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UPSC CAPF ASSISTANT COMMANDANT PREVIOUS YEAR PAPER 2006

UPSC ASSISTANT COMMANDANT PREVIOUS PAPER 2006


1.
Consider the following statements:
1. In India the share of different sectors in the installed electricity generation capacity is central sector > state sector > private sector.
2. The percentage of thermal power out of the total installed electricity generation capacity in India is about 40%.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
Ans: (d)
2. Which of the following countries does not follow the Westminster system of Parliament?
(a) Malaysia
(b) Singapore
(c) Australia
(d) Switzerland
Ans: (d)
3. Magna Carta in England led to the development of
(a) Constitutional law
(b) International law
(c) Labour law
(d) Criminal law
Ans: (a)
4. Which of the following are included in the Constitution of India as the Directive Principles of State Policy?
1. Separation of Judiciary from Executive
2. Participation of workers in management of industry
3. Equal justice and free legal aid Select the correct answer using the code given below:
(a) 1 and 2 only
(b) 2 and 3 only
(c) 1 and 3 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3 only
Ans: (d)
5. Consider the following statements:
1. The Annual Financial Statement
(Annual Budget) is caused to be laid by the Union Finance Minister before both Houses of the Parliament.
2. The general discussion of the Annual Finance Statement takes place only in the Lok Sabha.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
Ans: (d)
6. Consider the following statements:
1. For a person to be eligible for election as the Vice-President of India, he must be qualified for election as a member of the Rajya Sabha.
2. No person has ever been reelected as the Vice-President of India for a second term.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
Ans: (a)
7. Consider the following statements
1. The Comptroller and Auditor General of India can be removed only on an address from both Houses of Parliament.
2. In India, the Comptroller and Auditor General has not control over the issue of money from the Consolidated Fund of India.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
Ans: (c)
8. Consider the following statements:
1. The Constitution of India classifies the members of the Council of Union Ministers into three ranks.
2. A member of Rajya Sabha can be chosen as a Union Minister and he enjoys the right to vote in the Lok Sabha.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
Ans: (d)
9. Consider the following statements:
1. A child inherits 46 chromosomes from each parent.
2. The genetic material called DNA is located in chromosomes.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
Ans: (b)
10. Consider the following statements:
1. BSE Sensex is a valueweighted index consisting of 50 most actively traded stocks on the BSE.
2. The depository system enables paperless trading and transfer of shares.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
Ans: (b)
11. What is the present (approximate) Gross Domestic Product of India in the US Dollar Exchange- rate terms?
(a) US$ 480 billion
(b) US$ 720 billion
(c) US$ 1000 billion
(d) US$ 1220 billion
Ans: (*)
12. In what capacity was P.C.
Mahalanobis involved with the formulation of the economic policy of independent India?
(a) As an applied statistician
(b) As Deputy Chairman of the Planning Commission
(c) As a leading industrialist
(d) As a Minister of the Union Cabinet
Ans: (a)
13. Which one of the following is the southernmost major port?
(a) Tuticorin
(b) Mangalore
(c) Ennore
(d) Kochi
Ans: (a)
14. Which one of the following States does not share a border with Orissa?
(a) West Bengal
(b) Jharkhand
(c) Madhya Pradesh
(d) Andhra Pradesh
Ans: (c)
15. Consider the following statements:
1. GATT was succeeded by the World Trade Organization in the year 1995.
2. Headquarters of WTO are in Doha.
3. World Intellectual Property organisation is a specialized agency of WTO.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) 2 and 3 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3
Ans: (a)
16. Which one of the following is used as a preservative for foods?
(a) Adipic acid
(b) Butyric acid
(c) Citric acid
(d) Formic acid
Ans: (d)
17. Which one of the following gases contains the greatest percentage of carbon monoxide?
(a) Coal gas
(b) Natural gas
(c) Producer gas
(d) Water gas
Ans: (d)
18. Which one of the following is a metalloid?
(a) Zinc
(b) Platinum
(c) Mercury
(d) Arsenic
Ans: (d)
19. Which one of the following is used in fire extinguishers?
(a) Baking soda
(b) Slaked lime
(c) Quick lime
(d) Washing soda
Ans: (a)
20. Why is common salt added to soap during its production?
(a) To decrease the solubility of soap
(b) To increase the solubility of soap
(c) To produce lather with hard water
(d) To provide greater cleansing action
Ans: (a)
21. Which one of the following does not contain copper as constituent?
(a) Phosphorbronze
(b) Solder wire
(c) German silver
(d) Gun metal
Ans: (b)
22. Which is the most abundant metal in the earth’s crust?
(a) Iron
(b) Aluminium
(c) Manganese
(d) Magnesium
Ans: (b)
23. Which smelling substance is added to LPG gas cylinders to help in the detection of gas leakage?
(a) Ethyl alcohol
(b) Ethyl mercaptan
(c) Phenol
(d) Benzene
Ans: (b)
24. Which of the following is the main function of a micro-processor in a computer?
(a) To convert assembly language to machine language
(b) To convert high level language to machine language
(c) To execute programs stored in the memory of the system
(d) To retrieve information from the Internet
Ans: (c)
25. If v1 is the velocity of light, v2 is the velocity of X-rays and v3 is the velocity of g -rays, then which one of the following is correct?
(a) v1 > v2 > v3
(b) v1 > v2 = v3
(c) v1 = v2 > v3
(d) v1 = v2 = v3
Ans: (d)
26. A liquid crystal acquires which one of the following?
(a) A liquid phase
(b) A solid phase
(c) A phase between solid and liquid
(d) A phase between liquid and gas
Ans: (c)
27. Consider the following statements:
1. Puerto Rico is situated in the Caribbean Sea.
2. Puerto Rico is an insular area of the United States of America Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
Ans: (c)
28. Which one of the following is correct?
Angela Merkel is
(a) the Prime Minister of Canada
(b) the Chancellor of Germany
(c) the Prime Minister of Australia
(d) the Prime Minister of New Zealand
Ans: (b)
29. Birju Maharaj is a renowned dancer of
(a) Bharatnatyam
(b) Odissi
(c) Kuchipudi
(d) Kathak
Ans: (d)
30. The United Arab Emirates is a federation of how many Emirates?
(a) 6
(b) 7
(c) 8
(d) 9
Ans: (b)
31. Which one of the following is the first State to have both Indian Institute of Technology and Indian Institute of Management?
(a) Maharashtra
(b) Karnataka
(c) Madhya Pradesh
(d) Uttar Pradesh
Ans: (d)
32. Who among the following former Presidents of India did not hold the office of the Vice-President of India before becoming the President of India?
(a) V.V. Giri
(b) Zakir Hussian
(c) Fakhruddin Ali Ahmed
(d) R. Venkataraman
Ans: (c)
33. What is 1 GB equal to?
(a) 10 MB
(b) 100 MB
(c) 1000 MB
(d) 10000 MB
Ans: (c)
34. Match List I (Defence Institute) with List, II ( Location) and select the correct answer using the code given below the lists:
List I (Defence Institute)
A. Defence Services Staff College
B. College of Defence Management
C. Army War College
D. Military College of Electronics and Mechanical Engineering
List
II ( Location)
1. Mhow
2. Secunderabad
3. Wellington Codes:
A
B C D
(a) 2 1 2 3
(b) 3 2 1 2
(c) 2 2 1 3
(d) 3 1 2 2
Ans: (b)
35. Consider the following statements:
1. United Kingdom comprises England, Wales and Scotland only
2. Great Britain comprises United Kingdom and Northern Ireland.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
Ans: (d)
36. Ankleshwar is well known for which one of the following?
(a) Steel plants
(b) Chemical industry
(c) Ship building
(d) Carpet manufacture
Ans: (b)
37. Which one of the following is not a member of the European Union?
(a) France
(b) Greece
(c) Portugal
(d) Switzerland
Ans: (d)
38. At which one of the following places has WTO Ministerial Conference not been held?
(a) Davos
(b) Cancun
(c) Doha
(d) Seattle
Ans: (a)
39. Which of the following pairs are correctly matched?
1. Uttarkashi: River Bhagirathi
2. Tehri: Confluence of Rivers Bhagirathi and Bhilangana
3. Rudraprayag: Confluence of Rivers Alaknanda and Mandakini Select the correct answer using the code given below:
(a) 1, 2 and 3
(b) 1 and 2 only
(c) 2 and 3 only
(d) 1 and 3 only
Ans: (a)
40. Consider the following statements:
1. Sriharikota is an island off coast of Kerala.
2. Sriharikota houses the Satish Dhawan Space Centre.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
Ans: (b)
41. What is the present level of steel production in India?
(a) 40 – 42 million tonnes
(b) 50 – 62 million tonnes
(c) 60 – 62 million tonnes
(d) 70 – 72 million tonnes
Ans: (b)
42. For the purpose of Census 2001, which one of the following was taken as being literate?
(a) A person aged 10 years and above, who can both read and write with understanding in any language
(b) A person aged 9 years and above, who can both read and write with understanding in any language
(c) A person aged 8 years and above, who can both read and write with understanding in any language
(d) A person aged 7 years and above, who can both read and write with understanding in any language
Ans: (d)
43. On the basis of Census 2001, which Indian State has the highest population after Uttar Pradesh?
(a) Bihar
(b) West Bengal
(c) Maharashtra
(d) Tamil Nadu
Ans: (c)
44. Which of the following are the goals set in the National Population Policy, 2000?
1. Universalisation of primary education and reduction in the drop-out rates at primary and secondary level.
2. Containing of sexually transmitted diseases.
3. Universal immunization of children against vaccine preventable diseases.
4. Reduction in the incidence of marriage of girls below the age of 18 years to zero.
Select the correct answer using the code given below:
(a) 1 and 2 only
(b) 2 and 3 only
(c) 1, 2 and 3 only
(d) 1, 2, 3 and 4
Ans: (b)
45. A metal element and a non-metal element which are obtained in large quantities from sea-water are, respectively:
(a) Sodium and iodine
(b) Sodium and bromine
(c) Magnesium and chlorine
(d) Magnesium and bromine
Ans: (a)
46. Which of the following are the units of pressure?
1. Bar 2. Torr
3. mm of Hg 4. Pascal Select the correct answer using the code given below:
(a) 1, 2 and 3 only
(b) 2, 3 and 4 only
(c) 1 and 4 only
(d) 1, 2, 3 and 4
Ans: (d)
Directions (47-51): A management company is to form a 5-member group to undertake a new project. The team must contain two finance experts, one accountant and two marketing experts. A, B and C can work as finance experts; C, D and E can work as accountants; F, G and H can work as marketing experts. A and C prefer to work with each other on the same group. E prefers to work only if F works.
47.
Which is a possible team if all preferences are respected?
(a) A, B, C, D, F
(b) A, C, D, E, F
(c) A, B, C, F, G
(d) B, C, D, F, G
Ans: (d)
48. If A is chosen as a member of the team and all preferences are respected, which one of the following must be true?
(a) C must work as finance expert
(b) Any of the three marketing experts can be included
(c) Neither D nor E can be included
(d) F must be included
Ans: (b)
49. Which choice of members is impossible if all preferences are respected?
(a) A and B as finance experts, C as accountant
(b) B and C as finance experts
(c) G and H as marketing experts
(d) A and C as finance experts, F and H as marketing experts
Ans: (b)
50. How many different groups are possible if all preferences are respected?
(a) 5
(b) 8
(c) 9
(d) 13
Ans: (c)
51. Which person/persons must be chosen as part of any group, if all preferences are respected?
1. A 2. E
3. F Select the correct answer using the code given below:
(a) 1 only
(b) 1 and 2
(c) 3 only
(d) 2 and 3
Ans: (b)
52. A coin is tossed 5 times. What is the probability that Head (H) appears an odd number of times?
(a) 1/5
(b) 2/5
(c) 1/3
(d) 2/3
Ans: (d)
53. A freight train left Delhi for Mumbai at an average speed of 40 km/hr. Two hours later, an express train left Delhi for Mumbai, following the freight train on a parallel track at an average speed of 60 km/hr.
How far from Delhi would the express train meet the freight train?
(a) 230 km
(b) 240 km
(c) 260 km
(d) 280 km
Ans: (b)
54. There are three tables containing two drawers each. One of the tables contains a gold coin in each of its drawers, another table contains a silver coin in each of its drawers while the third table contains a gold coin in one drawer and a silver coin in the other. One of the drawers of a table is opened and found to contain a silver coin.
What is the probability that its other drawer contains a gold coin?
(a) 1
(b) 0.75
(c) 0.5
(d) 0.25
Ans: (c)
55. Out of a total of 120 musicians, 5% can play all the three instruments – guitar, violin and tabla.
30 musicians among them can play any two and only two of the above instruments. The number of musicians who can play guitar alone is 40. What is the number of musicians who can play violin alone or tabla alone?
(a) 30
(b) 38
(c) 44
(d) 48
Ans: (c)
56. There are 4 horizontal and 4 vertical lines on a board. What is the maximum number of rectangles and squares that can be formed?
(a) 16
(b) 24
(c) 36
(d) 42
Ans: (c)
57. Which one of the following towns was captured by the Indian National Army in March 1944?
(a) Agartala
(b) Aizwal
(c) Digboi
(d) Kohima
Ans: (d)
58. Where are the Headquarters of the International Organisation for Standardisation (ISO) located?
(a) Berne
(b) Geneva
(c) Rome
(d) Vienna
Ans: (b)
59. Who among the following developed the first safe vaccination method?
(a) Alexander Fleming
(b) Edward Jenner
(c) Louis Pasteur
(d) Robert Koch
Ans: (b)
60. Consider the following statements:
1. The design of the National Flag of India was adopted by the Constituent Assembly on 22nd July, 1947.
2. The National Anthem was first sung on 27th December, 1911 at Calcutta Session of Indian National Congress Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
Ans: (c)
61. With reference to Lord Cornwallis’s ‘Permanent Settlement’, which one of the following statements is not correct?
(a) It created a limited proprietary right of Zamindars on the land.
(b) It had taken away the Magisterial powers of Zamindars.
(c) It had left no police work for Zamindars.
(d) It recognized the rights of tenants due to which landlords could never oust them.
Ans: (d)
62. Which of the following Mughal Emperors built the Jama Masjid of Delhi?
(a) Humayun
(b) Akbar
(c) Jahangir
(d) Shahjahan
Ans: (d)
63. Nadir Shah attacked Delhi during the reign of
(a) Ahmad Shah
(b) Farrukh Siyar
(c) Jahandar Shah
(d) Muhammad Shah
Ans: (d)
64. Who was the captain of Italian Football team which won the FIFA World Cup – 2006 in Germany?
(a) Fabio Cannavaro
(b) Allessandro Nesta
(c) Luca Toni
(d) Francesco Totti
Ans: (a)
65. Where is the National Industrial Security Academy of the CISF located?
(a) Hyderabad
(b) Mount Abu
(c) Tekanpur
(d) Gwaldam
Ans: (a)
66. What is the number of integers greater than 7000 that can be formed with the digits 3, 5, 7, 8 and 9, no digit being repeated?
(a) 48
(b) 64
(c) 136
(d) 192
Ans: (d)
67.

Six Xs have to be placed in the squares of the figure given above such that each horizontal row contains at least one X. How many maximum different ways can this be done?
(a) 26
(b) 18
(c) 14
(d) 8
Ans: (a)
Directions (68-71): Each face of cube is painted with a different colour and carries a different number
(from 1 to 6)
(i) The face with the number 1 is opposite to the face with the number 4, while the face with the number 2 is opposite to the face with the number 6.
(ii) The orange face has number 1.
(iii) The face opposite to the orange face is black and has number 4.
(iv) When the orange face is facing an obsevar, the top face is pink and has number 3 on it.
(v) When the grey face is placed facing the observer, the number 1 is on the top, number 2 is on the right side and the left face is blue-cloured.
(vi) White and blue colours are on opposite faces.
68.
Which of the following colours are on the four faces adjacent to the grey-coloured face?
(a) White, Blue, Black, Pink
(b) White, Orange, Black, Blue
(c) Blue, Black, Pink, White
(d) Cannot be determined
Ans: (b)
69. Number 6 is carried by the face having which colour?
(a) Blue
(b) Pink
(c) Grey
(d) White
Ans: (a)
70. When the orange face is facing the observer and the number 2 is on his right, which one of the following numbers will be at the top?
(a) 3
(b) 4
(c) 5
(d) 6
Ans: (c)
71. Colours comprising which one of the following pairs are not opposite to each other?
(a) Orange – Black
(b) White – Blue
(c) Pink – Grey
(d) Black – White
Ans: (d)
Directions (72-76): Read the following seven statement to solve the next five items.
(i) Five boys B1, B2, B3, B4, and B5 and five girls G1, G2, G3, G4 and G5 are sitting on ten chairs (not necessarily in that order). The boys are in the oddnumbered seats starting from the left, while each girl sits to the right of her friend amongst the boys.
(ii) B4 is G4’s friend.
(iii) G5 is not at the right end of the row and her friend is not at the left end of the row.
(iv) B3 is one seat from the right end of the row.
(v) G5’s friend is seated next to the right of G2.
(vi) B2 and his friend occupy the middle pairs of seats.
(vii) G4 sits next to B2
72.
G3’s friend may be
(a) B1 or B2
(b) B1, B3 or B5
(c) B1, B2 or B3
(d) B2 or B5
Ans: (b)
73. Which of the following lists five persons who are sitting adjacent to one another, from left to right?
(a) B2, G2, B1, G5, B5
(b) B4, G4, B2, G2, G5
(c) G2, B2, G4, B4, G1 or G3
(d) B4, G5, B2, G2, B1 or B5
Ans: (d)
74. In order to determine the position of G2, it is necessary to use how many of the seven statements given above?
(a) 3
(b) 4
(c) 5
(d) 6
Ans: (d)
75. Which of the following could be determined exactly if the position of either B1 or B5 were given?
(a) The identity of B1’s friend or B5’s friend; but not both
(b) Only the identity of B1’s friend
(c) Only the identity of B5’s friend
(d) Who is sitting to B4’s left
Ans: (a)
76. Which of the following cannot be determined on the basis of the available information?
1. Who occupies the seat farthest to the left?
2. Who occupies the seat farthest to the right?
3. Which other girls are nearest to G2?
Which the correct answer using the code given below:
(a) 1 and 2
(b) 1 only
(c) 2 only
(d) 2 and 3
Ans: (a)
77. The Constituent Assembly was set up under the
(a) Cripps Mission
(b) Caninet Mission Plan
(c) Wavell Plan
(d) Nehru Report
Ans: (b)
78. Which vitamin is essential for coagulation of blood?
(a) A
(b) D
(c) E
(d) K
Ans: (d)
79. CAPART is engaged primarily with which one of the following in India?
(a) e-governance
(b) Share market
(c) Rural development
(d) Pollution control
Ans: (c)
80. The elements essentially present in Sun are
(a) Oxygen and Nitrogen
(b) Carbon and Oxygen
(c) Hydrogen and Helium
(d) Hydrogen and Oxygen
Ans: (c)
81. Which one of the following pairs is not correctly matched?
(a) Ghadar Movement: Sohan Singh Bhakna
(b) Kisan movement: Lala Lajpat Rai
(c) Hindustan Republican Association: Sachindranath Sanyal
(d) Hindu Dharma Sanrakshini Sabha: Madan Mohan Malaviya
Ans: (b)
82. Consider the following statements:
1. Pandit Jawaharlal Nehru hoisted the National Flag on 31st December, 1929 at Lahore
2. Independence Day was observed on 26th January, 1930 all over India.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
Ans: (c)
83. In humans, which one of the following causes tetanus?
(a) Bacteria
(b) Fungus
(c) Protozoan
(d) Virus
Ans: (a)
84. Consider the following statements:
1. Sundarbans delta is a very large mangrove forest.
2. Sundarbans delta lies at the mouth of the Ganges.
3. Sundarbans National Park has been recognised as a World Heritage Site.
Which of the statements given above are correct?
(a) 1 and 2 only
(b) 2 and 3 only
(c) 1 and 3 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3
Ans: (d)
85. Why does one feel muscular fatigue after strenous physical work?
(a) Accumulation of urea in the nuscles
(b) Accumulation of lactic acid in the muscles
(c) Loss of glucose from muscles
(d) Lack of oxygen in muscles
Ans: (b)
86. Which one of the following organs produces urea in the human body?
(a) Kidney
(b) Liver
(c) Spleen
(d) Urinary bladder
Ans: (b)
87. In most computer systems, how many binary bits are there in a byte?
(a) 8
(b) 16
(c) 32
(d) 64
Ans: (a)
88. Match List I (Mineral) with List II (Main Location of Reserves) and select the correct answer using the code given below the lists:
List-I (Mineral)
A. Tungsten B. Nickel
C. Zircon D. Mica
List-II
(Main Location of Reserves)
1. Andhra Pradesh
2. Kerala 3. Rajasthan
4. Orissa Codes:
A
B C D
(a) 3 4 2 1
(b) 2 1 3 4
(c) 3 1 2 4
(d) 2 4 3 1
Ans: (a)
89. Match List I (Book) with List II
(writer) and select the correct answer using the code given below the lists:
List-I (Book)
A. The Good Earth
B. Untouchable
C. Nectar in a Sieve
D. Train to Pakistan
List-II
(Writer)
1. Khushwant Singh
2. Kamala Markandaya
3. Pearl S. Buck
4. Mulk Raj Anand Codes:
A
B C D
(a) 2 4 3 1
(b) 3 1 2 4
(c) 2 1 3 4
(d) 3 4 2 1
Ans: (d)
90. How is Norman Borlaug well known?
(a) Agricultural scientist who won the Nobel Prize for Peace
(b) Made substantial contribution to research in cancer
(c) Famous humorist and poet
(d) A famous journalist
Ans: (a)
91. Match List I (Famous Person) with List II (Area) and select the correct answer using the code given below the lists:
List-I (Famous Person)
A. E.C.G Sudarshan
B. P.K. Sethi
C. Mihir Sen
D. I.G. Patel
List-II
(Area)
1. Economics
2. Long-distance swimming
3. Orthopaedic surgery
4. Physics Codes:
A
B C D
(a) 4 2 3 1
(b) 1 3 2 4
(c) 4 3 2 1
(d) 1 2 3 4
Ans: (c)
92. Which one of the following is the correct sequence of the population density in the given States/ Union Territories/NCR Delhi?
(a) Delhi > Chandigarh > Uttar Pradesh > West Bengal
(b) Chandigarh > Delhi > West Bengal > Uttar Pardesh
(c) Chandigarh > Delhi > Uttar Pradeseh
(d) Delhi > Chandigarh > West Bengal > Uttar Pradesh
Ans: (d)
93. Match List I ( Factory) with List II (Location) and select the correct answer using the code given below the lists:
List-I (Factory)
A. Rail Coach Factory
B. Integral Coach Factory
C. Wheel and Axle Plant
D. Diesel Loco Works
List-II
(Location)
1. Bangalore
2. Varanasi
3. Kapurthala
4. Perambur Codes:
A
B C D
(a) 3 4 1 2
(b) 2 1 4 3
(c) 3 1 4 2
(d) 2 4 1 3
Ans: (a)
94. Which one of the following states accounts for maximum production of gold in India?
(a) Karnataka
(b) Andhra Pradesh
(c) Goa
(d) Tamil Nadu
Ans: (a)
95. Which one of the following is not located in Maharashtra?
(a) Gorai Beach
(b) Alibaug Beach
(c) Erangal Beach
(d) Devbagh Beach
Ans: (d)
96. Relevance ranking is a term associated with which one of the following?
(a) Search engines in Internet
(b) Critics’ ranking of Hollywood picture
(c) Evaluation process used in purchase of aircrafts
(d) A strategy used in warfare
Ans: (a)
97. Trinidad and Tobago got independent in 1962 from which one of the following countries?
(a) Argentina
(b) Britain
(c) Spain
(d) Portugal
Ans: (b)
98. Match List I (Institute) with List II (Location) and select the correct answer using the code given below the lists:
List-I (Institute)
A. Indian Institute of Tourism and Travel Managment
B. Indian Institute of Tropical Meteorology
C. Indian Institute of Astrophysics
D. Indian Institute of Astrophysics
List-II
(Location)
1. Bangalore
2. Pune
3. Gwalior
4. Hyderabad
5. Mumbai Codes:
A
B C D
(a) 3 2 5 1
(b) 5 1 4 2
(c) 3 1 5 2
(d) 5 2 4 1
Ans: (c)
99. Who among the following was associated with the ‘Great Arc’ – one of the biggest survey exercises in the world?
(a) William Lambton
(b) Adam Smith
(c) E. Raisz
(d) Karl Scheibler
Ans: (a)
100. In which one of the following States is the Falta Special Economic Zone located?
(a) Kerala
(b) Gujarat
(c) Orissa
(d) West Bengal
Ans: (d)
101. Consider the following statements:
1. Pattadakal Group of Monuments have been recognized as a World Heritage Site.
2. Pattadakal Group of Monuments were built by the Chola Dynasty of Southern India.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
Ans: (a)
Direction (102-104): The following three (c) items consist of two statemetns, one labelled as the ‘Assertion
(A)’ and the other as ‘Reason (R)’.
You are to examine these two statements carefully and select the answers to these items using the code given below:
Code:
(a) Both A and R are individually true and R is the correct explanation of A
(b) Both A and R are individually true but R is not the correct explanation of A
(c) A is true but R is false
(d) A is false but R is true
102.
Assertion (A): In the year 1919,
M.A. Jinnah and M.M. Malaviya resigned their membership of Central Legislative Council Reason (R): In the year 1919, the Government of India passed the Rowlatt Act which was opposed by all the Indian members of the Legislative Council.
Ans:
(d)
103. Assertion (A): Subhas Chandra Bose resigned from the office of the President of Indian National Congress in the year 1939.
Reason (R): Subhas Chandra Bose left the Congress to form the Indian Independence League in South-East Asia.
Ans:
(c)
104. Assertion (A): In the Indian system, the Executive cannot impose any tax without legislative sanction Reason (R): It is expressly laid down by our Constitution that no tax can be imposed unless it is authorized by an Appropriation Act.
Ans:
(c)
105. Consider the following statements:
1. The filament of a 60 W bulb is thinner than that of a 100 W bulb
2. The filament of a glowing bulb emits infra-red radiation in addition to visible radiation.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
Ans: (c)
106. Consider the following statements:
1. PVC (used in electric wiring) is an abbreviation for Poly Vanadium Carbon.
2. RDX is an abbreviation for Research Development Explosive.
3. A hectare is equal to 10 acres whereas an acre equals around 4050 square metres of area.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a) 1, 2 and 3
(b) 2 and 3 only
(c) 1 and 3 only
(d) 2 only
Ans: (d)
107. Where is Diego Garcia located?
(a) Atlantic Ocean
(b) Indian Ocean
(c) Pacific Ocean
(d) Mediterranean Sea
Ans: (b)
108. Why can Moon be not used as a communication satellite?
(a) The distance between Earth and the Moon is not suitable for the purpose
(b) The period of revolution of the Moon is not 24 hours
(c) The Moon does not revolve in the equatorial plane of the Earth
(d) All the above three are the reasons
Ans: (d)
109. Where is the Riviera region, well known for its climate, landscape and holiday resorts located?
(a) Between New Zealand and Australia
(b) Between Austria and Switzerland
(c) Between the United States of America and Canada
(d) Between the France and Italy
Ans: (d)
110. A steel chain consists of 50 links connected to each other. The chain is pulled by applying force F at each of its ends. What is the magnitude of force induced in each link
(a) F/50
(b) F
(c) 50F
(d) F/25
Ans: (a)
111. Which one of the following countries does not border the Black Sea?
(a) Romania
(b) Ukraine
(c) Bulgaria
(d) Croatia
Ans: (d)
112. Consider the following statements:
1. The Draft Constitution as well as the Constitution of India adopted by the Constituent Assembly on 26th November, 1949 were in both English and Hindi.
2. As per the Constitution of India, until Parliament by law provides otherwise, all proceedings in the Supreme Court shall be in both English and Hindi.
Which of the following given above is/are correct?
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
Ans: (d)
113. Consider the following statements:
1. In Part IX of the Constitution of India, there is no provision of reservation for women in any seat to be filled by direct election in every Panchayat.
2. The Eleventh Schedule of the Constitution of India distributes powers between the State Legislature and the Panchayat just as the Seventh Schedule distributes power between the Union of India and the States.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
Ans: (d)
114. Consider the following statements:
1. The Governor of a State may reserve a Bill for consideration of President of India.
2. The Governor of a State is competent to withdraw an Ordinance issued in the State at any time.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
Ans: (c)
115. Consider the following statements:
1. In the parliamentary system of India, if the President of India returns a Bill for reconsideration of the Houses; and both the Houses pass the Bill again without any amendment and the Bill is again presented to the President, the President has the power to withhold his assent from the Bill.
2. As per the Constitution of India, the Union Council to Ministers is responsible both to the Lok Sabha and the Rajya Sabha.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
Ans: (d)
116. The well-known case of Keshavananda Bharati-vs-the State of Kerala related to which one of the following issues?
(a) Acquring private land for government
(b) Exploitation of women at workplace
(c) Basic features of the Constitution of India
(d) Reservation of jobs for OBCs in the government service
Ans: (c)
117. Consider the following statements:
1. The British Crown had assumed direct rule in India before the Sepoy Mutiny
2. Lord Canning was made the first Viceroy and Governor General after the end of the rule of the East India Company.
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
Ans: (b)
118. Which of the following is not correctly matched?
(a) The Government of India Act, 1919: Minto-Morley Reforms
(b) The Cripps Mission: Year 1942
(c) The Government of India Act, 1935: Provincial Autonomy
(d) The Cabinet Mission Plan: Year 1946
Ans: (a)
119. In which century was the ancient Vijayanagar city founded?
(a) 17th century
(b) 16th century
(c) 15th century
(d) 14th century
Ans: (d)
120. The Battle of Kanwaha was fought between
(a) Humayun and Mahmud Lodi
(b) Babur and Ibrahim Lodi
(c) Babur and Rana Sangha
(d) Humayun and Sher Khan
Ans: (c)
121. Which one of the following is the correct chronological order?
(a) Kumara Gupta – Samudra Gupta – Chandra Gupta Vikramaditya
(b) Kumara Gupta – Chandra Gupta Vikramaditya – Samudra Gupta
(c) Samudra Gupta – Chandra Gupta Vikramaditya – Kumara Gupta
(d) Samudra Gupta – Kumara Gupta – Chandra Gupta Vikramaditya
Ans: (c)
122. Match List I (City) with List II
(Country) and select the correct answer using the code given below the lists:
List I (City)
A. Zegreb B. Bratislava
C. Victoria D. Montevideo List II ( Country)
1. Uruguay 2. Seychelles
3. Croatia 4. Slovakia Codes:
A
B C D
(a) 2 1 3 4
(b) 3 4 2 1
(c) 2 4 3 1
(d) 3 1 2 4
Ans: (b)
123. Match List I (Famous Athletes) with List II (Event) and select the correct answer using the code given below the lists:
List I (Famous Athletes)
A. Florence Griffith Joyner
B. Michael Johnson
C. K. Bekele
D. S. Bubka List II ( Event)
1. 10,000 m race
2. 200 m race
3. Pole vault
4. 100 m race Codes:
A
B C D
(a) 3 2 1 4
(b) 4 1 2 3
(c) 3 1 2 4
(d) 4 2 1 3
Ans: (d)
124. Consider the following statements:
1. Income Tax Permanent Account Number (PAN) is a 8-digit alphanumeric number.
2. India is divided into 10 zones for postal pin code classification.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
Ans: (d)
125. The term ‘Kamikaze’ was used in reference to
(a) The Singapore industries
(b) The Korean athletes
(c) The Japanese pilots
(d) The Chinese musicians
Ans: (c)

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