India?
(a) The long latitudinal extent
(b) The east-west alignment of the Himalayas
(c) The peninsular location of the country
(d) The significant variation in altitude
Ans: (d)
88. Which one of the following is not an important reason behind the prevailing variation in cropping patterns in the country?
(a) Variation in rainfall
(b) Variation in soil type
(c) Variation in irrigation facilities
(d) Variation in altitude
Ans: (d)
89. Which one of the following statements relating to time is not correct?
(a) The local time difference between Gujarat and Arunachal Pradesh is around two hours
(b) Gujarat saves about one hour time over the IST
(c) Arunachal Pradesh loses about two hours time over the IST
(d) The IST is advanced by five hours 30 minutes against the GMT.
Ans: (c)
90. Plants that behave as a Xerophyte in one season and as hydrophyte in another season is known as:
(a) Saprophytes
(b) Tropophytes
(c) Heliotrophytes
(d) Virotophytes
Ans: (c)
91. The lake Ontario and St.
Lawrence of USA and Canada lie to the south-east of:
(a) Hudson Bay
(b) Labrador Sea
(c) Atlantic Ocean
(d) New Foundland
Ans: (a)
92. Which of the following is/are coastal cities?
1. Hamburg
2. Washington
3. Berlin
4. Cairo Select the correct answer using the code given below:
(a) 1, 2 and 3
(b) 2, 3 and 4
(c) 1 and 4
(d) 1 only
Ans: (c)
93. Match List-I with List-II and select the correct answer using the code given below the lists:
List-I
A. Isobars
B. Isohels
C. Isochrones List-II
1. Lines of equal time
2. Lines of equal pressure
3. Lines of equal salinity
4. Lines of equal duration of sunlight
Code:
A B C
(a) 1 2 4
(b) 2 4 3
(c) 2 4 1
(d) 1 2 3
Ans: (c)
94. Which one of the following pairs is correctly matched?
Tropical Cyclone Location
(a) Hurricane Australia
(b) Willy-Willy Japan
(c) Baguio Philippines
(d) Taifu North Atlantic
Ans: (c)
95. Which one of the following can be considered as an initial warning of an approaching Tsunami?
(a) Thundering noise
(b) Squally winds and rainfall
(c) Rapid withdrawal of water away from the beach
(d) Rapid landward movement of water
Ans: (d)
96. Which one of the following temple complexes of India does not represent the typical Nagara style?
(a) Tigawa, Madhya Pradesh
(b) Nachna, Rajasthan
(c) Deogarh, Uttar Pradesh
(d) Mammalapuram, Tamil Nadu
Ans: (d)
97. Which one among the following is not correct about the Subsidiary Alliance?
(a) It was formulated by Wellesley
(b) British army was posted in the subsidiary state
(c) It did not recognize an adopted heir to a subsidiary state
(d) A British Resident was posted in the subsidiary state The Next Three (03) items are based on the following passage: The permanent settlement vested the land ownership right in the zamindars, who previously enjoyed only revenue collecting rights. Therefore, those who lost out in this settlement were the peasants, who were left at the mercy of the zamindars. The customary occupancy right was ignored and they were reduced to the status of tenants. The provision of patta, or written agreement between the peasant and the zamindar providing a record of the amount of rent to be paid, was rarely followed by the zamindars. Nor was it liked by the peasants who always feared to lose in any formal record of rights and obligations. The burden of high revenue assessment was thus shifted to the peasants, who were often also called upon to pay illegal cesses. The subsequent regulations of 1799 and 1812 gave the zamindars the right to seize property of the tenants in case of non-payment of rent without any permission of a court of law. It is no wonder, therefore, that as a cumulative effect of this support to the coercive power of the zamindars, the condition of the actual cultivators declined under the Permanent Settlement.
Ans: (c)
98. According to the passage, the permanent settlement vested:
(a) revenue collecting rights to zamindars.
(b) land ownership rights to the state.
(c) land ownership rights to zamindars.
(d) customary rights to peasants.
Ans: (c)
99. Before the permanent settlement the peasants enjoyed:
(a) customary occupancy rights.
(b) only tenancy rights.
(c) high rent demands.
(d) revenue collecting rights.
Ans: (a)
100. Patta was a written agreement between the:
(a) peasant and zamindars providing a record of the amount of rent.
(b) peasants and the state.
(c) zamindars and the state.
(d) peasants and zamindars regarding cesses to be paid except rent.
Ans: (a)
101. Match List-I with List-II and select the correct answer using the code given below the lists:
List-I
(Classification
of land under Akbar)
A. Polaj
B. Parauti
C. Chachar
D. Banjar List-II
(Explanation)
1. Uncultivated for five years and more
2. Lain fallow for three or four years
3. Left out of cultivation for a time that it may recover its strength
4. Annually cultivated for each crop in succession and never allowed to lie fallow
Code:
A B C D
(a) 1 2 3 4
(b) 4 3 2 1
(c) 1 3 2 4
(d) 4 2 3 1
Ans: (b)
102. Consider the following statements:
1. Akbar Nama and Badshah Nama are the important illustrated Mughal official histories.
2. While Akbar Nama was written by Abdul Hamid Lahori, Badshah Nama was authored by Abu’l Fazl.
3. The Akbar Nama is divided into three books, of which the third book is the Ain-i-Akbari.
Which of the statements given above is/ are correct?
(a) 1 only
(b) 1 and 3 only
(c) 2 and 3 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3
Ans: (b)
103. Which one of the following statements about the moderate leaders of the Indian National Congress is not correct?
(a) They criticized the British for drain of wealth from India
(b) They advocated boycott of foreign goods
(c) They ignored the issue of exploitation of Indian rural people by the zamindars
(d) They comprehended the vital role played by India in the imperial economy of Britain
Ans: (c)
104. Consider the following passage:
It urged people to resign from government offices, shun the British law-courts, withdraw from schools and colleges and boycott the elections. On the other hand, there was a campaign for using indigenous goods, especially khadi or homespun cloth.
Which movement does the above passage relate to?
(a) Swadeshi
(b) Non-cooperation
(c) Civil Disobedience
(d) Quit India
Ans: (b)
105. Which of the following statements about the Montagu-Chelmsford Reforms is/are correct?
1. It was approved by King George V.
2. It made the Central Legislature bicameral.
3. The Act explicitly mentioned the appointment of three Indian members to the Council.
Select the correct answer using the code given below:
(a) 1, 2 and 3
(b) 1 and 2 only
(c) 2 only
(d) 1 and 3 only
Ans: (a)
106. Which among the following was the primary aim of the Swarajya Party?
(a) To cooperate with the government in implementing the reforms of 1919
(b) To gain experience of the functioning of representative government
(c) To wreck the scheme of the reform of 1919 by a policy of uniform, continuous and consistent obstruction
(d) To exhibit displeasure over the failure of non-cooperation movement
Ans: (c)
107. Consider the following statements about the Deccan Riots
(1875):
1. It was a peasant revolt but not a movement of the poor tribals or landless peasants.
2. It was led by the relatively better-off sections of the peasantry who were called Kunvi peasants in Maharashtra.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
Ans: (c)
108. Which one among the following was not a programme adopted by the Congress while launching the non-cooperation movement?
(a) Surrender of titles and honorary offices, resignation from nominated seats in local bodies, boycott of the official and semi official functions
(b) Withdrawal of children from government schools and colleges
(c) Boycott of elections, foreign goods and government courts
(d) Refusal to pay the revenues to the government
Ans: (d)
109. Which among the following statements is/are correct?
1. The Battle of Plassey was won by the British more by their diplomatic skill than by their strength of arms.
2. The Battle of Buxar was culminated with the Treaty of Allahabad and settlement with the Nawab of Awadh.
Select the correct answer using the code given below:
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
Ans: (c)
110. The cow was an important form of wealth in:
(a) the Rigvedic age.
(b) the later-Vedic age.
(c) the post-Vedic age.
(d) the Epic age.
Ans: (a)
111. Which one among the following vaishnava saints was the author of Kirtana-Ghosha?
(a) Madhav Kandali
(b) Srimanta Sankardeva
(c) Madhabdeva
(d) Damodardeva
Ans: (b)
112. Which one of the following was the cause of the Battle of Plassey?
(a) The English levied heavy duties on the goods entering Calcutta
(b) Siraj-ud-Daulah suspected that the English favoured his rivals
(c) The English began to fortify Calcutta
(d) Siraj-ud-Daulah was instigated by the French
Ans: (c)
113. Which one among the following was not correct about Permanent Settlement in India?
(a) It was introduced by Lord Cornwallis
(b) It was implemented in Bengal and Bihar
(c) Zamindars were only revenue collectors but not the owners of the land
(d) The cultivators were reduced to the status of tenants
Ans: (c)
114. Which one among the following is the basis of difference between the Parliamentary and Presidential system of government?
(a) Power of Judicial review
(b) Method of election of President/ Head of the State
(c) Legislative supremacy in law making
(d) Relation between the legislature and the executive
Ans: (d)
115. Which one of the following statements is not correct?
(a) It is the responsibility of the Election Commission to get the names of all eligible voters put on the voters list
(b) Normally a complete revision of the list takes place every five years
(c) Possessing Election Photo Identity Card is compulsory for voting
(d) In rare situations, some criminals and persons with unsound mind can be denied the right to vote
Ans: (c)
116. Consider the following treaties/ agreements:
1. Indira-Mujib treaty.
2. Indo-Sri Lanka free trade agreement.
3. Indo-Bhutan treaty of friendship.
4. Indo-Myanmar border trade agreement.
Which one of the following is the correct chronological order of the above (starting with the earliest)?
(a) 1-2-3-4
(b) 4-2-1-3
(c) 3-1-4-2
(d) 3-4-1-2
Ans: (c)
117. Identify the correct sequence of the procedure in respect of the Money Bill:
(a) Voting of grants—Vote on account- Cut motions-Appropriation bill
(b) Vote on account—Voting of grants-Appropriation bill-Cut motions
(c) Voting of grants-Cut motions- Vote on accounts—Appropriation bill
(d) Vote on accounts-Appropriation bill–Voting of grants—Cut motions
Ans: (c)
118. The Constitution of India:
(a) does not provide any clause regarding the President’s reelection to the office.
(b) restricts the President’s tenure to a maximum two terms.
(c) has been amended to allow a person for only one term as President.
(d) allows re-election of a person to the President’s post.
Ans: (d)
119. Which one among the following disputes is not included in the ‘original jurisdiction’ of the Supreme Court of India?
(a) Between the Government of India and one or more states
(b) Between the Government of India and one or more citizens of India
(c) Between the Government of India and any state or states on one side and one or more states on the other
(d) Between two or more states
Ans: (b)
120. An amendment bill to the Constitution of India requires to be ratified by legislatures of not less than one half of the states if it seeks to make any change in:
1. Article 54 of the Constitution.
2. any of the Lists in the Seventh Schedule.
3. the representation of states in the Parliament.
Select the correct answer using the code given below:
(a) 1 and 2 only
(b) 1, 2 and 3
(c) 2 and 3 only
(d) 1 and 3 only
Ans: (b)
121. Which of the following statements, regarding the fundamental duties is/are correct?
1. There is no provision in the Constitution for direct enforcement of any of the duties nor for any sanction to prevent their violation.
2. Duties are obligatory for a citizen and that the state should also strive to achieve the same.
3. The fundamental duties in Article 51A is confined to all persons and not to citizens only.
Select the correct answer using the code given below:
(a) 1 only
(b) 1 and 2 only
(c) 1, 2 and 3
(d) 3 only
Ans: (a)
122. Identify the correct sequence of the following coalition/parties in central government in India starting with the earliest:
1. United Front with Congress support.
2. Congress supported by AIADMK and some smaller parties.
3. National Front supported by Left Front and BJP.
4. Section of National Front led by Samajwadi Janata Party, supported by Congress.
Select the correct answer using the code given below:
(a) 3-4-2-1
(b) 4-3-1-2
(c) 2-4-1-3
(d) 3-2-4-1
Ans: (a)
123. If the President of India exercises his power as provided under Article 356 of the Constitution of India in respect of a particular state, then:
(a) the Assembly of the state is automatically dissolved.
(b) Article 19 is suspended in the state.
(c) the Parliament assumes the power to legislate on the subject in the State List.
(d) Article 353 comes into force automatically.
Ans: (c)
124. In which one of the following cases did the Supreme Court of India include the ‘right to education’ in ‘right to life’?
(a) State of Uttar Pradesh v. Abdul Samad (1962)
(b) Frank Anthony Public School Employees’ Association v. Union of India and Others (1986)
(c) Mohini Jain v. State of Karnataka (1992)
(d) Ramanuja v. State of Tamil Nadu (2002)
Ans: (c)
125. The digital divide refers to the:
(a) division among the politicians on the basis of knowledge and use of computer.
(b) widening of the gap between those who have access to technology and those who do not.
(c) division between people who are computer literate and those who are not.
(d) division of the workforce of the country between specialists and generalists.
Ans: (c)

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